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Letchaysaybeejen > CPI, Process Control and Design > Flashcards

CPI, Process Control and Design Flashcards

1
Q

Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to

A. low gas velocity
B. excessive liquid gradient over the tray
C. high gas velocity
D. low reflux ratio

A

B. excessive liquid gradient over the tray

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2
Q

The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation columns (of diameter 73 ft) is normally

A. 6’’
B. 12’’
C. 18’’
D. 34’’

A

C. 18’’

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3
Q

Bubble cap plate column is:

A. a finite stage contactor
B. used only for distillation, not for absorption
C . a differential stage contactor
D. a continuous contactor

A

A. a finite stage contactor

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4
Q

The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation is:

A. 1” diameter cap with 0.5” diameter riser
B. 6” diameter cap with 1” diameter riser
C. 6” diameter cap with 4” diameter riser
D. 4” diameter cap with 5” diameter riser

A

C. 6’’ diameter cap with 4’’ diameter riser

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5
Q

High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat exchanger should preferably be routed through:

A. tubes to avoid the expense of high pressure shell construction
B. Shell side for smaller total pressure drop
C. Shell side of the flow is counter-current and tube side if the flow is co-current. D. shell side for larger overall heat transfer co-efficient

A

A. tubes to avoid the expense of high pressure shell construction

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6
Q

When one of the fluids is highly corrosiv e and has fouling tendency , it should:

A. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning
B. preferably flow outside the tube
C. flow ate very slow velocity
D. flow outside the tube when the flow is counter current and inside the tube when the flow is co-current

A

A. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning

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7
Q

In a shell and heat tube ex changer, the clearance of the tube is generally :

A. not less than one-fourth of the tube diameter or 3/16
B. more than the tube diameter
C. equal to the tube diameter
D. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to the square pitch tube layout

A

A. not less than one-fourth of the tube diameter or 3/16

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8
Q

For a given fluid as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost:

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending upon whether the fluid is Newtonian or non-Newtonian

A

A. decreases

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9
Q

Which of the following is the most common baffle used in industrial shell and tube heat exchange?

A. 75% out segmental baffle
B. orifice baffle
C . 25% out segmental baffle
D. disk and doughnut baffle

A

C . 25% out segmental baffle

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10
Q

Twenty five percent out segmental baffle means:

A. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell
B. spacing is 25% of its height
C. height is 25% of the I.D of the shell
D. width is 25% of the height

A

A. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell

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11
Q

In most of the shell and heat tube exchanger, the tube pitch is generally:

A. less than the diameter of the tube
B. 2.5 times the tube diameter
C. 1.25-1.50 times the tube diameter
D. one-fourth of the tube diameter

A

C. 1.25-1.50 times the tube diameter

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12
Q

Floating head heat exchangers are used for:

A. heat transfer between corrosive fluids
B. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the tubes is more (>50 C) C. co-current and transfer systems
D. counter-current heat transfer systems

A

B. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the tubes is more (>50 C)

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13
Q

In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for heat transfer (for a fluid flowing through the annulus) would be:

A. same as that for the fluid flow
B. less than that of the fluid flow
C . more than that of the fluid flow
D. D2 – D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of outer and inner pipes respectively)

A

C . more than that of the fluid flow

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14
Q

Pouring factor must be included in the calculation of overall design heat transfer coefficient when the liquid:

A. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
B. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
C. is highly viscous
D. is of high specific gravity

A

A. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity

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15
Q

In the case of the shell and heat tube exchanger, the logarithmic mean temperature difference:

A. is always less than arithmetic average value
B. is always more than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric mean value
C . is alw ay s less than arithmetic mean v alue but more than geometric mean v alue
D. May be either more or less than geometric mean and arithmetic mean value depending upon whether the flow of stream is concurrent or counter current

A

A. is always less than arithmetic average value

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16
Q

Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is:

A. 1
B. 0.65
C. 1.2
D. 0.5

A

A. 1

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17
Q

In the design of a paddle agitator, the ratio paddle diameter to tank diameter is normally taken as:

A. 0.1
B. 0.6
C. 0.25
D. 0.5

A

B. 0.6

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18
Q

The ratio propeller agitator diameter o tank diameter is normally taken as:

A. 0.15-0.30
B. 0.5-0.65
C. 0.75-0.85
D. 0.50-0.90

A

A. 0.15-0.30

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19
Q

The minimum baffle height should be:

