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Letchaysaybeejen > Biochemical Engineering > Flashcards

Biochemical Engineering Flashcards

1
Q

Ozone is important to mankind because it

A. Releases hydrogen in the atmosphere
B. Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays
C. maintains the temperature of the earth
D. releases oxygen in the air

A

B. Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays

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2
Q

Ozone is all of the following except

A. Bleaching agent
B. Oxidizing agent
C. less soluble in water than oxygen
D. disinfectant

A

C. less soluble in water than oxygen

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3
Q

A coastal and marine water primary used for commercial and sustenance fishing

A. Class A
B. Class SA
C. Class SB
D. Class SC

A

C. Class SB

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4
Q

A surface water intended for waters having watersheds which are uninhabited and protected

A. Class AA
B. Class A
C. Class B
D. Class C

A

A. Class AA

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5
Q

A coastal water for coral reef packs and reserves as designated by law and concerned authorities.

A. Class AA
B. Class SA
C. Class SB
D. Class SC

A

B. Class SA

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6
Q

Alcoholic fermentation is caused by the interaction of

A. Sugar and acids
B. Sugar and carbon dioxide
C. sugar and yeasts
D. yeast and pectin

A

C. sugar and yeasts

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7
Q

The part of a cell that contains the chromosome is the

A. Polysomes
B. nucleolus
C. mitochondrion
D. nucleus

A

D. nucleus

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8
Q

Enzymes which catalyze the breaking or making of double bonds are called

A. Transferases
B. ligases
C. isomerases
D. lyases

A

D. lyases

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9
Q

A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has

A. Nucleus
B. vacuoles
C. cellulose cell wall
D. definite shape

A

C. cellulose cell wall

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10
Q

Vitamin E is also known as

A. Calciferol
B. axerophthol
C. ascorbic acid
D. tocopherol

A

D. tocopherol

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11
Q

Micelles are ______.

A. Aggregates of amino acids
B. Drops of oil or dirt that surrounds the molecule
C. A tadpole shaped fatty acid
D. Cluster of soap molecules surrounding the dirt particle

A

D. Cluster of soap molecules surrounding the dirt particle

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12
Q

A diamond does not conduct electricity because:

A. Its structure is very compact
B. Only carbon atoms are present in its structure
C. there are no free electrons
D. it is crystalline in nature

A

B. Only carbon atoms are present in its structure

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13
Q

Vacuoles (in plant cells) _____.

A. Produce energy for the cell
B. Defend the cell
C. synthesize proteins
D. provide turgidity and rigidity to plant cells

A

D. provide turgidity and rigidity to plant cells

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14
Q

The organelle not present in animal cells is _____.

A. Plastid
B. centrosome
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria

A

A. Plastid

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15
Q

Exchange of gases in higher plants takes place through _____.

A. Lenticels
B. roots
C. stomata
D. stem

A

C. stomata

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16
Q

Photosynthesis is _____.

A. A catabolic reaction
B. An energy releasing reaction
C. an anabolic reaction
D. none of the above

A

C. an anabolic reaction

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17
Q

Auxins are:

A. Vitamins
B. enzymes
C. proteins
D. hormones

A

D. hormones

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18
Q

Lack of magnesium in plants _______________.

A. Causes young leaves to wilt
B. Increases starch production
C. cause leaves to turn dark green
D. reduces chlorophyll formation

A

D. reduces chlorophyll formation

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19
Q

The part of the digestive system where no digestion takes place is _____.

A. Mouth
B. esophagus
C. ileum
D. stomach

A

B. esophagus

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20
Q

Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation of _____.

A. Carbon dioxide
B. lactic acid
C. ethanol
D. heat

A

B. lactic acid

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21
Q

Which of the following are the stages of respiration in the correct order?

A. Gaseous transport, breathing, tissue respiration and cellular respiration
B. Breathing, gaseous transport, tissue respiration and cellular respiration
C. Breathing, gaseous transport, cellular respiration and tissue respiration
D. Breathing, tissue respiration, cellular respiration and gaseous transport

A

B. Breathing, gaseous transport, tissue respiration and cellular respiration

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22
Q

Adrenaline increases _____.

A. Heart rate
B. Amount of glucose in blood
C. blood pressure
D. all the above

A

D. all the above

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23
Q

All the energy that passes along a food chain comes originally from:

A. Oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
C. glucose
D. light

A

D. light

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24
Q

Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

A. Hydroelectric power
B. tidal power
C. coal
D. wave power

A

C. coal

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25
Q

Which gas is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?

A. SO2
B. CFC
C. CO
D. NH3

A

B. CFC

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26
Q

Which of the following is made of protein and nucleic acid only?

A. Bacterium
B. Fern
C. Virus
D. Algae

A

C. Virus

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26
Q

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A. Cellulose
B. Galactose
C. Maltose
D. Fructose

A

C. Maltose

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27
Q

Where does electron transport chain takes place?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Mitochondria
D. Chloroplast

A

C. Mitochondria

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28
Q

Which of the followings is storage-food in animal cell?

A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Glycogen
D. Cellulose

A

C. Glycogen

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29
Q

The finger like projections found in small intestine is called

A. Villi
B. Rugae
C. Alveoli
D. Ligament

A

A. Villi

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30
Q

Insulin is synthesized in ______.

A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach

A

B. Pancreas

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31
Q

Which of the followings is a water-soluble vitamin?

A. Vitamin-A
B. Vitamin-E
C. Vitamin-D
D. Vitamin-C

A

D. Vitamin-C

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32
Q

Which of the followings is the major energy fuel for the brain?

A. Acetate
B. lactate
C. glucose
D. glycine

A

C. glucose

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33
Q

Dissolved pollutant gasses can form:

A. Ozone
B. Acid rain
C. Alkalii snow
D. Neutral hail

A

B. Acid rain

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34
Q

Which of these reactions in the atmosphere leads to acid rain?

