Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Physiology > Exam #2 BIO 232 > Flashcards

Exam #2 BIO 232 Flashcards

1
Q

What did John F. Burke and Ioannis Yannas contribute to science?

A
  • Created first artificial skin to treat burn injuries.
  • Patients with severe burn injuries could be treated and decrease the possibility of infection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of skin?

A

It not only protects and covers more delicate tissues, in many species (including humans) it is important for shaping our behavioral signals to others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Characteristics of the Epidermis

A
  • has merkel discs
  • does not have a direct blood supply!!
  • exchanges gasses and nutrients via diffusion with the dermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Characteristics of the Dermis

A

contains connective tissue
- stores blood vessels
- neural structures
- muscle tissue
- hair follicles
- glands (sebaceous/sweat)
- arrector pili muscle
- papillary layer
- reticular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Characteristics of the Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)

A
  • insulates
  • absorbs shock
  • stores energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Characteristics of the Stratum Corneum

A

Consists of dead, rigid, squamous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Characteristics of the Stratum Granulosum

A

Forms keratohyalin granules
- lose water (desicat)
- cells are beginning to die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Characteristics of the Stratum Spinosum

A

Pre-keratin molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Characteristics of the Stratum Basale

A

The deepest layer- growing region
Contains melanocytes
- pigment producing cells
Contains merkel cells
- different that merkel discs
- these are in the dermis
- pain receptors (such as paper cuts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Much of our hair is regressing into…

A

Velum Hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 Nervous Structures

A

Pacinian corpuscles
Messsiner’s corpuscles
Free nerve endings
Merkel disks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pacinian Corpuscles Characteristics

A

Deep pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Characteristics of Messiner’s Corpuscles

A

Detects light pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of Free Nerve Endings

A

Nociceptors- detection of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mapping of the Dermal Ridges. Which areas are more abundant?

A

Face and Hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does oil do to hair?

A

Fills holes in the hair shaft to give hair the soft feeling.
Also reduces friction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What shape is straight hair texture?

A

Round

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What shape is wavy hair texture?

A

Oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What shape is curly hair texture?

A

Ribbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do hair permanents do to hair texture?

A

Straight to oval texture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do hair straighteners to do hair texture?

A

Curly to straight
- puts cuts into hair shaft which makes it relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How much melanin pigment does BLACK hair have?

A

HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How much mineral deposition does BLACK hair have?

A

LOW to none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much melanin pigment does BROWN hair have?

A

HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How much mineral deposition does BROWN hair have?

A

HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How much melanin pigment does BLOND hair have?

A

LOW to none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How much mineral deposition does BLOND hair have?

A

HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How much melanin pigment does WHITE hair have?

A

NONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How much mineral deposition does BLOND hair have?

A

LOW to none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How much melanin pigment does WHITE hair have?

A

NONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How much mineral deposition does WHITE hair have?

A

LOW to none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Characteristics of RED hair

A

Occurs via specialized mineralization (iron) and/or pigment production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Eumelanin?

A

Brownish/black in color. The primary pigment type produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Characteristics of GRAY hair

A

Loss of pigment- sporadic loss of pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Pheomelanin?

A

Pink to red tint, depending upon the concentration.
- particularly concentrated in the lips, nipples, glans of the penis, and vagina.
- present in the skin and higher concentrations cause more pinkish hue to the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is “strawberry blonde” created?

A

When a small amount of brown eumelanin in hair, which would otherwise cause blond hair, is mixed with red pheomelanin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are Trichochromes?

A

Pigments produced from the same metabolic pathway, but without significant color. They often are associated with the presence of red hair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Eponychium and the Hyponychium are…

A

protective barriers to the nail bed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does unlight allow our bodies to do?

A

Produce Vitamin D in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Subnormal Vitamin D leads to, what?

A

Ricketts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Excessive sunlight causes…

A

skin cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Melanin Inheritance Characteristics

A
  • there are at LEAST 3 different genes that shape the ultimate skin tone of an individual
  • the pigment that colors our skin is melanin and the greater production of melanin in the skin, the darker the skin tone will be
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Variations in human skin tone is a reflection of…

A

the amount of and activity of the melanocytes in the lower boundary of the stratum basale (epidermis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Melanin is able to do what?

A

Absorb even more energy in wavelength of light that are in the UV region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

More melanin means

A

More protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Types of Skin Cancer

A
  • Basal cell carcinoma
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Melanoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Rule of Nines: anterior and posterior head and neck

A

9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Anterior and posterior upper limbs

A

18%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anterior and posterior trunk

A

36%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Perineum

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Anterior and posterior lower limbs

A

36%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Levels of Burns

A

1st
2nd
3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

1st Degree Burn

A

Skin bearing partial thickness.
- burned skin region is shallow; epidermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

2nd Degree Burn

A

Skin bearing partial thickness.
- burned skin region is deeper and results in blistering (penetrates into the dermis but does not extend all the way through)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

3rd Degree Burn

A

Skin bearing full thickness burn.
- burned skin region is through all layers of the skin and exposes deep tissues (through the dermis and potentially the hypodermis)

56
Q

Sudoriferous Glands

A

sweat glands

57
Q

Merocrine Glands

A

Sweat glands that function in evaporative cooling; widely distributed over the body surface; open by ducts onto the skin surface.