A. equal to the impeller diameter
B. twice the diameter
C . twice the impeller diameter
D. 3⁄4 of the tank height

A

C . twice the impeller diameter

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20
Q

Leg support is meant for:

A. large horizontal cylindrical vessels
B. small vessels
C. tall but empty vessels
D. thick walled tall vessels

A

B. small vessels

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21
Q

Skirt support is suitable for:

A. small horizontal vessels
B. tall vertical vessels
C. large horizontal v essels
D. thick walled small v ertical v essels

A

B. tall vertical vessels

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22
Q

Saddle support are used for supporting:

A. horizontal cylindrical vessels
B. thick walled vertical vessels
C. tall vertical vessels
D. thick spherical vessels

A

A. horizontal cylindrical vessels

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23
Q

A replica of a commercial scale plat:

A. lab scale
B. bench scale
C. pilot scale
D. small scale

A

C. pilot scale

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24
Q

Vertical valves are not supported by:

A. brackets
B. skirts
C. column
D. saddles

A

D. saddles

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25
Q

Which of the following is a propriety equipment?

A. reactors
B. distillation columns
C. pumps
D. heat exchangers

A

C. pumps

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26
Q

It is a type of a pressure relief device commonly used in which it is consists of a pneumatically or electrically operated valves which are activated by pressure
sensing instruments:

A. directly actuated valves
B. bursting discs
C. indirectly actuated valves
D. over-pressure

A

C. indirectly actuated valves

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27
Q

It is a measure of the intrinsic rate of energy release from the burning, explosion or other chemical reaction of the material.

A. unit hazard factor
B. material factor
C. dow fire and explosion index D. damage factor

A

B. material factor

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28
Q

In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of caustic soda:

A. sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate
B. sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide
C. sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate
D. and sodium carbonate

A

A. sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate

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29
Q

Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that:

A. both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the latter
B. both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in the latter
C. temperature is more in former and whereas pressure is more in the latter
D. pressure is more in former whereas temperature is less in the latter

A

B. both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in the latter

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30
Q

Glycerin is recovered from lye by:

A. evaporation followed by vacuum distillation
B. extractive distillation technique
C. liquid extraction technique
D. steam distillation

A

A. evaporation followed by vacuum distillation

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31
Q

Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are:

A. usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane sugar and alcohol are added and finally washed with methylate spint to achieve transparency
B. metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve transparency.
C. metallic soaps with frothing agent which glycerin has not been recovered
D. high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol

A

A. usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane sugar and alcohol are added and finally washed with methylate spint to achieve transparency

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32
Q

Fats as compared to oils have:

A. more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids
B. less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids
C. much higher reactivity to oxygen
D. lower melting point

A

B. less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids

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33
Q

Salt is added to the kettle during soap manufacture to separate:

A. soap from lye
B. the metallic soap
C. glycerin from lye
D. the unsaponified fat from soap

A

A. soap from lye

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34
Q

Hydrogenation of oil takes place in:

A. an autothermal reactor
B. a plug flow reactor
C. a trickle bed reactor
D. backmix reactor

A

C. a trickle bed reactor

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35
Q

Shaving soaps are:

A. soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acids) with free stearic acid to give lather a lasting property.
B. metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
C. high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
D. usually soap soaps

A

A. soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acids) with free stearic acid to give lather a lasting property.

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36
Q

Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove:

A. bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
B. undesirable taste and odor
C. bacteria
D. its corrosiveness

A

A. bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium

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37
Q

Cholramines are used in water treatment for:

A. disinfection and control of taste and color
B. removing turbidity
C. corrosion control
D. control of bacteria

A

A. disinfection and control of taste and color

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38
Q

Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it:

A. minimizes its turbidity
B. minimizes its corrosiveness
C. helps in controlling its taste and color
D. controls bacteria

A

B. minimizes its corrosiveness

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39
Q

Which product is produced commercially by the Haber process?

A. sulfuric acid
B. ammonia
C. propane
D. calcium

A

B. ammonia

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40
Q

A 20% oleum product means:

A. 20% SO3, 80% H2SO4
B. 80% H2SO4, 20% H2O
C. 80% SO3, 20% H2SO4
D. 20% SO3, 80% H2O

A

A. 20% SO3, 80% H2SO4

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41
Q

Which of the following is pearl ash?