A. Magnesium + oxygen → magnesium dioxide dioxide
B. Carbon dioxide + hydrogen → hydrogen carbonate
C. Sulphur + oxygen → sulphur dioxide
D. Sulphur dioxide + water → sulphuric acid

A

D. Sulphur dioxide + water → sulphuric acid

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35
Q

The ozone layer found high in the stratosphere:

A. Protects against the suns harmful UV rays
B. Can react with atmospheric pollutants to form smog
C. Is toxic to plants
D. Is capable of disintegrating fabric and rubber

A

A. Protects against the suns harmful UV rays

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36
Q

Holes in the ozone layer are thought to have been caused by:

A. Space exploration
B. CFC’s
C. Methane
D. Carbon dioxide

A

B. CFC’s

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37
Q

All proteins contain the

A. Same 20 amino acids
B. 300 Amino acids occurring in nature
C. Different amino acids
D. Only a few amino acids

A

A. Same 20 amino acids

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38
Q

The optically inactive amino acid is

A. Glycine
B. Serine
C. Threonine
D. Valine

A

A. Glycine

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39
Q

At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:

A. Dipolar ions
B. Nonpolar molecules
C. Positive and monovalent
D. Hydrophobic

A

A. Dipolar ions

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40
Q

The true statement about solutions of amino acids at physiological pH is

A. All amino acids contains both positive and negative charges
B. All amino acids contain positively charged side chains
C. Some amino acids contain only positive charge
D. All amino acids contain negatively charged side chains

A

A. All amino acids contains both positive and negative charges

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41
Q

Sulphur containing amino acid is

A. Methionine
B. Leucine
C. Valine
D. Asparagine

A

A. Methionine

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42
Q

An example of sulphur containing amino acid is

A. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic
B. 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid
C. 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoic acid
D. Amino acetic acid

A

A. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic

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43
Q

All the following are sulphur containing amino acids found in proteins except

A. Cysteine
B. Cystine
C. Methionine
D. Threonine

A

D. Threonine

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44
Q

An aromatic amino acid is

A. Lysine
B. Tyrosine
C. Taurine
D. Arginine

A

B. Tyrosine

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45
Q

Amino acid with side chain containing basic groups is

A. 2-Amino-5-guanidovaleric acid
B. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid
C. 2-Pyrrolidine carboxylic acid
D. 2-Amino propanoic acid

A

A. 2-Amino-5-guanidovaleric acid

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46
Q

An example of α-amino acid not present in proteins but essential in mammalian metabolism is

A. 3-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid
B. 2-Amino-4-mercaptobutanoic acid
C. 2-Amino-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
D. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid

A

B. 2-Amino-4-mercaptobutanoic acid

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47
Q

An essential amino acid in man is

A. Aspartate
B. Tyrosine
C. Methionine
D. Serine

A

C. Methionine

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48
Q

Non-essential amino acids

A. Are not components of tissue proteins
B. May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids
C. Have no role in the metabolism
D. May be synthesized in the body in diseased states

A

B. May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids

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49
Q

Which one of the following is semiessential amino acid for humans?

A. Valine
B. Arginine
C. Lysine
D. Tyrosine

A

B. Arginine

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50
Q

An example of polar amino acid is

A. Alanine
B. Leucine
C. Arginine
D. Valine

A

C. Arginine

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51
Q

The amino acid with a nonpolar side chain is

A. Serine
B. Valine
C. Asparagine
D. Threonine

A

B. Valine

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52
Q

A ketogenic amino acid is

A. Valine
B. Cysteine
C. Leucine
D. Threonine

A

C. Leucine

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53
Q

An amino acid that does not form an α-helix is

A. Valine
B. Proline
C. Tyrosine
D. Tryptophan

A

B. Proline

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54
Q

An amino acid not found in proteins is

A. β-Alanine
B. Proline
C. Lysine
D. Histidine

A

A. β-Alanine

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55
Q

In the activated sludge process for treating wastewater, the most important step is

A. Chemical precipitation
B. biological decomposition
C. chlorination
D. reverse osmosis

A

B. biological decomposition

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56
Q

Activated charcoal is used in water treatment primarily for

A. Pathogen removal
B. Organic materials removed
C. inorganic salt removal
D. filtering sediments

A

B. Organic materials removed

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57
Q

To remove nitrates and phosphates from water requires

A. Aeration
B. Secondary treatments
C. advanced treatments
D. an activated sludge process

A

C. advanced treatments

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58
Q

It is a form of carbon which is soft, black, slippery solid that has a metallic luster and conducts electricity.

A. graphite
B. diamond
C. buckiminsterfullerence
D. carbon black

A

A. graphite

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59
Q

It is formed which hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in a very limited supply of oxygen.

A. carbon black
B. charcoal
C. coke
D. coal

A

A. carbon black

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60
Q

In which stage of the cell division the chromosomes move from centre to pole of the spindle?

A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Pro-metaphase

A

B. Anaphase

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61
Q

It is the attraction between like molecules.

A. absorption
B. diffusion
C. adhesion
D. cohesion

A

D. cohesion

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62
Q

The hydrate named as sodium carbonate decahydrate is commonly called

A. baking soda
B. washing soda
C. soda lime
D. caustic soda

A

B. washing soda

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63
Q

The product obtained by the fermentation of wet cellulose is

A. ethane
B. ethyne
C. methane
D. ethane

A

C. methane

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64
Q

Grain alcohol in United States is made

A. from coal
B. by fermenting starches and sugar
C. from vinegar
D. by fermenting acetic acid

A

B. by fermenting starches and sugar

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65
Q

Vodka that is 90 proof contains what percent of alcohol?

A. 9
B. 45
C. 90
D. 180

A

B. 45

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66
Q

The alcohol present in alcoholic beverages is

A. methyl alcohol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. denatured alcohol
D. wood alcohol

A

B. ethyl alcohol

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67
Q

Denatured alcohol refers to

A. any alcohol not produced by fermentation
B. grain alcohol that is highly taxed
C. ethyl alcohol that has been treated with something to make it unfit to drink
D. methanol

A

C. ethyl alcohol that has been treated with something to make it unfit to drink

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68
Q

A gene is a segment of a molecule of

A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. protein

A

A. DNA

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69
Q

If a nucleic acid is completely hydrolyzed, which type of compound is not one of its products?

