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Anatomy and Physiology > BIOL 233 Exam #1 > Flashcards

BIOL 233 Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Nervous System do?

A

“Electrical” Communication

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2
Q

What does the Endocrine System do?

A

Chemical Communication

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3
Q

What are the functions of the Nervous System?

A
  • Communicates by means of electrical impulses and neurotransmitters.
  • Releases neurotransmitters at synapses at specific target cells.
  • Usually has relatively local, specific effects.
  • Reacts quickly to stimuli, usually within 1-10 ms.
  • Stops quickly when stimulus stops.
  • Adapts relatively quickly to continual stimulation.
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4
Q

What are the functions of the Endocrine System?

A
  • Communicates by means of hormones.
  • Releases hormones into bloodstream for general distribution throughout the body.
  • Sometimes has very general, widespread effects.
  • Reacts more slowly to stimuli, often taking seconds to days.
  • May continue responding long after stimulus stops.
  • Adapts relatively slowly, days to weeks.
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5
Q

What are the structures of a Neuron?

A
  • Dendrites
  • Axon
  • Axon Terminal
  • Synapse
  • Cell Body
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6
Q

What is the purpose of Dendrites?

A

Receives a message

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7
Q

What is the purpose of an Axon?

A

Conducts a message away from the neuron

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8
Q

What is the purpose of an Axon Terminal?

A

The “electrical” message is converted into a chemical message (neurotransmitter).

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9
Q

What is the purpose of a Synapse?

A

The space where the neurotransmitter release occurs to stimulate the next cell.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of the Cell Body (SOMA)?

A

Most cell typical part of a neuron

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11
Q

What is Santiago Ramon Y. Cajal known for?

A

Founding Scientist in the Modern Approach to Neuroscience. Received Nobel Prize in 1906.

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12
Q

Where is the Autonomic Nervous System located?

A

In the Motor Division of the PNS.

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13
Q

What is the function of the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Subconsciously controlled

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14
Q

What does the Central Nervous System do?

A

Receiving, Processing, and Responding to sensory information. Involves the brain and spinal cord.

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15
Q

What does the Peripheral Nervous System do?

A

Involves the Sensory and Motor Division. Involves Sympathetic and Parasympathetic System.

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16
Q

What are the divisions of the Motor area of PNS?

A

Somatic and Autonomic division

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17
Q

How is the Somatic division controlled?

A

Unconsciously

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18
Q

How is the Autonomic division controlled?

A

Subconsciously

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the Sympathetic division?

A

“Fight or Flight”

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20
Q

What is the purpose of the Parasympathetic division?

A

“Resting and Digesting”

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21
Q

What is a Neurons Resting Potential?

A

-70 mV

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22
Q

What is a Neurons Action Potential?

A

-65 mV

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23
Q

What are the 5 Neuroglia Cell Types?

A
  • Astrocytes
  • Microglia
  • Endymal Cells
  • Schwann Cells
  • Oligodendrocytes
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24
Q

What is the purpose of Astrocytes?

A

Supports the activity of neurons.

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25
Q

What is the purpose of Microglia?

A

Immune responsive cells and nervous system.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of Ependymal Cells?

A

Produces CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid).

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27
Q

What is the purpose of Schwann Cells?

A

Produces myelin in PNS (sheet-like material that wraps around a neuron to shape the speed of message transport). More myelin=faster message transport

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28
Q

What is the purpose of Oligodendrocytes?

A

Produces myelin in the CNS

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29
Q

What are Steroidal Hormones?

A
  • direct effect on target cell
  • enters body through PLB and the nuclear membrane
  • hormone directly interacts with gene material in the nucleus to change expression and protein production in the cell
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30
Q

What are Non-Steroidal Hormones?

A
  • indirect effect on target cell
  • use second messenger: hormonal signal interacts with target cells PLB to integral protein cell PLB
  • integral protein guides 2nd messenger response into the cell
  • the 2nd messenger will change gene expression and protein production in the cell
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31
Q

How does the Brain and Endocrine Glands Interact with eachother?

A

The development of the pituitary and hypothalamus prenatally is critical for growth and development

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32
Q

Thymus Gland Characteristics

A
  • produces thymosin; stimulates the development of T-lymphocytes (cells) which is our immune response
  • larger in newborns than adults
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33
Q

Thyroid Gland Characteristics

A
  • produces Calcitonin; imbeds calcium into bone tissue
  • produces T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine); helps regulate metabolism
  • high T3 + T4= faster metabolic rate
  • low T3 + T4= slower metabolic rate
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34
Q

What is Hypothyroidism?

