Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

How do enzymes change a reaction?

A

Lowers activation energy and are not changed or consumed during the course of the reaction.

DeltaG remains unchanged.

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2
Q

What do dehydrogenases do?

A

Catalyze oxidation reduction reactions, not transfer reactions.

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3
Q

What does the Michaelis Menten equation tell us?

A

Enzymes form enzyme substrate complexes which can either dissociate back into the enzyme and substrate or proceed to form a product

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4
Q

What happens at high concentrations of substrate when the enzyme concentration stays the same?

A

Reaction rate approaches minimal velocity and is no longer changed by further increases in substrate concentration. This levels off the reaction rate after an initial increase.

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5
Q

What is a holoenzyme?

A

Biochemically active compound formed by the combination of an enzyme with a coenzyme

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6
Q

What is an apoenzyme?

A

Enzyme devoid of it’s necessary cofactor and is catalytically inactive

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7
Q

What is a coenzyme?

A

Non protein compound that is necessary for the functioning of an enzyme

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8
Q

What is a zymoenzyme?

A

Inactive precursor of an enzyme

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9
Q

What determines an enzymes specificity?

A

The three dimensional shape of the active site

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10
Q

What is Km?

A

This is the Michaelis menten constant.

Concentration of substrate which permits the enzyme to achieve half vmax.

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11
Q

What is Vmax?

A

Reaction rate when enzyme is fully saturated by substrate. All binding sites are being constantly refilled.

Example: vmax is near 100mmol/sec, vmax/2 equals 50mmol/sec. so the substrate concentration giving this rate is 0.5 mM and corresponds to Km.

This is from a chart

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12
Q

At high concentration values of substrate how if the rate of reaction affected?

A

It will be very close to Vmax if the concentration value is significantly larger than the value of Km.

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13
Q

Competitive inhibitors

A

Same Vmax and higher Km

Competes for active site
Increasing substrate can overcome this
Creates a X in the Burke plot

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14
Q

Noncompetitive inhibitors

A

Decreased Vmax and same Km

Binds to free E or ES complex
Increasing substrate can not overcome this
Doesn’t bind at active site

Km unaffected
Vmax reduced

Comes to a point for the Burke plot

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15
Q

Uncompetitive inhibition

A

Binds to ES complex only. Increasing the substrate favors the inhibition because it creates more ES complexes for it to bind to

Km reduced
Vmax reduced

Parallel lines

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16
Q

What is a lyase?

A

Responsible for breakdown of a single molecule into two molecules without the addition of water or the transfer of electrons

Often form cyclic compounds or double bonds in the products to accommodate this

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17
Q

What is a ligase?

A

Enzyme that catalyzes the joining of two large molecules by forming a new chemical bond. Usually with accompanying hydrolysis.

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18
Q

What is a hydrolase?

A

Use water to break a chemical bond which typically results in dividing a larger molecule to smaller molecules

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19
Q

What is a transferase enzyme?

A

Class of enzymes that enact the transfer of specific functional groups from one molecule (called the donor) to another (called the acceptor)

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20
Q

Cooperative enzyme

A

Demonstrates a change in affinity for the substrate depending on how many substrate molecules are bound. 3 substrates bound means higher affinity than 2 or 1 substrates bound.
Example is hemoglobin.

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21
Q

How does the idea temperature for a reaction change with and without an enzyme catalyst?

A

The rate of reaction generally increases with temperature because of the increased kinetic energy of the reactants but reaches a peak temp because the enzyme denatures. In the absence of an enzyme this peak temperature is generally much hotter.

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22
Q

What is the function of SDS in an SDS page?

A

SDS solubilizes proteins to give them uniformly negative charges so the separation is based purely on size

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23
Q

How does electrophoresis separate proteins?

A

By charges. Use a pH that will cause all of the proteins to be positive or negative except for the one you are trying to separate. Want the one you are separating to be a different charge than the others. Don’t want it to be neutral or it won’t separate out. Can be achieved by comparing the PI to the pH of the solution. If PI is lower than the pH charge will be negative. If PI is higher than pH it will be positively charged. If PI equals PH then it is neutral

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24
Q

What are the most prevalent extra cellular proteins?

A

Keratin, elastin, collagen.

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25
Q

What are the primary cytoskeleton proteins?

A

Tubulin and actin

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26
Q

What is myosin?

A

A motor protein

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27
Q

What type of receptors are hormones most likely to act on?

A

Enzyme linked receptors and G protein coupled receptors.

Not as likely to use ligand gated ion channels because hormones are found in small concentrations but have large effects due to second messaging.

Ligand gated ion channels do not use second messengers

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28
Q

Sodium and potassium are used for

A

Action potentials and are found in their free states rather than bound to proteins.