A. a base
B. a phosphoric acid
C. an amino acid
D. a sugar

A

C. an amino acid

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70
Q

Which set of bases does not usually form a base pair usually found in nucleic acid?

A. adenine-thymine
B. cytosine-guanine
C. uracil-thymine
D. adenine-uracil

A

C. uracil-thymine

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71
Q

Which contains the codon?

A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. the protein molecule

A

B. mRNA

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72
Q

Which molecule carries the anticodon?

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. the ribosome
D. the protein molecule

A

B. tRNA

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73
Q

The gentic message is transcribed from DNA to

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. DNA
D. rRNA

A

A. mRNA

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74
Q

Base pairing is accompanied by

A. covalent bonding
B. hydrogen bonds
C. ionic bond
D. phosphate linkage

A

B. hydrogen bonds

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75
Q

When active protein synthesis is taking place in the cell, which material is not required at the ribosomes?

A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. growing protein chain

A

A. DNA

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76
Q

Disposal of synthetic plastics is complicated by

A. the large volume of these materials that accumulate as trash
B. the non-biodegradable nature of most synthetic plastic
C. the toxicity of some gases produced when the materials are burned
D. all of the above are valid

A

D. all of the above are valid

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77
Q

The temperature at which a polymer changes from hard and brittle to rubbery and tough is called its

A. boiling point
B. melting point
C. glass transition temperature
D. thermosetting temperature

A

C. glass transition temperature

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78
Q

Petroleum is believed to have formed mostly from the anaerobic decomposition of buried

A. dinosaurs
B. fish
C. pine trees
D. plankton and algae

A

D. plankton and algae

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79
Q

The largest carbohydrates are called

A. polysaccharides
B. oligosaccharides
C. monosaccharides
D. disaccharides

A

A. polysaccharides

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80
Q

A 3-carbon monosaccharide is a

A. triose
B. tetrose
C. hexose
D. pentose

A

A. triose

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81
Q

Invert sugar consist of fructose and

A. maltose
B. lactose
C. sucrose
D. glucose

A

D. glucose

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82
Q

The most abundant organic substance found in nature is

A. starch
B. glycogen
C. cellulose
D. dextran

A

C. cellulose

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83
Q

Sugars in which the aldehyde group can be oxidized to a carboxylic acid group are called

A. glycosides
B. glucosides
C. reducing sugars
D. phosphate esters

A

C. reducing sugars

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84
Q

Natural monosaccharides have

A. the L configuration
B. the D configuration
C. an equal mixture of the D and L configurations
D. more of the L than D configuration

A

B. the D configuration

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85
Q

In most fatty acids, the carbons are arranged in a

A. ring
B. straight chain, with a carboxylic acid group in the middle
C. branched chains, with a carboxylic group at the center
D. straight chain, with a carboxylic acid group at one end

A

D. straight chain, with a carboxylic acid group at one end

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86
Q

A soap molecule

A. is nonpolar
B. is polar
C. has a nonpolar end and a polar end
D. becomes nonpolar in solution

A

C. has a nonpolar end and a polar end

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87
Q

The wax used to make dental impressions is

A. beeswax
B. cerumen
C. lanolin
D. camauba wax

A

A. beeswax

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88
Q

Which characteristics is not true for oils?

A. mostly vegetable origin
B. liquid at room temperature
C. saturated
D. high iodine number

A

C. saturated

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89
Q

Saponification is a reaction in which a tricylglycerol reacts with a strong base to form

A. glycerol and three soap molecules
B. glycerol and three water molecules
C. three fatty acid molecules and water
D. oleic aicd and water

A

A. glycerol and three soap molecules

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90
Q

Which fuciton does fat not perform?

A. reserve supply of energy
B. insulation against the cold
C. maintenance of stable pH in blood
D. protection of organs

A

C. maintenance of stable pH in blood

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91
Q

In active transport

A. no energy is expected
B. molecules are carried from a region of low concentration to one of greater concentration
C. only water molecules pass through the membrane
D. the process takes place as in diffusion

A

B. molecules are carried from a region of low concentration to one of greater concentration

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92
Q

Fats and oil are more formed when fatty acids react with

A. ammonia
B. phenol
C. glycerol
D. acetic acid

A

C. glycerol

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93
Q

It is linear polymer which maybe reversibly softened by heat and solidified by cooling

A. thermosets
B. thermoplastic
C. polymer
D. copolymer

A

B. thermoplastic

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94
Q

The inventor of PF plastic (bakelite)

A. Patrick
B. Carothers
C. Baekeland
D. Kienle

A

C. Baekeland

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95
Q

The general formula of PVC

A. (CH2CH2)n
B. (Cl2CCFCl)n
C. (CH2CHCl)n
D. (CF2CF2CF)n

A

C. (CH2CHCl)n

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96
Q

A hard amorphous transparent, brittle material produced by the fusion of silicates with basic compounds, such as carbonate and/or limestone

A. cement
B. clay
C. glass
D. granite

A

C. glass

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97
Q

Which characteristics is not true for oils?

A. mostly vegetable origin
B. liquid at room temperature
C. saturated
D. high iodine number

A

C. saturated

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98
Q

Carbonated water is made by dissolving CO2 in water at a

A. high temperature
B. temperature which is gradually increased
C. pressure lower than 1 atm
D. pressure greater than 1 atm

A

D. pressure greater than 1 atm

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99
Q

“Hard” water can be soften by

A. Letting the calcium or magnesium ions settle out
B. Passing it through an ion exchanger
C. chlorination
D. filtration

A

B. Passing it through an ion exchanger

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100
Q

In the fractional distillation of crude petroleum, gasoline is the fraction whose number of carbon in a molecule ranges from ____

A. C1-C4
B. C5-C10
C. C11-C18
D. C15-C18

A

B. C5-C10

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101
Q

What fraction of crude petroleum has 20 or more carbon atoms in a molecule?