A. NA2CO3
B. K2CO3
C. AL2O3
D. CaO

A

B. K2CO3

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42
Q

It is produced by the reaction of calcium carbide with water:

A. sulfur dioxide
B. methylene
C. ethylene
D. acetylene

A

D. acetylene

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43
Q

Which of the following is also known as black diamond:

A. bort
B. fulsreners
C. carbonados
D. carbon novers

A

C. carbonados

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44
Q

Percent krypton in air is:

A. 0.934% by volume
B. 0.934% by weight
C. 0.0001139% by volume
D. 0.0001139% by weight

A

C. 0.0001139% by volume

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45
Q

It is an alloy consisting of copper and zinc:

A. bronze
B. brass
C. amalgam
D. cast iron

A

B. brass

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46
Q

Aqua regia is a mixture of:

A. HCl and perchloric
B. nitric and perchloric
C. nitric and HCl
D. HCL, HNO3, and perchloric

A

C. nitric and HCl

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47
Q

What alloying element is added to stainless steel to impart corrosion resistance?

A. chromium
B. vanadium
C. titanium
D. copper

A

A. chromium

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48
Q

The process of heating rubber with sulfur to improve toughness and strength:

A. heat treatment
B. annealing
C. polymerization
D. vulcanization

A

D. vulcanization

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49
Q

Which of the following is an ore of mercury?

A. bauxite
B. galena
C. sphalenite
D. cinnabar

A

D. cinnabar

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50
Q

Which of the following is the present process for the manufacture of soda ash?

A. LeBlanc process
B. Solvay process
C. Deacon process
D. Waldon process

A

B. Solvay process

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51
Q

Which of the following is used as a disinfectant and deodorant in dairies, creameries. Water supply, sewage disposal and for household purposes?

A. calcium hypochlorite
B. sodium chlorite
C. sodium hypochlorite
D. caustic soda

A

C. sodium hypochlorite

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52
Q

It is the most abundant metal of the earth’s crust:

A. iron
B. aluminum
C. lithium
D. sodium

A

B. aluminum

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53
Q

A Mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide, produced by the reaction of water and carbon (coke), that is used as a starting point in the synthesis of methanol
and other organic chemicals:

A. producer gas
B. synthesis gas
C. marsh gas
D. laughing gas

A

B. synthesis gas

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54
Q

A process used in paper production in which sulfur dioxide is added to a mildly acidic digestion liquor to yield hydrogen sulfite ions:

A. sulfite process
B. sulfate process
C. mechanical pulp process
D. Solvay process

A

A. sulfite process

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55
Q

A process used in paper production in which sodium sulfate is added to a basic digestion liquor:

A. sulfite process
B. sulfate process
C. mechanical pulp process
D. Solvay process

A

B. sulfate process

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56
Q

Silicone rubbers are:

A. polysiloxanes
B. polyethylene
C. polypropylene
D. elastomer

A

A. polysiloxanes

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57
Q

Corundum is:

A. aluminum oxide
B. iron oxide
C. magnesium oxide
D. calcium oxide

A

A. aluminum oxide

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58
Q

Calcite is:

A. potassium carbonate
B. Calcium Carbonate
C. sodium hydroxide
D. calcium hydroxide

A

B. Calcium Carbonate

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59
Q

It is used primarily in operations requiring high-flame temperature, such as welding and metal cutting:

A. acetylene
B. blue water gas
C. carbureted water gas
D. coal gas

A

A. acetylene

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60
Q

It is the variation of temperature with height above the ground:

A. inversion aloft
B. ground-level inversion
C. greenhouse effect
D. lapse rate

A

D. lapse rate

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61
Q

Blue vitriol is:

A. Fe2O4
B. CoSO4 7H2O
C. CuSO4 5H2O
D. CdS

A

C. CuSO4 5H2O

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62
Q

Prussian blue is:

A. ferric ferrocyanide
B. sodium bicarbonate
C. sodium carbonate
D. sodium hydroxide.

A

A. ferric ferrocyanide

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63
Q

An ore of lead:

A. silica
B. spinel
C. galena
D. cementite

A

C. galena

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64
Q

Epsom salt is:

A. ferrous sulfate
B. manganese nitrate
C. ferric chloride
D. magnesium sulfate

A

D. magnesium sulfate

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65
Q

Salt peter is:

A. sodium nitrate
B. calcium nitrate
C. potassium sulfate
D. potassium nitrate

A

D. potassium nitrate

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66
Q

A unicellular organism surrounded by a cell wall and possessing a distinct nucleus.