A

T3 and/or T4 is below homeostatic level
Symptoms: cold, sluggish, higher rate to develop obesity because of slower metabolic rate

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35
Q

What is Hyperthyroidism?

A

T3 and/or T4 is above homeostatic level
Symptoms: flush, hyperkinetic, very thin

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36
Q

What is Graves Disease and what is the treatment?

A

Untreated hyperthyroidism.
The immune system begins attacking the thyroid.
Treated with radioactive iodine

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37
Q

What is MSH and its role?

A

The hormone that has the ability to stimulate the melanocytes in our skin to produce more melanin (pigment).

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38
Q

What hormones impact the Short-Term Stress Response?

A

Catecholamines; epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Produces by the Adrenal Medulla

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39
Q

What are the physiological effects due to the secretion of catecholamines in Short-Term Stress Response?

A
  1. increased heart rate
  2. increased blood pressure
  3. liver converts glycogen to glucose and then releases into blood
  4. dilation of bronchioles
  5. changes in blood flow leads to decreased digestive system activity and reduced urine output
  6. increased metabolic rate
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40
Q

What hormones impact the Long-Term Stress Response?

A

Mineralocorticoids: aldosterone
Glucocorticoids: cortisol

41
Q

What are the physiological effects due to mineralocorticoids in the Long-Term Stress Response?

A
  1. retention of sodium and water by kidneys
  2. increased blood volume and blood pressure
42
Q

What are the physiological effects due to glucocorticoids in the Long-Term Stress Response?

A

Glucocorticoids lead to breakdown of proteins and fats which leads to elevated glucose levels and suppresses immune responses.
1. proteins and fats convert to glucose or breaks down for energy
2. increased blood glucose
3. surpresses immune system

43
Q

What is ADH and what does it do?

A

Antidiuretic Hormone
A chemical produced in the brain that causes the kidneys to release LESS water, decreasing urine output.
High Levels of ADH = Less Urine Produced

44
Q

What hormones regulated calcium?

A

The parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Di hydroxyvitamin D-3
Calcitonin

45
Q

What hormones regulate milk production?

A

Prolactin

46
Q

What are the Hypothalamic Hormones?

A
  • Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone (TRH)
  • Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
  • Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)
    Somatostatin and Dopamine go the Anterior Pituitary
47
Q

What are EPSPs?

A

Excitatory: increase the likelihood of a postsynaptic action potential

48
Q

What are IPSPs?

A

Inhibitory: decrease the likelihood of postsynaptic action potential

49
Q

How do factors such as strength of a stimulus affect nerve function?

A

More intense the stimulus means faster the neuron will fire.
Both medium and strong stimulus stimulate a neuron to generate action potentials BUT the RATE of generation action differs.
The medium strength stimuli generates action potentials slower than strong stimuli.

50
Q

Who was Arnold Adolph Berthold?

A

Founding scientist of Endocrinology. Performed experiments on roosters.

51
Q

Who was Walter Bradford Cannon?

A

Physiologist who made major discoveries about the adrenal gland and coined the term “Fight or Flight” response.

52
Q

Who was William Harvey?

A

The first to uncover and describe the nature of blood and circulation with the heart.

53
Q

What are the properties of whole blood?

A
  • 8% of body weight
  • F= 4.5L M=5-6L
  • pH= 7.35-7.45: slightly alkaline (basic)
  • salinity: 0.9%
  • platelet count: 130,000 - 360,000/uL
  • white blood count (WBC): 5,000 - 10,000/uL
54
Q

What are the properties of plasma?

A
  • water
  • protein
  • nutrients
  • electrolytes
  • nitrogenous wastes
55
Q

What are the Cellular Components of Blood?

A
  • Erythrocytes (red blood cells/RBC): 45% of whole blood
  • Leukocytes (white blood cells/WBC): 0.7% of blood
  • Thrombocytes (platelets): less than 1% of blood
56
Q

What are the Proteins in Blood?

A

Albumin: 60% of blood and is a buffer for blood pH
- controls osmotic pressure
- transports lipids, hormones, and calcium
Globulins: 36% of blood
- transports, immune defense, and prevents clotting
- 4 forms: Alpha Globulins, Beta Globulins, Gamma Globulins, Fibrinogens

57
Q

What are the Characteristics of RBC?