A. kerosene
B. gas-oil
C. wax
D. residue

A

C. wax

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102
Q

What does the acronym DDT means?

A. dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane
B. difluorodiphenyltrimethyl ethane
C. difluoromethyl trichloro ethane
D. dichlorodimethyl-trichloroethane

A

A. dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane B.

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103
Q

DNA consist of alternating links of; (D=deoxyribose, R=ribose, and P=phosphate)

A. N bases and R
B. N bases and D
C. D and P
D. R and P

A

C. D and P

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104
Q

The only base in the following that is not present is

A. pyridine
B. adenine
C. guanine
D. cytosine

A

A. pyridine

105
Q

Information transfer from to genes to the ribosomes is the function of

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA

A

A. mRNA

106
Q

Amino acids are brought to ribosome surface by

A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. DNA
D. tRNA

A

D. tRNA

107
Q

Which of the following is a pyramidine?

A. cytosine
B. cysteine
C. adenine
D. thymine

A

A. cytosine

108
Q

Which of the following reactions will not be driven by ATP?

A. Peptide synthesis
B. biosynthesis of maltose from glucose
C. synthesis of AMP from Adenosine
D. ATP will drive all the reactions

A

D. ATP will drive all the reactions

109
Q

What type of enzyme will catalyze the reaction: Galactose-6-P → Glucose-6-P

A. transferase
B. isomerase
C. kinase
D. hydrase

A

B. isomerase

110
Q

An enzyme in snake venom is capable of causing the conversion of lecithins to lysolecithins. To which class does the enzyme belong?

A. ligases
B. isomerases
C. hydrolase
D. synthetase

A

C. hydrolase

111
Q

An enzyme is responsible for the conversion of an alcohol to a ketone. A possible coenzyme could be

A. NADH
B. CoA
C. pyredoxasepyrophosphate
D. NADP+

A

D. NADP+

112
Q

When an enzyme is inactived by a change in pH, this is known as

A. uncompetitive inhibition
B. non-competitive
C. competitive inhibition
D. non-specific inhibition

A

D. non-specific inhibition

113
Q

An inhibitor which has a chemical structure similar to that of an enzymes’ normal substrate is likely to act as a

A. competitive inhibitor
B. non-competitive imhibitor
C. non-specific inbihitor
D. uncompetitive inbihitor

A

A. competitive inhibitor

114
Q

If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product of a reaction sequence in which the enzyme participates, the enzyme is

A. a zymogen
B. allosteric
C. competitively inhibited
D. a modular

A

B. allosteric

115
Q

The starting material for the anabolic process gluconeogenesis is

A. acetic acid
B. glycogen
C. glucose
D. acetyl CoA

A

D. acetyl CoA

116
Q

The coenzye FAD, which is a hydrogen carrier in the electron-transport chain is a derivative of which vitamin?

A. niacin
B. B2
C. B12
D. folic acid

A

B. B2

117
Q

What is the strongest oxidizing agent in the electron-transport chain?

A. FADH
B. NADH
C. cytochroms C
D. O2

A

D. O2

118
Q

What compound is at the “branch point” in the metabolism of all foodstuffs?

A. acetyl CoA
B. pyruvic acid
C. citric acid
D. glucose

A

A. acetyl CoA

119
Q

Muscle cramps are frequently experienced by runners, due to buildup of lactic acid in the muscle fibers. This due to

A. gluconeogenesis
B. glycolysis
C. glycogenesis
D. aerobic respiration

A

B. glycolysis

120
Q

Which enzyme would except to find in greater concentration in the stomach of a baby than in an aldult’s stomach?

A. rennin
B. pepsin
C. chymotroypsin
D. tryspin

A

A. rennin

121
Q

Also known as grain alcohol or beverage alcohol.

A. methanol
B. ethanol
C. isopropyl alcohol
D. butanol

A

B. ethanol

122
Q

It is a sweet, syrupy liquid obtained as a by-product of soap manufacture and through synthesis from propene.

A. phenol
B. diethyl ether
C. ethylene glycol
D. glycerol

A

D. glycerol

123
Q

It involves the removal of hydrogen from carbon-oxygen single bond or insertion of oxygen in a molecule.

A. reduction
B. oxidation
C. oxygenation
D. dehydrogenation

A

B. oxidation

124
Q

It is the stage in a polymerization at which cross-linking begins

A. gel point
B. melting point
C. annealing point
D. softening point

A

A. gel point

125
Q

What is the major structural unit of plants?

A. cellulose
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. glycogen

A

A. cellulose

126
Q

Myoglobin is an example of a

A. fibrous protein
B. globular protein
C. DNA
D. starch

A

B. globular protein

127
Q

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A. fructose
B. lactose
C. cellulose
D. glucose

A

B. lactose

128
Q

A nucleotide contains

A. a nitrogen-containing organic base
B. a phisphoric acid
C. a sugar
D. all of these

A

D. all of these

129
Q

Starch is

A. a form of cellulose
B. a polysaccharide
C. a monosaccharide
D. an amino acid

A

B. a polysaccharide

130
Q

Glucose contain both

A. alcohol and aldehyde forms
B. a phosphoric acid
C. ester and aldehyde groups
D. ester and acid group

A

A. alcohol and aldehyde forms

131
Q

The overall shape of a protein molecule is called its

A. tertiary structure
B. alpha-helix
C. secondary structure
D. primary structure

A

A. tertiary structure

132
Q

A peptide bond is form via

A. a substitution reaction
B. a combustion reaction
C. a condensation reaction
D. none of the these

A

C. a condensation reaction

133
Q

All amino acids contain

A. an amine group
B. an ether group
C. an aldehyde group
D. an ester group

A

A. an amine group

134
Q

Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

A. glucose
B. maltose
C. lactose
D. sucrose

A

A. glucose

135
Q

The sequence of amino acids in a protein is the

A. primary structure
B. secondary structure
C. tertiary structure
D. quaternary structure

A

A. primary structure

136
Q

Which of the following are monosaccharides?
(I) glucose
(II) fructose
(II) lactose
(IV) sucrose

A. III and IV
B. I and II
C. I
D. II

A

B. I and II

137
Q

What is the distinguishing characteristic of carbohydrates?