A. protozoa
B. virus
C. yeast
D. algae

A

C. yeast

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67
Q

Glauber’s salt is crystalline hydrated ___________.

A. sodium sulfate
B. sodium sulfite
C. calcium nitrate
D. calcium nitite

A

A. sodium sulfate

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68
Q

It is characterized by simple vegetative bodies from which reproductive structures are elaborated. It contains no chlorophyll and therefore requires sources of complex organic molecules.

A. algae
B. fungi
C. virus
D. protozoa

A

B. fungi

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69
Q

A specie of algae that grows in high salinity and produces glycerol:

A. Flagella
B. Pleomorphism
C. Niacin
D. Dunallella

A

D. Dunallella

70
Q

Wastewaters produced by plant workers, shower facilities and cafeterias.

A. process
B. domestic
C. cooling
D. industrial

A

B. domestic

71
Q

It refers to the ability of coal to withstand breakage during handling and shipping:

A. friability
B. size stability
C. hardness
D. toughness

A

B. size stability

72
Q

It is a simply fixed medium biological reactor with wastewater being spread over the surface of a solid medium where the microbes are growing:

A. lagoons
B. trickling filters
C. neutralization tank
D. gint chambers

A

B. trickling filters

73
Q

An industrial process for making hydrazine from ammonia and hypochlorite ion in aqueous solution:

A. Frasch process
B. Solvay process
C. Raschig process
D. Downs process

A

C. Raschig process

74
Q

A naturally occurring long-chain polymer composed of amino acid subunits:

A. carbohydrates
B. fats
C. Sugars
D. proteins

A

D. proteins

75
Q

A titration in which the change in cell voltage with added volume of one of the reactants is used to monitor the course of the reaction.

A. volumetric titration
B. gravimetric titration
C. potentiometric titration
D. electrometric titration

A

C. potentiometric titration

76
Q

The ejection of electrons from a metal surface by beam of light. The energy of electrons depends upon the wavelength of the light.

A. Tyndal effect
B. greenhouse effect
C. photoelectric effect
D. electrometric effect

A

C. photoelectric effect

77
Q

An early method for the production of sodium carbonate from sodium chloride, calcium carbonate, and sulfuric acid.

A. Frasch process
B. Leblanc process
C. Solvay process
D. Raschig process

A

B. Leblanc process

78
Q

An early process for the production of sulfuric acid, in which 𝑆𝑂2
is oxidized to 𝑆𝑂3
by nitrogen oxides in lead-lined chambers.

A. Solvay process
B. Lead chamber process
C. Hall-Heroult process
D. Downs process

A

B. Lead chamber process

79
Q

A process for the production of aluminum through electrolysis of a solution of bauxite in molten cryolite.

A. Solvay process
B. Lead chamber process
C. Hall-Heroult process
D. Downs process

A

C. Hall-Heroult process

80
Q

A process in which sulfur is recovered from underground deposits by melting it with superheated water and forcing it to the surface.

A. Haber-Bosch process
B. Frasch process
C. Bayer process D. Bessemer process

A

B. Frasch process

81
Q

An industrial electrochemical process for obtaining sodium from molten sodium chloride.

A. Frasch process
B. Bayer process
C. Bessemer process
D. Downs process

A

D. Downs process

82
Q

An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is base on the oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by the
reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid.

A. Leblanc process
B. Lead chamber process
C. Contact process
D. Bayer process

A

C. Contact process

83
Q

A multistep cyclic process in which pyruv ate ions are broken down to carbon dioxide and water, with production of ATP, NADH, and FADH2 molecules that store
free energy in the cells of organisms.

A. Born- Haber cycle
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Carnot cycle

A

B. Citric acid cycle

84
Q

A disproportionation reaction of two aldehyde molecules to give an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.

A. Friedel-Crafts reaction
B. Shift reaction
C. Cannizzaro reaction
D. Dehydration reaction

A

C. Cannizzaro reaction

85
Q

A multistep cyclic process in which glucose is synthesized from carbon dioxide and water.