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29
Q

Chloride is

A

Readily excreted by the kidney

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30
Q

Calcium is normally found bound to a protein because

A

It must be sequestered in the bloodstream and intracellularly because calcium is used for muscle contraction, exocytosis and many other cellular processes that must be tightly regulated

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31
Q

What are characteristics of antibodies?

A

Label antigens for targeting by other immune cells
Antibodies can cause agglutination by interaction with antigen
Have to heavy chains and two light chains.

DO NOT BIND TO MORE THAN ONE DISTINCT ANTIGEN

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32
Q

What ion channels are responsible for maintaining the resting membrane potential?

A

Ungated channels.

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33
Q

What are the components of all trimeric G proteins?

A

Galpha, Gbeta and Ggamma

Gs, Gi and Gq are subtypes of the Galpha subunit of the trimeric G protein and differ depending on the G protein coupled receptors function

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34
Q

Ion-exchange chromatography

A

Separates ions and polar molecules based on their affinity to the ion exchanged. Works on almost any charger molecule including large proteins, small nucleotides and amino acids.

Doesn’t work when pI is very close

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35
Q

Size exclusion chromatography

A

Molecular sieve,
Molecules in solution are separated by their size and in some cases molecular weight. Usually applied to large molecules such as proteins

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36
Q

Isoelectric focusing

A

Electrophoresis technique that separates proteins based on their isoelectric point (pI). The pI is the pH at which a protein has no net charge and does not move in an electric field

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37
Q

Native PAGE

A

Also known as a CN page. Separates acidic water soluble and membrane proteins in a polyacrylamide gradient gel.
Doesn’t use a charger dye so the electrophoretic mobility of proteins is related to the intrinsic charge of the proteins

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38
Q

Difference between gel and chromatography

A

Gel can only handle a small volume of protein so chromatography is used to separate larger volumes

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39
Q

How does the gel for isoelectric focusing differ from the gel for traditional electrophoresis?

A

The gel in isoelectric focusing uses a pH gradient. When a protein it in a region with a pH above its pI it is negatively charged and moves toward the anode. When it is in a pH region below its pI it is positively charged and moves toward the cathode. When the pH equals the pI the migration of the protein is halted.

Anode is positively charged
Cathode is negatively charged

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40
Q

UV spectroscopy

A

Best used with conjugated systems of double bonds. Things such as aromatic amino acids will be adequate for UV absorption

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41
Q

Affinity chromatography

A

Protein elites off of an affinity column by binding free ligand.
If the binding is not reversed the free ligand competes with the active site of the enzyme which lowers its activity

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42
Q

Bradford protein assay

A

Spectroscopic analytical procedure used to measure the concentration of protein in a solution. The reaction is dependent on the amino acid composition of the measured proteins.

The Bradford reagent (is blue) forms a complex with proteins in solution which shifts its absorption maximum from 465 to 595nm. The absorption is proportional to the amount of protein present

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43
Q

What property of protein digesting enzymes allow for a sequence to be determined without fully degrading the protein

A

Selectivity.
The selective cleavage of proteins by digestive enzymes allow fragments of different lengths with known amino acid endpoints to be created. Allows us to make a basic outline of the amino acid sequence

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44
Q

What developmental stage had the greatest nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio?

A

Blastula

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45
Q

Morula stage

A

Early embryo stage consisting of 16 cells (called blastomeres) in a solid ball contained within the zona pellucida
Mulberry

The blastula is formed from this

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46
Q

Blastula

A

Hollow ball of cells, referred to as blastomeres, surrounding an inner fluid filled cavity called the blastocoel

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47
Q

Zygote

A

A diploid cell resulting from the fusion of two haploid gametes. A fertilized ovum

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48
Q

What does the ectoderm give rise to?

A

Gives rise to the integument (epidermis, hair, nails, and the epithelial of the nose, mouth and anal canal, the lens of the eye, nervous system (including the adrenal medulla)
Lungs derived from ectoderm

49
Q

What does the endoderm give rise to?

A

Epithelial linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts and parts of the liver, pancreas, thyroid and bladder.

50
Q

What does the mesoderm arise?

A

Musculoskeletal systemic, circulatory system, excretory system, the gonads and adrenal cortex.

Cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, red blood cells, smooth muscle in gut, tubule cell of the kidney

51
Q

Where does the notochord form from?

A

The mesoderm.

Forms under the dorsal layer of the ectoderm.

While the neural tube forms from ectoderm, the notochord itself is mesodermal

52
Q

What does the dorsal ectoderm form into?

A

Spinal cord and brain.

53
Q

The influence of a specific group of cells on the differentiation of another group of cells is called

A

Induction

54
Q

What is competence?

A

Refers to ability of a cell to respond to a given inducer but not the influence of the group of organizing cells

55
Q

What is senescence?