A. carbonyl group
B. two-C-OH groups
C. Cx(H2O)y formula
D. six carbon atoms

A

C. Cx(H2O)y

138
Q

What characterizes a starch?

A. it is a collection of polysaccharides in plants
B. it is a cellulose
C. it is a trisaccharide
D. it has six carbons

A

A. it is a collection of polysaccharides in plants

139
Q

What is/are the difference(s) between RNA and DNA?

(I) DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil
(II) RNA contains five carbon sugar
(III) RNA contains nitrogen-containing organic bases
(IV) RNA is found in the cytoplasm, whereas DNA is found in the cell nucleus

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and IV

A

D. I and IV

140
Q

What is the difference between alpha-glucose and beta-glucose?

A. there is no difference
B. the number of oxygen protein
C. the number carbon atoms
D. the location of the hydroxyl group

A

D. the location of the hydroxyl group

141
Q

The secondaty structure of a protein describes

A. the sequence of amino acid
B. the coiling or stretching of the protein
C. the overall shape of the protein
D. none of these

A

B. the coiling or stretching of the protein

142
Q

It is a mixture of fructose and glucose by the breakdown of sucrose

A. galactose
B. invert sugar
C. monosaccharides
D. disaccharides

A

B. invert sugar

143
Q

A carboxylic acid which contributes to the strong odor of rancid butter and other fats

A. caproic acid
B. acetic acid
C. lactic acid
D. butyric acid

A

D. butyric acid

144
Q

The site of protein synthesis is the

A. chloroplast
B. nucleus
C. ribosome
D. mitochondrion

A

C. ribosome

145
Q

Inability to digest amino acids may indicate a deficiency in

A. vitamin B1
B. vitamin B6
C. vitamin B12
D. folic acid

A

B. vitamin B6

146
Q

What type of enzyme would be required to catalyze the following transformation:
phenylalanine → phenylamine

A. transaminase
B. decarboxylase
C. reductase
D. deaminase

A

B. decarboxylase

147
Q

Which of the following is needed to make a silicone rubber?

A. trihydroxymethyl silane
B. hydroxytrimethyl silane
C. dihydroxydimethyl silane
D. tetramethyl silane

A

A. trihydroxymethyl silane

148
Q

Steroids are derivatives of which lipid?

A. β-carotene
B. cholesterol
C. sphingosine
D. vitamin D

A

B. cholesterol

149
Q

Organisms which require only CO2 to supply their carbon needs.

A. autotrophs
B. heterotrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. lithotrophs

A

A. autotrophs

150
Q

Organisms which requires organic compounds to supply their carbon needs.

A. autotrophs
B. heterotrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. lithotrophs

A

B. heterotrophs

151
Q

Organisms which oxidize inorganic material for energy production.

A. autotrophs
B. heterotrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. lithotrophs

A

D. lithotrophs

152
Q

The destruction of an enzyme’s catalytic power by changing its molecular structure is

A. deactivation
B. inhibition
C. denaturation
D. suppression

A

C. denaturation

153
Q

The rate of microbial growth is temperatutre dependent. Bacteria which grow over the temperature range of 7 to 45°C are called

A. thermophiles
B. mesophiles
C. psychrophiles
D. endophiles

A

B. mesophiles

154
Q

Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 30 to 45°C are called

A. thermophiles
B. mesophiles
C. psychrophiles
D. endophiles

A

B. mesophiles

155
Q

Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 55 to 85°C are called

A. thermophiles
B. mesophiles
C. psychrophiles
D. endophiles

A

A. thermophiles

156
Q

Biological compound which soluble in nonpolar solvent but insoluble in water.

A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. proteins
D. vitamins

A

B. lipids

157
Q

The fluid portion occupying the whole portion of the cell is called

A. ribosomes
B. cytoplasm
C. vacuole
D. lysosome

A

B. cytoplasm

158
Q

Microorganisms made of small and simple cells are known as

A. prokaryotes
B. eukaryotes
C. algae
D. protozoa

A

A. prokaryotes

159
Q

Which of the following enzymes give flavor to cheese?

A. lactose
B. invertase
C. lipase
D. amylase

A

C. lipase

160
Q

The unpleasant taste and odor which develops in fats caused by the presence of free acids and oxidization of the double bonds which first forms peroxides.

A. rancidity
B. acidity
C. foulness
D. bitterness

A

A. rancidity

161
Q

Which of the following analyses provides a measure of the biodegradable material present in waste water?

A. COD
B. BOD
C. pH
D. hardness

A

B. BOD

162
Q

Which of the following is a product of the anaerobic decomposition of sewage?

A. mercury
B. lead
C. hydrogen sulfide
D. sulfur dioxide

A

C. hydrogen sulfide

163
Q

Which of the following water pollutants was the most serious threat to human health in 1990?

A. mercury
B. phosphates
C. nitrates
D. bacteria

A

D. bacteria

164
Q

The most commonly used agent for killing bacteria in treated wastewater is

A. Chlorine
B. ozone
C. gamma radiation
D. phosphates

A

A. Chlorine

165
Q

Which stage of wastewater treatment is most adversely affected by low temperature?