A. Nitrogen cycle
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Carnot cycle

A

C. Calvin cycle

86
Q

A process for the conversion of iron to steel that consists of forcing air through molten pig iron.

A. Bessemer process
B. Bayer process
C. Contact process
D. Frasch process

A

A. Bessemer process

87
Q

An industrial process for the purification of aluminum (III) oxide through its selective dissolution in a strongly basic solution.

A. Bessemer process
B. Bayer process
C. Contact process
D. Frasch process

A

B. Bayer process

88
Q

Magnesium is obtained from:

A. Sea shells
B. Corals
C. Sea water
D. Sand

A

C. Sea water

89
Q

The union of nonvolatile inorganic oxides resulting from the decomposition and fusion of alkali and alkaline earth compounds, sand, and other constituents, ending in a product with random atomic structure. It is a rigid, undercooled liquid having no definite melting point and sufficiently high viscosity to prevent crystallization.

A. Ceramics
B. Glass
C. Cements
D. Refractories

A

B. Glass

90
Q

It is made by the high-temperature pyrolysis of silicon tetrachloride or by fusion of quarts or pure sand.

A. Fused silica
B. alkali silicates
C. Borosilicate glass
D. Soda-lime glass

A

A. Fused silica

91
Q

Crushed glass from imperfect articles, trim and other waste glass.

A. Mullite
B. Pot furnances C. Borax
D. Cullet

A

D. Cullet

92
Q

It is commonly called niter cake.

A. Glauber’s salt
B. Sodium sulfate
C. Sodium bisulfate
D. salt cake

A

C. Sodium bisulfate

93
Q

Which of the following compound is employed extensively in the leather industry as a depilatory?

A. Sodium hydrosulfite
B. Sodium sulfide
C. Sodium thiosulfate
D. Sodium silicates

A

B. Sodium sulfide

94
Q

Which of the following compounds is used to dissolve unaltered silver halogen compounds in negatives and prints?

A. Sodium hydrosulfite
B. Sodium sulfide
C. Sodium thiosulfate
D. Sodium silicates

A

C. Sodium thiosulfate

95
Q

Which of the following is used as a disinfectant and deodorant in dairies, creameries, water supplies, sewage disposal, and for household purposes?

A. Calcium hypochlorite
B. Sodium chlorite
C. Caustic soda
D. Sodium hypochlorite

A

D. Sodium hypochlorite

96
Q

A type of electric furnace where heat is produced by an electric arc between two or more electrodes, which are usually graphite or carbon, between the electrodes and the furnace charge, or between two or more electrodes, which are usually graphite or carbon and may or may not be consumed in the operation, or between the electrodes and the furnace charge.

A. Arc furnace
B. Induction furnace
C. Resistance furnace
D. Plasma

A

A. Arc furnace

97
Q

An instrument for the detection of high energy decay products of radioactive nuclei, which is based on the counting of light pulses produced by radiation when it
enters a crystal.

A. Scintillation counter
B. Voltmeter
C. Radiograph
D. Spectrometer

A

A. Scintillation counter

98
Q

The conversion of a sulfide ore to an oxide through heating the furnace.

A. Smelting
B. Roasting
C. Sintering
D. Annealing

A

B. Roasting

99
Q

Carbonate, or a temporary hardness, is caused by bicarbonates of _______.

A. Calcium and potassium
B. Sodium and magnesium
C. Iron and magnesium
D. Calcium and magnesium

A

D. Calcium and magnesium

100
Q

It is a term applied to processes which remove or reduce the hardness of water.

A. Purification
B. Clarification
C. Softening
D. Sedimentation

A

C. Softening

101
Q

It is commonly applied to any process used to effect partial or complete demineralization of highly saline waters such as seawater (35,000 ppm of dissolved
salts) or brackish waters.

A. Purification
B. Desalting
C. Deaeration
D. Electrolysis

A

B. Desalting

102
Q

It is enrichment of water with nutrients.

A. Putrefaction
B. Eutrophication
C. Thermal stratification
D. Decomposition

A

B. Eutrophication

103
Q

It converts solar energy into electricity directly.

A. Electrolytic cell
B. Electrochemical cell
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Fuel cell

A

C. Photovoltaic cell

104
Q

It is usually applied to cooling below ambient temperature.