A

Biconcave Disk Shape
- top of cell is thicker along edges: thinner in middle
- no nucleus
- has greater cell membrane surface area because of shape
- improves the cells ability to acquire oxygen or to shed carb dioxide

58
Q

What are the Characteristics of Hemoglobin?

A
  • consists of 4 proteins: “jigsaw puzzle” shape
  • Fe (iron) helps maintain structure and allows hemoglobin to acquire and shed gasses
    3 gasses that it likes: depends on environment
  • oxygen (O2), carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO)
    High oxygen environments (air sacs in lungs) means hemoglobin likes O2 most
  • this allows hemoglobin to shed CO2 to O2
    Low oxygen environments (capillary near muscle group) means hemoglobin likes CO2 more
  • this allow hemoglobin to release O2 to acquire CO2
  • gives O2 to tissues
59
Q

What gas does hemoglobin like the most?

A

Carbon monoxide (CO) which is why it is poisonous
- become O2 deprived

60
Q

What is Anemia?

A

Decrease in the total of RBC or in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, or a lower ability of the blood to carry oxygen.

61
Q

What is the 1st type of Anemia?

A

Anemia due to inadequate erthryopoiesis.

62
Q

What is a 2nd form of Anemia?

A

Due to blood loss (hemorrhagic causes)

63
Q

What is the 3rd form of Anemia?

A

Due to erythrocyte damage.
Most common; inadequate iron in diet

64
Q

What is Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Atypical hemoglobin that leads to a sickle cell shape in low oxygen situations.
- cell shape can get stuck in capillaries and decrease or prevent blood flow; causing pain
- found in malaria carried by mosquitos

65
Q

Can Sickle Cell Anemia be hereditary?

A

Yes

66
Q

Who was Karl Landsteiner?

A

He identified the ABO blood groupings.

67
Q

What causes differences in blood types?

A

Due to R-group “sugar endings on proteins on the RBC. Leads to incompatibility when the cells interact.

68
Q

What are the 4 blood types?

A

O, A, B, and AB

69
Q

What is the universal blood type?

A

Type O

70
Q

What is Agglutination?

A

Incompatible blood mixing

71
Q

What is Erythroblastosis Fetalis?

A

An alloimmune condition that develops in a fetus when there is incompatibility of Rh factors between fetus and mother.

72
Q

How does Erythroblastosis Fetalis develop?

A

If the mother if Rh- she can produce antibodies that attack RBC in fetal circulation of Rh+ fetus.
This results in breakdown and destroying RBC, also know as Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN)

73
Q

Hoe do White Blood Cells Develop?

A
  1. Formed in bone marrow of skeletal system
  2. Formed through stem cells called hemocytoblasts
74
Q

How do Leukocytes form?

A
  1. 2 forms of hemocytoblasts: myeloid and lymphoid stem cell
  2. Myeloid forms into myeloblast cell
    - can develop in 4 diff, WBC: eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil, or monocyte
  3. Lymphoid develops into lymphoblast cell
  4. Lymphoblast cell develops into lymphocytes
75
Q

How do RBC develop?

A
  1. Produces in the skeletal system of bone marrow
  2. Formed through stem cells called hemocytoblasts (blood cells)
76
Q

How do Erythrocytes develop?

A
  1. The hemocytoblast (stem cell) becomes committed called a proerythroblast (fate=erythrocyte)
  2. It is the normoblast stage where the cell sheds its nucleus
    - how the human RBC becomes biconcave disk shape
  3. End point of development is fully formed erythrocyte
    - becomes functional for gas exchange
77
Q

What regulates Blood Cell Production?

A

Erythrocyte production is regulated by O2 levels.
- persistent low levels will stimulate kidney to release erythropoietin; makes bone marrow produce erythrocytes

78
Q

What do more erythrocytes mean?

A

More oxygen into bloodstream; blood oxygen homeostasis is restored.

79
Q

What do cancer patients use for loss of blood cell production?

A

Procrit

80
Q

Characteristics of Platelets

A

Thrombocytes are small, colorless cells in our blood that form clots and prevent bleeding.
- biconvex disk shape
- only found in mammals
Hemocytoblasts to megakaryoblast to megakaryocyte to platelet

81
Q

What are the effects of altitude on blood cells and O2 levels?

A

High elevations will increase RBC production.
Training in low oxygen environments will cause the kidney to produce erythropoietin in the body; causing increase of RBC

82
Q

What are the Properties of Caoagulation?