A. Primary
B. secondary
C. advanced
D. disinfection

A

B. secondary

166
Q

In the activated sludge process for treating wastewater, the most important step is

A. Chemical precipitation
B. biological decomposition
C. chlorination
D. reverse osmosis

A

D. reverse osmosis

167
Q

Activated charcoal is used in water treatment primarily for

A. Pathogen removal
B. Organic materials removed
C. inorganic salt removal
D. filtering sediments

A

B. Organic materials removed

168
Q

To remove nitrates and phosphates from water requires

A. Aeration
B. Secondary treatments
C. advanced treatments
D. an activated sludge process

A

C. advanced treatments

169
Q

Which is not a reason that ozone is sometimes preferred over chlorine as a disinfectant for water?

A. ozone is cheaper
B. ozone is better for killing viruses
C. chlorine implants an unpleasant taste to water

A

A. ozone is cheaper

170
Q

A farmer’s cattle frequently abort spontaneously. Some baby pigs are born blue in color. His well water is examined and found to be contaminated with

A. nitrates
B. phosphates
C. lead
D. bacteria

A

A. nitrates

171
Q

Acid rain is not much of a problem in lakes in areas where there are

A. few people
B. few cars
C. limestone rocks
D. marble buildings

A

C. limestone rocks

172
Q

A stream is found to be highly acidic. It is probably contaminated by

A. strip mining runoff
B. a slaughterhouse
C. raw sewage
D. farm runoff

A

A. strip mining runoff

173
Q

Chlorination of drinking water

A. removes phosphates
B. kills all bacteria and viruses
C. kills some bacteria
D. makes it taste better

A

C. kills some bacteria

174
Q

Most humans live in

A. mesosphere
B. stratosphere
C. troposphere
D. Western hemisphere

A

C. troposphere

175
Q

What fraction of the air is nitrogen?

A. 1/5
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 4/5

A

D. 4/5

176
Q

Of the following toxic gases, which is colorless, odorless, and tasteless?

A. NO2
B. H2S
C. NH3
D. CO

A

D. CO

177
Q

Which pollutant could be responsible for the observed lowering of the Earth’s average temperature?

A. O3
B. CO2
C. particulates
D. methane

A

C. particulates

178
Q

A method used for landfilling dry areas when the terrain is unsuitable for the excavation of trenches in which to place the solid wastes.

A. Trench method
B. depression method
C. area method
D. topsoil method

A

C. area method

179
Q

Biological catalyst which expedite reactions by lowering the amount of activation required.

A. Enzymes
B. positive catalyst
C. inhibitor
D. depressants

A

A. Enzymes

180
Q

This is the early stage of growth where the organism adjust its new environment.

A. stationary phase
B. logarithmic phase
C. leg phase
D. decline phase

A

A. stationary phase

181
Q

Microorganisms which can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen are called

A. aerobes
B. anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. microaerophiles

A

D. microaerophiles

182
Q

Zeolite, which shows ion exchange ability

A. is an ion-exchange resin
B. is a sodium alumino silicate
C. is a closed packed assemble of silicon and oxygen atom
D. can provide H+ ions in place of Na+ ions

A

B. is a sodium alumino silicate

183
Q

Which sequence shoes the “central dogma” of molecular biolgy?

A. DNA→protein→amino acid
B. RNA→DNA→protein
C. RNA→protein→DNA
D. DNA→ RNA→protein

A

D. DNA→ RNA→protein

184
Q

Which organ is especially sensitive to a vitamin deficiency?

A. skin
B. liver
C. heart
D. lungs

A

A. skin

185
Q

The primary function of albumin in the blood plasma is

A. leukocye transport
B. osmotic regulation
C. formation of antibodies
D. maintenance of pH level

A

B. osmotic regulation

186
Q

Allergies, such as hay fever, result from

A. an abnormal immunity to a common substance
B. the absence of specific antibodies
C. the delayed reaction of a specific antibody
D. the absence of gamma globulins in the blood plasma

A

A. an abnormal immunity to a common substance

187
Q

A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents ____ from entering the clotting process.

A. potassium citrate
B. vitamin K
C. sodium ion
D. calcium ion

A

D. calcium ion

188
Q

The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried out by

A. thrombocytes
B. leukocytes
C. erythrocytes
D. plasma

A

C. erythrocytes

189
Q

The body digest nitrogen in the form of

A. N2
B. HNO3
C. ammonia
D. amino acids

A

D. amino acids

190
Q

Amino acids that are transformed into one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle are generally

A. glycogenic
B. ketogenic
C. ketoglutaric
D. acetic

A

A. glycogenic

191
Q

How many ATP molecules are needed for the urea cycle?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

A

B. 4

192
Q

The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of

A. alkaloids
B. coenzymes
C. hormones
D. protein

A

D. protein

193
Q

Law/decree issued in 1990 governing the control of toxic substances and hazardous nuclear wastes.

A. RA 984
B. PD 1152
C. RA 6969
D. PD 1151

A

C. RA 6969

194
Q

A high energy molecule and serves as the cell’s major form of energy currency.

A. NADH
B. ADP
C. ATP
D. DNA

A

C. ATP

195
Q

A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or asexually through spore formation.

A. yeast
B. molds
C. bacteria
D. algae

A

A. yeast

196
Q

The filtrate of malted grains used as the substrate for the production of beer and ale by fermentation.

A. bagasse
B. pulp
C. wart
D. wort

A

D. wort

197
Q

An organism that grows in the presence of atmospheric oxygen.

A. anaerobes
B. facultative
C. microaerophile
D. aerobes

A

D. aerobes

198
Q

An organic compound required by organisms in minute quantities of growth and reproduction because it cannot be synthesize by organism; it often serves as enzyme cofactors or part of cofactors.

A. biological catalyst
B. hormones
C. vitamin
D. lipids

A

C. vitamin

199
Q

A virus that uses bacteria as its host

A. bacteriophage
B. exoenzymes
C. eubacteria
D. genome

A

A. bacteriophage

200
Q

The movement of a piece of DNA around the chromosome

A. transcription
B. transposition
C. translation
D. transformation

A

B. transposition

201
Q

An infectious agent having a simple acellular organization with a protein coat and a single type of nucleic acid, lacking independent metabolism, and reproducing
only within living host cell.