A. Air conditioning
B. Refrigeration
C. Thermal conduction
D. Heat transfer

A

B. Refrigeration

105
Q

An amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heat until it has a very great affinity for adsorbing many materials.

A. Lampblack
B. Carbon black
C. Activated carbon
D. Graphite

A

C. Activated carbon

106
Q

It is a very finely divided, essentially nonporous type of carbonaceous material which is produced in a precisely controlled pyrolytic petrochemical process.

A. Carbon black
B. Soot
C. Anthracite
D. Bituminous

A

A. Carbon black

107
Q

Which of the following is kaolinite.

A. Al2O3 2SiO2 2H2O
B. K2O Al2O3 SiO2
C. K2O Al2O3 6SiO2
D. MgO

A

A. Al2O3 2SiO2 2H2O

108
Q

Which of the following is potash?

A. Al2O3 2SiO2 2H2O
B. K2O Al2O3 SiO2
C. K2O Al2O3 6SiO2
D. MgO

A

B. K2O Al2O3 SiO2

109
Q

It is vitrified translucent ware with a hard glaze which resists abrasion to the maximum degree.

A. Earthenware
B. Chinaware
C. Stoneware
D. Porcelain

A

D. Porcelain

110
Q

A fracturing or flaking off, of a refractory brick, or block, due to uneven heat stresses or compression caused by heat.

A. Peeling
B. Corrosion
C. Abrasion
D. Spalling

A

D. Spalling

111
Q

Comprises one of a group of composite materials consisting of an intimate mixture of ceramic and metallic components, usually in the form of powder.

A. Magnesia
B. Cements
C. Vitreous enamel
D. Silica brick

A

B. Cements

112
Q

Compounds added to the glass to give it the white opaque appearance so characteristics of vitreous enamels.

A. Fluxes
B. Opacifiers
C. Electrolysis
D. Whiteners

A

B. Opacifiers

113
Q

A pure finely divided calcium carbonate prepared by wet grinding and levigating natural chalk.

A. Fluorspar
B. Putty
C. Lactate
D. Whiting

A

D. Whiting

114
Q

If the pressure recovery experienced by the liquid in the valve is enough to raise the pressure above the vapor pressure of the liquid, then the vapor bubbles start collapsing, or imploding. This implosion is called

A. Fisher control
B. Viscosity correction
C. Cavitation
D. Crowding condition

A

C. Cavitation

115
Q

A type of reciprocating stem valve used mainly as a block valve for fully open or fully closed services.

A. Gate valve
B. Split-body valve
C. Sliding stem valve
D. Globe valve

A

A. Gate valve

116
Q

Lanolin is widely used in cosmetics, it is derived from_______.

A. Cattonseed oil
B. Coconut oil
C. Sheep’s wool
D. Palm oil

A

C. Sheep’s wool

117
Q

Rectified spirits contains

A. 95.6% alcohol
B. 75.0% alcohol
C. 85.4% alcohol D. 100% alcohol

A

A. 95.6% alcohol

118
Q

Alcoholic fermentation is brought out by the action of

A. Yeast
B. CO2
C. O2
D. CO

A

A. Yeast

119
Q

What is the end product in the process of fermentation?

A. methyl alcohol
B. Ethanol
C. CH3CHO
D. Ethylene

A

B. Ethanol

120
Q

A spherical cluster of molecules whose hydrocarbon tails are in the interior and whose ionic groups are exposed to water on the outside.

A. Micelle
B. Laminae
C. Drops
D. Nuclei

A

A. Micelle

121
Q

A device to convert the quantity being measured into some type of signal (usually electrical or pneumatic).

A. Transducer
B. Converter
C. Adaptor
D. Reducer

A

A. Transducer

122
Q

Shale oil has a potential to replace some of the petroleum, it contains the oil called

A. Kerogen
B. Coke
C. Fuel oil
D. Crude oil

A

A. Kerogen

123
Q

It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas”.

A. Producer gas
B. Furnace gas
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane

A

D. Methane

124
Q

It converts solar energy into electricity directly.

A. Electrolytic cell
B. Electrochemical cell
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Fuel cell

A

C. Photovoltaic cell

125
Q

An unwanted input signal that affects the systems output signal.

A. Disturbance signal
B. Error signal
C. Controlled variable signal
D. Sensor signal

A

A. Disturbance signal

126
Q

A device that causes the process to provide the output.