58
Q

Apocrine Glands

A

Sweat glands that function as scent glands; found in the regions covered by the pubic, axillary, and male facial hair; open by ducts into hair follicles.

59
Q

Sebaceous Glands

A

Oil glands associated with hair follicles.

60
Q

Ceruminous Glands

A

Glands of the ear canal that contribute to the cerumen (earwax).

61
Q

Mammary Glands

A

Milk-producing glands located in the breast.

62
Q

What is botox?

A

Botulism Toxin

63
Q

What was botox used for?

A

Treating vocal dysphonia. Individuals may partially or completely lose the ability to speak because of spasms of the issues in the larynx region. In treatment for this, the toxin is injected in one side of the musculature controlling one of the two vocal cords used in speech production. The resultant paralysis of one side often allows the individual to have a return of a usable voice (may be a bit distorted, but allows communication).

64
Q

How does botox work, cosmetically?

A

Injected into the muscles underneath an area of wrinkling in the skin. The toxin paralyzes the muscles, causing it to relax, which will reduce or eliminate the furrows of a skin wrinkling above the paralyzed muscles.

65
Q

What is Bernard Siegfried Albinus known for?

A

His drawings in the work entitled ‘Tables of the Skeleton and Muscles of the Human Body’ published in 1747

66
Q

Characteristics of Hyaline Cartilage

A

Most abundant; moderately strong/flexible

67
Q

Characteristics of Elastic Cartilage

A

Very flexible, not strong; found in the ear and epiglottis

68
Q

Characteristics of Fibrocartilage

A

Very strong, not flexible; found in knee joints and vertebrae discs

69
Q

Characteristics of Long Bones

A
  • Stereotype bone
  • Humerus, radius, ulna, tibia, fibula, phalanges
  • knobs at the end are epiphyses; compact and spongy bone (RED bone marrow)
  • center/long area are diaphysis; hollow tube, primarily compact bone, low red blood marrow (lots of YELLOW bone marrow)
  • area in between the epiphysis and diaphysis is the epiphyseal disk; important in bone growth and formation
70
Q

Characteristic of Short Bones

A
  • boxy
  • carpals, tarsals
71
Q

Characteristics of Flat Bones

A
  • develop between membranes
  • cranial cap (frontal, temporal, occipital), sternum
72
Q

Characteristics of Irregular Bones

A
  • catch all group
  • vertebrae
73
Q

Characteristics of Sesamoid Bones

A
  • Sesamoid bone
74
Q

Characteristics of Spongy Bones

A
  • diploe
  • trabeculae; branches
  • filled with RED bone marrow
75
Q

Skeletal System Characteristics

A
  1. Structure, support and protection
  2. Blood cell production- roll of red bone marrow
  3. Repository for minerals
    - zinc
    - iron
76
Q

Osteogenic Cell Characteristics

A
  • stem cell
  • can form into other cells; osteoblast, osteocyte, or osteoclast
77
Q

Osteoblast Cell Characteristics

A
  • will mineralize the bone tissue
  • embed minerals into the bones
  • matrix-synthesizing cell responsible for bone growth
78
Q

Osteocyte Cell Characteristics

A

Found in the femur

79
Q

Osteoclast Cell Characteristics

A
  • will demineralize bone tissue
  • lead minerals out of the bone
  • bone-resorbing cell
  • takes calcium out of the bone tissue for systems to use
80
Q

Ossification Definition

A

Formation of bone tissue

81
Q

Week 9 of Baby Growth

A
  • bone collar forms around hyaline cartilage; fully CARTILAGINOUS
  • cartilage in the center of the diaphysis calcified and then develops cavities; develops into hard bone
82
Q

Month 3 of Baby Growth

A
  • the periosteal bud invades the internal cavities and spongy bone begins to form
  • blood vessels form
  • cartilage does not have a direct blood supply
  • bone tissue does have a direct blood supply
83
Q

Birth

A

The diaphysis elongates and a medullary cavity forms as ossification continues. Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses in preparation for Stage 5.

84
Q

Childhood to Adolescence

A
  • the epiphyses ossify. When completed, hyaline cartilage remains only in the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages
  • the epiphyseal plate remains cartilaginous through adolescence or until puberty
  • primary site of long bone growth- cartilaginous
85
Q

What tears take the longest to heal?

A

Cartilage because it does not have a direct blood supply

86
Q

What happens when you stop growing?