A

Term for biological aging

56
Q

What is determination?

A

Cells commits to a certain developmental pathway and eventually produces a specialized cell
(Cell fates)

57
Q

Differentiation

A

Cells becoming specialized as the body develops

58
Q

Autocrine signaling

A

Occurs she. A molecule is secreted by a cell and results in an effect on the same cell

59
Q

Juxtacrine signaling

A

Occurs between adjacent cells but does not spread by diffusion. Ligand on one cell surface binds to a receptor on the other.

60
Q

Paracrine signaling

A

Cell releases a substance that diffuser through the environment resulting in differentiation of a nearby cell

61
Q

Endocrine signaling

A

A molecule is secreted that travels via the bloodstream to a very distant target

62
Q

Telomerase

A

Synthesizes telomeres to counteract chromosome shortening during mitosis

63
Q

What is epidermal growth factor?

A

Protein that stimulates cell growth and differentiation by binding to its receptor EGFR

64
Q

Sonic hedgehog

A

Encodes by the SHH gene. Essential for embryonic development. Plays a role in cell growth, cell specialization and normal shaping of the body

65
Q

Transforming growth factor beta

A

Cytokine belonging to the transforming growth factor superfamily. Controls cells growth, cell poliferation, cell differentiation and apoptosis

66
Q

Nonpotent cell

A

Can’t differentiate

67
Q

Totipotent cells

A

Can form all the cell types in the body plus the extra embryonic or placental cells

68
Q

Pluripotent cells

A

Can give rise to all of the cell types that make up the body; embryonic stem cells are considered pluripotent

69
Q

Multipotent cells

A

Can develop into more than one cell type but are more limited than pluripotent cells; adult stem cells and cord blood stem cells are considered multipotent

70
Q

Apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death.

Occurs in multiple locations in order to ensure development of the correct adult structures such as between fingers and toes so we don’t have webbed fingers

71
Q

Neurulation

A

Folding process in vertebrate embryos which includes the transformation of the neural plate into the neural tube. The embryo at this stage is termed the neurula

72
Q

Complete regeneration

A

New tissue is the same as the lost tissue

73
Q

Incomplete regeneration

A

After the necrotic tissue comes fibrosis.

Tissue is replaced by a scar by fibroblasts

74
Q

What is the correct order of early milestones in embryogenesis?

A

Morula—->blastula——>gastrula

75
Q

Teratogens

A

Any agent that can disturb the development of an embryo or fetus

76
Q

Fetal circulation

A

In the umbilical cord there are more arteries than veins.

The foramen ovale is the only shunt that connects two chambers of the heart
The ductus venous is the only shunt that bypasses the liver

Blood flow in the ductus arteriosus is from the pulmonary artery to the aorta

77
Q

When glucose is in a straight chain formation it:

A

Is one of a group of 16 stereoisomers
Glucose has 4 chiral centers not five.
The number of stereoisomers possible for a chiral molecule is 2^n where n is the number of chiral carbons

78
Q

Epimers

A

Are monosaccharide disatereomers that differ in their configuration about only one carbon. As with all diastereomers they have different chemical and physical properties and their optical activities have no relation to each other

79
Q

How are enantiomers optical activities related?

A

Equal but opposite optical activities

80
Q

Aldonic acids are compounds that

A

Have been oxidized and have acted as reducing agents

Form after the aldehyde group on a reducing sugar reduces another compound becoming oxidized in the process

81
Q

The formation of alpha-D-glucopyranose from Beta-D-glucopyranose is called:

A

Mutarotation which is the inter conversion between anomers of a compound.

82
Q

Enantiomerization and racemization mean

A

The same thing as each other, the formation of a mirror image or optically inverted form of a compound

83
Q

Glycosidation

A

Is the addition of a sugar to another compound

84
Q

Why can ketone sugars act as reducing sugars?

A

Ketose sugars undergo tautomerization, a rearrangement of binds to undergo keto-Enol shifts. This forms an Aldose which allows them to act as reducing sugars

85
Q

A ketone group alone cannot be

A

Oxidized

86
Q

Anomerization

A

Refers to ring closure of a monosaccharide, creating an anomeric carbon.

Carbonyl carbon becomes anomeric carbon in ring(carbon to the right of the O) then ring works clockwise around ring and down Fischer projection starting with 1 to add substituents. Anomeric carbon is labeled 1

In the ring the substituent on the anomeric carbon can be in either position

87
Q

What enzyme cleaves polysaccharide chains and yields maltose exclusively?

A

B-amylase.

Cleaves amylose at the non reducing end of the polymer to yield maltose exclusively

88
Q

Alpha amylase

A

Cleaves amylose anywhere along the chain to yield short polysaccharides, maltose and glucose.