A. Sensor
B. Transmitter
C. Adaptor
D. Actuator

A

D. Actuator

127
Q

The time for system to respond to a step input and attain in a response equal to the magnitude of the input.

A. Response time
B. Equalization time
C. Rise time
D. Equilibrium time

A

C. Rise time

128
Q

The system that uses a measurement of the output and compares it with the desired output.

A. Feed-forward control system
B. Adaptive control system
C. Closed-loop feedback control system
D. Inferential control system

A

C. Closed-loop feedback control system

129
Q

The amount the system output response proceeds beyond the desired response.

A. Offset
B. Overshoot
C. Gain
D. Offshoot

A

B. Overshoot

130
Q

The output signal is fed back so that it adds to the input signal.

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Comparator gain
D. Forward feedback

A

A. Positive feedback

131
Q

The system that exhibits the desired performance in the presence of significant plant uncertainty.

A. Stable control
B. Reliable control
C. Automatic control
D. Robust control

A

D. Robust control

132
Q

A temperature sensor with the following advantages: no physical contact, wide range and fast response, and measures small target or average value over large size.

A. Resistance thermometer
B. Thermistor
C. Radiation pyrometer
D. Filled thermal elements thermometer

A

C. Radiation pyrometer

133
Q

Not a flow- measuring device

A. Orifice meter
B. Magnetic flowmeter
C. Turbine meter
D. Diaphragm meter

A

D. Diaphragm meter

134
Q

Ratio of the maximum controllable flow to the minimum controllable flow.

A. Rangeability
B. Zero-span ratio
C. Hysteresis
D. Installed flow characteristic

A

A. Rangeability

135
Q

An inherent disadvantage of this control system is that it results in continuous cycling of the controlled variable and thus produces excessive wear in the final control element.

A. On-off control
B. P-only control
C. PI-only control
D. PID control

A

A. On-off control

136
Q

A special case of proportional control with a very high controller gain.

A. On-off control
B. Single-position control
C. Big-bang control
D. Inferential control

A

A. On-off control

137
Q

The proportional action repeat-rate is known from this control parameter.

A. Derivative time
B. Integral time
C. Controller bias D. Controller gain

A

B. Integral time

138
Q

It establishes the functional relationship between the controlled output and the primary feedback signal.

A. Control signal
B. Reference input
C. Measurement
D. Controlled output

A

C. Measurement

139
Q

It is external signal applied to the feedback control sy stem usually at the first summing point, in order to command a specified action of the plant. It is usually represents ideal (or desired) plant output behavior.

A. Controlled signal
B. Feedback element
C. Reference point
D. Controlled output

A

C. Reference point

140
Q

Type of control mode which does not provide zero offset but reduces the error and speeds the dynamic response of the system; it may cause instability if tuned improperly.

A. Proportional
B. Derivative
C. Proportional-integral
D. Integral

A

A. Proportional

141
Q

Type of control mode which achieves zero offset and adjusts the manipulated variable in a slower manner, thus giving poor dynamic performance, and can cause instability if tuned properly.

A. Proportional
B. Integral
C. Proportional-integral
D. Derivative

A

B. Integral

142
Q

Type of control mode which does not influence the final steady -state value of the error: provides rapid correction based on the rate of the change of error.

A. Proportional
B. Derivative
C. Proportional-integral
D. Integra

A

B. Derivative

143
Q

It is the actual response obtained from the control system. It may or may not be equal to the specified response implied by the input.

A. Input
B. Output
C. Answer
D. Result

A

B. Output

144
Q

An arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to command, direct or regulate itself or another system is a

A. Stimulus
B. Unit process
C. Control system
D. Unit operation

A

C. Control system

145
Q

The simplest mode of control which is characteristic of a two-position control commonly utilized in a thermostat for controlling the temperature of heaters, airconditioners, refrigerators, etc…

A. Proportional control
B. on-off control
C. Derivative control
D. Programmable logic control

A

B. on-off control

146
Q

It is a control system in which the control action is independent of the output.

A. Closed-loop system
B. Open-loop system
C. Feedback control system
D. Feedforward control system

A

B. Open-loop system

147
Q

It is an arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to form and/or act as an entire unit.

A. Process control
B. Set
C. System
D. Input

A

C. System

148
Q

The stimulus, excitation or command applied to a control system, typically from an external energy source, usually to produce a specified response from the control system.