A

Process where blood changes from a liquid to a gel, forming a blood clot.
- results in hemostasis; blood loss to repair
Disorders of bleeding: hemorrhage or bruising, obstructive clotting (thrombasis
Begins instantly after an injury; damaged endothelium lining in blood vessel

83
Q

What are the Disorders of Blood?

A

Infectious Mononucleosis: infection of B-lymphocytes.
Septicemia: bacteria in blood stream causing infection.

84
Q

How does blood flow through the heart in the systemic circuit?

A

Lower loop.
Blood leaving the left ventricle and moving into the aorta for distribution throughout the body.

85
Q

How does blood flow in the pulmonary circuit?

A

Upper loop.
The blood leaves the right ventricle and flows initially into the pulmonary trunk then to the pulmonary artery towards the lungs.

86
Q

What is important about the role of the gap junctions in function of the heart muscle?

A

These junctions are formed by clusters of cell membrane proteins that form a chemical communication channel between them that is called a connexon. This allows direct movement of chemicals between different cardiac muscle cells and further enhances the coordinated contraction of these cells.

87
Q

Who was William Einthoven?

A

Invented the first electrocardiograph and was awarded the Nobel Prize for his work.

88
Q

Who was Norman Shumway?

A

Surgeon who performed the first heart transplant in the United States. The patient had damage by a viral infection and only survived 15 days after surgery.

89
Q

What are the major structures of the heart and their functions?

A
  • Tendinous Cords (chordae tendineae): string-like materials help to regulate the movement of the flaps of the valves of the heart
  • Left Atrioventricular Valve (Mitral Valve) is the BICUSPID valve: medial flap is longer and singular, between the left ventricle and atria.
  • Right Ventricular Valve is a TRICUSPID valve: between the right ventricle and atria.
  • Pulmonary Semilunar Valve is a TRICUSPID valve: between the right atria and pulmonary trunk.
  • Aortic Semilunar Valve (aortic valve) is a TRICUSPID valve: between the left atria and aorta.
  • Ligamentum Arteriosum: ligamental tissue is actually a remnant of a small blood vessel connection that occurs between the aortic arch and the pulmonary trunk during PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT.
90
Q

What do heart sounds mean?

A
  • Sounds of aortic valve are heard in 2nd intercostal space at right sternal margin.
  • Sounds of pulmonary valve are heard in 2nd intercostal space at left sternal margin.
  • Sounds of mitral valve are heard over heart apex, in 5th intercostal space in line with middle of clavicle.
  • Sounds of tricuspid valve are heard in right sternal margin of 5th intercostal space.
91
Q

What do different EKG readings mean?

A

P Wave: represents the depolarization of the left and right atrium and also corresponds to atrial contraction.
QRS Complex: occurs in rapid succession, represents the electrical impulse as it spreads through the ventricles and indicates ventricular depolarization. Not always 3 together.
T Wave: follows the QRS complex and indicates ventricular repolarization.

92
Q

What are the conductivity signals in the heart?

A

The network that keeps your heart beating.

93
Q

What was the heart birth defect discussed in lecture?

A

Ventral Septal Defect: affects newborns; hole in the heart. If the two walls of the ventricles do not fully develop.

94
Q

What are baroreceptors and their impact on blood pressure?

A

The internal receptors in several of our large arteries. These will monitor blood pressure and relay that information to the brain to help maintain blood pressure homeostasis.

95
Q

What are some disorders with the heart?

A

Cardia Tamponade: compression of the heart by an abnormal accumulation of fluid or clotted blood.
Cardiomyopathy: any disease of the myocardium not resulting from coronary artery disease. Causes dilation
Myocardial Ischemia: inadequate blood flow
Septal Defects: abnormal openings in the interventricular septum

96
Q

What is bypass surgery and a stent?

A

Bypass Surgery: using excised veins to build “bridges” of blood flow around blockages. May lead to blood clots due to flow pattern. Vein removed from lower leg.
Stent: metal or plastic tubing designed to push on plaque to increase flow through a vessel. May lead to blood clots due to the device. Risk of blood clots.

97
Q

What is the function of the chordea tendinae and its function?

A

In the valves, string-like materials to help regulate the movement of the flaps of the valves of the heart.

98
Q

What is Edema and the issues with it?

A

Indication of Heart Functional Issues; fluid retention or swelling, buildup of fluid in the body’s tissue.

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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