89
Q

Debranching enzyme

A

Removes oligosaccharides from a branch in glycogen or starches

90
Q

Glycogen phosphorylase

A

Yields glucose 1-phosphate

91
Q

Maltose

A

Glucose and glucose
Alpha 1,4
Reducing sugar

92
Q

Lactose

A

Glucose and glucose
Beta 1,4
Reducing sugar

93
Q

Sucrose

A

Glucose and fructose
Beta 1,5

Plant sugar
Non reducing

94
Q

Why is the alpha anomer of D glucose less likely to form than the B anomer?

A

The beta anomer undergoes less electron repulsion.
They hydroxyl group in the anomeric carbon of the beta anomer is equatorial thereby creating less steric hindrance than the alpha anomer which has the hydroxyl group of the anomeric carbon in axial position

95
Q

Wheat two polysaccharides share all of their glycosidic linkage types in common?

A

Glycogen and amylopectin

Both demonstrate branching structure.
Both use alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 linkages

96
Q

Cellulose

A

Beta 1,4 linkages

Glucoses together

97
Q

Amylose

A

Alpha 1,4 glycosidic bonds

Connecting glucose

98
Q

What is digestible by humans and is made up of only one type of monosaccharide?

A

Maltose. Disaccharide)

Alpha 1,4 linkages of glucose.

Cellobiose have same glucose subunits but has B glycosidic linkages which can not be cleaved by the human body

99
Q

Mutarotation

A

Hemiacetal ring breaks open spontaneously and then reforms after bond is roared between C-1 and C-2 to produce either an alpha or beta anomer.

100
Q

Hemiketal

A

Has an OH group, an OR group and two R groups and are formed from ketones

101
Q

The cyclic forms of monosaccharides are

A

Hemiacetals and hemiketals

102
Q

Glycolipid

A

Lipid with a carbohydrates attached by a glycosidic covalent bond. Maintains stability of the cell membrane and facilitates cellular recognition which is crucial to immune responses

103
Q

Phospholipid

A

Make up cellular membranes
Form lipid bilayers because of their amphipathic nature
Consists of two hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a hyrophillic head consisting of a phosphate group

104
Q

During saponification

A

Triacylglycerides undergo ester hydrolysis using a strong base like sodium or potassium hydroxide to form glycerol and fatty acid salts.
This is a cleavage reaction

105
Q

Albumin

A

Fatty acids travel through the body bound to serum albumin

106
Q

What is the structure of a steroid?

A

Three cyclohexane rings and one cyclopentane ring

107
Q

Soap bubbles form because fatty acid salts organize into

A

Micelles

108
Q

Steroid hormones are hormones that

A

Are produced in the endocrine glands and travel in the bloodstream to bind high affinity receptors in the nucleus. The hormones receptor binds to DNA, but the hormone itself does not

109
Q

Why are triacylglycerols used in the human body for energy storage?

A

The carbon atoms of the fatty acid chains are highly reduced and therefore yield more energy upon oxidation

Fatty acid chains vary in length and saturation

110
Q

Vitamin A

A

Fat soluble vitamin

Metabolized to retinal which is important for sight

111
Q

Vitamin D

A

Is metabolized to calcitriol which is important for calcium regulation

112
Q

Vitamin E

A

Fat soluble

Made up of tocopherols which are biological antioxidants

113
Q

Vitamin K

A

Fat soluble
Necessary for the introduction of calcium binding sites such as during the posttranslational modification of prothrombin

114
Q

Sphingolipids

A

They can have either a phosphodiester bond and therefore he phospholipids or have a glycosidic linkage and therefore be glycolipids
Not all sphingolipids have sphingolipids backbones
Used in ABO blood typing system

115
Q

More saturated fatty acids (less double bonds) makes for a

A

Less fluid solution. This is because they can pack more tightly and form more noncovalent bonds

More double bonds (unsaturated) means more liquidy

116
Q

Glycerophosphlipids

A

Are a subset of phospholipids as are sphingomyelins. Contain a glycerol backbone. Have a polar head group, glycerol and two fatty acid tails

117
Q

Terpenes

A

Strongly scented molecules that sometimes serve as protective functions
Terpenes are steroid precursors
Made by plants and insects
One terpene unit=two isoprene units
Isoprene has 5 carbons so a 3 terpene unit would have 6 isoprene units which would give it 30 carbons

118
Q

Cholesterol

A

A steroid precursor
Precursor for vitamin D
Cholesterol helps with membrane fluidity by stabilizing the membrane in high temps and prevents bunching of phospholipids in low temps to prevent stiffening of the membrane

119
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Paracrine or autocrine hormones, not endocrine.

They affect regions close to where they are produced rather than affecting the entire body.