A. Process control
B. Set
C. System
D. Input

A

D. Input

149
Q

A frequency response measure of how well the system response to variations in the output signal.

A. Feedback
B. Control system
C. Continuous time
D. Bandwidth

A

D. Bandwidth

150
Q

It is used to convert one signal or energy from into another.
A. Transducer
B. Amplifier
C. Detector
D. Resistor

A

A. Transducer

151
Q

A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the effect of temperature on the resistance to current called a

A. Thermocouple
B. Thermistor
C. Resistor
D. Capacitor

A

B. Thermistor

152
Q

A control structure with feedback controllers with the output of the primary controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to
final controller.

A. Feedforward control
B. Ratio control
C. Cascade control
D. Override control

A

C. Cascade control

153
Q

Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove

A. Bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
B. Undesirable taste and odor
C. Bacteria
D. its corrosiveness

A

A. Bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium

154
Q

Thermoplastic materials

A. Do not soften on application of heat
B. are heavily branched molecules
C. are solvent insoluble
D. are capable of softening or fusing when heated and hardening again when cooled

A

D. are capable of softening or fusing when heated and hardening again when cooled

155
Q

Thermosetting materials

A. are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or cured
B. soften on application of heat
C. are solvent insoluble
D. are heavily branched molecules

A

A. are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or cured

156
Q

CO2 can be adsorbed by

A. hot cupric acid
B. Cold Ca(OH)2
C. heated charcoal
D. alumina

A

C. heated charcoal

157
Q

It is an induced motion of a material in a specified way, usually in a circulatory pattern inside some sort of container.

A. agitation
B. mixing
C. blending
D. sedimentation

A

A. agitation

158
Q

Which of the following is an ore of mercury?

A. bauxite
B. galena
C. sphalerite
D. cinnabar

A

D. cinnabar

159
Q

Which of the following is the present process for the manufacture of soda ash (Na2CO3)?

A. LeBlanc Process
B. Solvay Process
C. Deacon Process
D. Weldon Process

A

B. Solvay Process

160
Q

It is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust.

A. iron
B. aluminum
C. lithium
D. sodium

A

B. aluminum

161
Q

Which of the following metals reacts violently with water?

A. sodium
B. calcium
C. diamond
D. aluminum

A

A. sodium

161
Q

A mixture of of hydrogen and carbon monoxide, produced by the reaction of water and carbon (coke), that is used as the starting point in the synthesis of methanol and other organic chemicals.

A. producer gas
B. synthesis gas
C. marsh gas
D. laughing gas

A

B. synthesis gas

162
Q

A multistep cyclic process in which pyruvate ions are broken down to carbon dioxide and water, with production of ATP, NADH, and FADH2 molecules that store free energy in the cells of organisms.

A. Born-Haber cycle
B. citric acid cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Cabot cycle

A

B. citric acid cycle

163
Q

A disproportionation reaction of two aldehyde molecules to give an alcohol and carboxylic acid.

A. Friedel-Crafts reaction
B. Shift reaction
C. Cannizzaro reaction
D. Dehydration reaction

A

C. Cannizzaro reaction

164
Q

A multistep cyclic process in which glucose is synthesized from carbon dioxide and water.

A. Nitrogen cycle
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Calvin cycle
D. Carnot cycle

A

C. Calvin cycle

165
Q

A process for the conversion of iron to steel that consist of forcing air through molten pig iron.

A. Bessemer process
B. Bayer process
C. Contact process
D. Frasch process

A

A. Bessemer process

166
Q

An industrial process for for the purification of aluminum (III) oxide through its selective dissolution in a strongly basic solution.

A. Bessemer process
B. Bayer process
C. Contact process
D. Frasch process

A

B. Bayer process

167
Q

It is a sudden, catastrophic, release of energy, causing pressure wave (blast wave).

A. ignition
B. deflagration
C. detonation
D. explosion

A

D. explosion

168
Q

A device used for the classification of particles in size ranges below 10 micrometer.

A. thickeners
B. hydraulic jigs
C. centrifuge
D. tables

A

C. centrifuge

169
Q

A principal type of gas-solids separator employing centrifugal force.

A. cyclones
B. gravity settlers
C. air filters
D. impingement separator

A

A. cyclones

Letchaysaybeejen (10 decks)

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