A. bacteria
B. protozoa
C. fungi
D. virus

A

D. virus

202
Q

An agent that kill bacteria

A. fungicide
B. insecticide
C. bactericide
D. germicide

A

C. bactericide

203
Q

A metabolic process in which molecules, often organic, are oxidized with oxygen as the final electron acceptor.

A. anaerobic digestion
B. aerobic digestion
C. anaerobic respiration
D. aerobic respiration

A

D. aerobic respiration

204
Q

The cycle that oxidizes acetyl coenzyme A to CO2 and generates NADH and FADH2 for oxidation in the electron transport chain; the cycle also supplies carbon
skeletons for biosynthesis.

A. tricarboxylic acid cycle
B. glyoxalate cycle
C. polumerase chain reaction
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A

A. tricarboxylic acid cycle

205
Q

A complex sulfate polysaccharide, usually extracted from red algae,that is used as a solidifying agent in the preparation of culture media.

A. agar
B. carragnen
C. nata
D. alga

A

A. agar

206
Q

A preparation of either killed microorganism: living, weekend (attenuated) microorganism: ot inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids). It is administered to include development of the immune response and protect the individual against a pathogen or a toxin.

A. vaccine
B. disinfectant
C. antibiotic
D. analgesic

A

A. vaccine

207
Q

A continuous culture system equipped with a photocell that adjust the flow of medium through the culture vessel so as to maintain a constant cell density or
turbidity.

A. chemotat
B. turbidostat
C. biostat
D. fermentor

A

B. turbidostat

208
Q

An enzyme whose activity is altered by the of a small effector or modulator molecule at a regulatory site; effector binding causes a conformational change in the enzyme and its catalytic site, which leads to enzyme deactivation or inhibition.

A. oxidase
B. reductase
C. hydrolase
D. allosteric

A

D. allosteric

209
Q

A bacterial infection transmitted by contaminated food, water, milk, or shellfish. The causative organism Salmonella typhi, which is present in human faces.

A. yellow fever
B. hay fever
C. typhoid fever
D. dengue fever

A

C. typhoid fever

210
Q

The phase of the microbial growth in a batch culture when population growth ceases and the growth curve levels off.

A. lag phase
B. growth phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase

A

C. stationary phase

211
Q

Protein synthesis; the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosomes and other cell constituents.

A. transcription
B. translation
C. transposition
D. transformation

A

B. translation

212
Q

The process in which single-stranded RNA with a base sequence complementary to the template strand of DNA or RNA is synthesized.

A. transcription
B. translation
C. transposition
D. transformation

A

A. transcription

213
Q

The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules with the input energy.

A. catabolism
B. anabolism
C. respiration
D. digestion

A

B. anabolism

214
Q

The microbiological treatment of sewage wastes under anaerobic contains to produce methane.

A. aerobic digestion
B. anaerobic digestion
C. aerobic respiration
D. anaerobic respiration

A

C. aerobic respiration

215
Q

An energy-yielding process in which the electron transport chain acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen.

A. aerobic digestion
B. anaerobic digestion
C. aerobic respiration
D. anaerobic respiration

A

D. anaerobic respiration

216
Q

A microbial product or its derivative that kills susceptible microorganism or inhibits their growth.

A. antipyretic
B. antibiotic
C. pyretic
D. antiseptic

A

B. antibiotic

217
Q

A glycoprotein produced in response to the introduction of an antigen; it has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. Also known as
immunoglobulin.

A. antibiotic
B. antibody
C. hormone
D. steroid

A

B. antibody

218
Q

An agent that kills microorganisms or inhibit their growth.

A. antimicrobial agent
B. antiseptic
C. antigen
D. antibiotic

A

A. antimicrobial agent

219
Q

Chemical agent applied to tissues to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens.

A. antitoxin
B. antiseptic
C. antimicrobial agent
D. antibiotic

A

B. antiseptic

220
Q

The process by which all living cells, viable spores, viruses and viriods are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat.

A. sterilization
B. pasteurization
C. disinfection
D. immobilization

A

A. sterilization

221
Q

The substance an enzyme acts upon.

A. subtrate
B. strain
C. disinfection
D.immobilization

A

A. subtrate

222
Q

The removal from sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses, etc., by chemical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved organic material.

A. preliminary treatment
B. primary treatment
C. secondary treatment
D. tertiary treatment

A

D. tertiary treatment

223
Q

A microbial product or component that can injure another cell or organism at low concentrations. Often the term refers to poisonous protein, but may be lipids or
other substances.

A. antigen
B. toxin
C. virus
D. oxidants

A

B. toxin

224
Q

The protein part of an enzyme that also has a nonprotein component.

A. holoenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. exoenzymes
D. endoenzymes

A

B. apoenzyme

225
Q

An apparatus for sterilizing objects by the use of steam under pressure.

A. boiler
B. heater
C. autoclave
D. sterilizer

A

C. autoclave

226
Q

An organism that uses CO2 as its sole or principle source of carbon.

A. autotrophy
B. phototroph
C. heterotroph
D. litotroph

A

A. autotrophy

227
Q

A mulated prototroph that lacks the ability to synthesized an essential nutrient and therefore must obtain it or a precusor from its surrounding.

A. chemotroph
B. auxotroph
C. methylotroph
D. prototroph

A

B. auxotroph

228
Q

The organelle where protein synthesis occurs; the message encoded in mRNA is translated here.

A. cytoplasm
B. golgi complex
C. ribosomes
D. lysozymes

A

C. ribosomes

229
Q

The clear, fluid portion of blood lacking both blood cells and fibrinogen. It is the fluid remaining after coagulation of plasma, the noncellular liquid fraction of blood.

A. WBC
B. RBC
C. hemoglobin
D. serum

A

D. serum

230
Q

A basin used during water purification to chemically precipition out fine particles, microoganisms, and organic material by coagulation or flocculation.

A. catch basin
B. setting basin
C. lagoon
D. neutralization tank

A

B. setting basin

231
Q

A genaral term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and sewage treatment; solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganism that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment.

A. residue
B. ash
C. sludge
D. solid waste

A

C. sludge

232
Q

A reproductive cell, usually unicellular, capable of developing into an adult without fusion with another cell or of acting as a gamete. It may produced asexually or sexually and are of many types.

A. spore
B. zygote
C. bud
D. titer

A

A. spore

233
Q

Microbial growth in which all cellular constituents are synthesized at constant rates relative to active to each other.

A. unbalanced growth
B. balance growth
C. diauxic growth
D. germination

A

B. balance growth

234
Q

A culture of microorganisms produced by inoculating a closed culture vessel containing a single batch of medium.

A. batch culture
B. continuous culture
C. feed batch culture
D. semi-continuous culture

A

A. batch culture

235
Q

Asexual reproduction in which a cell or an organism separates into two cells.

A. binary fission
B. budding
C. sporulation
D. copulation

A

A. binary fission

236
Q

The amount of oxygen used by organisms in water under certain standard conditions; it provides an index of the amount of microbially oxidizable organic matter present.

A. COD
B. BOD
C. TOC
D. TDS

A

B. BOD

237
Q

A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of sexual reproduction; the daughter cell is smaller than the parent

A. binary fission
B. budding
C. sporulation
D. copulation

A

B. budding

238
Q

Sludges produced in sewage treatment that do not settle properly, usually due to the development of filamentous microorganisms.

A. effluents
B. sewage
C. bulking sludge
D. foam

A

C. bulking sludge

239
Q

The part of metabolism in which larger, more complex molecules are broken down into smaller, simpler molecules with the release of energy.

A. anabolism
B. catabolism
C. biodegradation
D. disintegration

A

B. catabolism

240
Q

The strong layer or structure that lies outside the plasma membrane; it supports and protects the membrane and gives the cell shape.

A. plasmid
B. cytoplasm
C. cell wall
D. nucleus

A

C. cell wall

241
Q

The amount of chemical oxidation required to convert organic matter in water and wastewater to CO2.

A. BOD
B. DO
C. COD
D. TOC

A

C. COD

242
Q

A continuous culture apparatus that feeds medium into the culture vessel at the same rate as medium containing microorganisms is removed; the medium contains one essential nutrient in limiting quantities.

A. turbidostat
B. biostat
C. reactor
D. chemostat

A

D. chemostat

243
Q

Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidization of chemical compounds.

A. lithotrophs
B. chemotrophs
C. autotrophs
D. phototrophs

A

B. chemotrophs

244
Q

The process in which water osmotically leaves a cell, which causes the cytoplasm to shrivel up and pull the plasma membrane away from the cell wall.

A. phagocytosis
B. cytosis
C. Iyasis
D. plasmolysis

A

C. Iyasis

245
Q

The first step of sewage treatment, in which physical settling and screening are used to remove particulate materials.

A. primary treatment
B. secondary treatment
C. tertiary treatment
D. advanced treatment

A

A. primary treatment

246
Q

Cells lack a true, membrane enclosed nucleus; bacteria are prokaryotic and have their genetic material located in a nucleoid.

A. prokaryotes
B. eukaryotes
C. eubacteria
D. archaebacteria

A

A. prokaryotes

247
Q

An enzyme that hydrolyzes protein to their constituent amino acids.

A. foliose
B. diastease
C. protease
D. lipase

A

C. protease

248
Q

A unicellular or acellular eukaryotic protists whose organelles have the functional role of organs and tissues in more complex form.

A. fungi
B. virus
C. protozoa
D. lipase

A

C. protozoa

249
Q

A microorganism that grow at 0°C and has an optimum growth temperature of 15°C or lower and a temperature maximum around 20°C.

A. mesophile
B. thermophiles
C. thermoacidophiles
D. psychrophiles

A

D. psychrophiles

250
Q

The microbial decomposition of organic matter, especially the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, with the production of foul-smelling compounds such as hydrogen sulfide and amines.

A. eutrophication
B. putrefaction
C. bioconversion
D. biodegradation

A

B. putrefaction

251
Q

The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as a template.

A. transcription
B. translation
C. replication
D. transformation

A

C. replication

252
Q

An energy-yielding process in which an electron donor is oxidized using an inorganic electron acceptor. The acceptor may be either oxygen or another inorganic compound.

A. aerobic respiration
B. anaerobic respiration
C. respiration
D. digestion

A

C. respiration

253
Q

A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation.

A. codon
B. nucleotides
C. DNA
D. polymerase

A

A. codon

254
Q

It refers to a multinucleate cell or hypha formed by repeated nuclear divisions not accompanied by cell divisions.

A. allosteric
B. coenocytic
C. tissues
D. organelles

A

B. coenocytic

255
Q

A loosely bound cofactor that often dissociates from the enzyme active site after product has been formed.

A. coenzymes
B. apoenzyme
C. holoenzyme
D. exoenzymes

A

A. coenzymes

256
Q

A cluster or assemblage of microorganisms growing on a solid surface such as the surface of an agar culture medium; the assemblage is often directly visible, but may be seen only microscopically.

A. seed
B. strain
C. culture
D. colony

A

D. colony

257
Q

A large group of photosynthetic bacteria with oxygenic photosynthesis and a photosynthesis system like that present in eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms.

A. eubacteria
B. cyanobacteria
C. archaebacteria
D. bacteria

A

B. cyanobacteria

258
Q

The phase microbial growth in a batch culture when the viable microbial population declines.

A. lag phase
B. exponential phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase

A

D. death phase

259
Q

The change in the shape of an enzyme that destroys the activity; the term is also applied to changes in nucleic-acid-shape.

A. denaturation
B. metabolism
C. inhibition
D. catalytic repression

A

A. denaturation

Letchaysaybeejen (10 decks)

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