A

Bone growth stops

87
Q

Do males or females experience puberty last?

A

Males; a person who starts puberty later will be taller

88
Q

Scan of Young Skeleton Characteristics

A
  • most of body is cartilaginous
  • skull is forming more into bone
89
Q

Weight Training when Younger

A
  • at risk for bone injury because the epiphyseal plate is still cartilaginous
  • compression fracture on femur, it will no longer grow
90
Q

Blood Calcium Homeostasis Characteristics

A
  • parathyroid gland produce PTH known as parathyroid hormone
  • high levels of PTH leads to increase of osteoclast activity leading to leaching of calcium from bone tissue
  • osteoclasts degrade bone matrix and release calcium into the blood; rebalancing homeostasis
    -thyroid produces calcitonin; high calcitonin levels lead to increase osteoblast activity and lead to embedding of calcium into bone tissue; nearly the opposite of the parathyroid
91
Q

Why did our ancestors have lower parathyroid hormone levels?

A

Their worries were about not having enough food or heating home. Have lower levels of PTH because would do physical labor to get food or wood for heat. Now, we don’t worry about those things.

92
Q

Role of Cholecalciferol

A

Vitamin D3, it is an important coenzyme and vitamin in bone health.

93
Q

What is Ricketts?

A

A bone growth disorder that impacts young children. Bones are poorly mineralized due to lack of Vitamin D3

94
Q

Definition of Osteoporosis

A

A disease where increase bone weakness increase the risk of a broken bone. A result of significant demineralization of the trabecula.
- subnormal calcification of adult bone tissue

95
Q

Who does osteoporosis target more?

A

Elderly women
- spontaneous fracture of femur because of osteoporotic bone
- easy to fracture bones
- post menopause; sex hormones are low: calcium lose
- child bearing #; impacts sacral
- poor diet for calcium

96
Q

Bending Stress in Femur

A

Most weight on head of the femur; bone that fractures first in an osteoporotic patient.

97
Q

When were steel “bone cages” used on?

A

Patients suffering from Dwarfism
- used to lengthen legs
- developed in the Soviet Union in the 1950s

98
Q

How did steel ‘bone cages’ work?

A
  • purposely broke the bone
  • every week, refracture/stretch bone (human bone can remodel up to 1 mm of bone tissue per week)
  • can be used today with compression fractures that created pre-mature osteoporosis in tibia and fibular to match growth rate of other leg
99
Q

What happens when you have a smaller body frame?

A

Smaller than average thoracic cage; smaller room for development of heart and lungs; stretching arms and legs creates more stress on the body.

100
Q

Characteristics of Pituitary Giantism

A
  • coarse facial features and prominent jaw
  • tumor of the anterior pituitary gland
  • life expectancy is lower
  • become wheelchair bound
  • can develop cardiovascular issues
  • have high GH (growth hormone) levels; surgery or treatment would need to be done or would keep growing, leading to death
101
Q

Untreated Acromegaly Characteristics

A
  • GH secretion following the competition of puberty; never declined (stayed same); height doesn’t continue but bones become thicker
  • glabella becomes more thick and prominent
  • jaw line is very pronounced
  • untreated= ribs become thick, problems for breathing and cardiovascular system
  • bone thickening= skull begins to compress against the brain and other areas of the skeletal system
102
Q

How can Acromegaly be induced?

A

Steroids
- to become stronger
- Lyle Alzado passed from a tumor that was possibly induced from steroids

103
Q

Chelation Therapy Defintion

A

Intravenous administration of chemicals designed to absorb toxic substances that have accumulated in the body. Most notably used for exposure to heavy metals such as lead or mercury

104
Q

Impacts of Exposure to harsh chemicals

A

Lead: decreases IQ- increases of ADHD; physiological health issues
Mercury: psychosis
Cobalt: impacts physiological health

105
Q

Stages of Bone Healing

A
  1. a hematoma forms
  2. fibrocartilage callus forms
  3. bony callus forms
  4. bone remodeling occurs
106
Q

What moving lumbar holds the most amount of weight?

A

Lumbar

107
Q

Of all the vertebrae, which holds the most weight?

A

Sacral

108
Q

Female Pelvic Design

A

Legs are farther forward, wider pelvis for childbirth; creates more wear on the pelvic girdle

109
Q

Male Pelvic Design

A

Narrow pelvis

110
Q

Purpose of the Arches of Feet

A

Shock absorber

111
Q

Flat Feet Disadvantages

A

Arches have fallen, body weight transfers up the legs; become tired more quickly

112
Q

Fetal Skull Characteristics

A
  • sutures are incomplete
  • areas that are non ossified “soft spot”
  • soft spots allow for skull to compress during childbirth
113
Q

Cleft Lip Palate Characteristics

A
  • one side of maxilla incompletely forms
  • oral and nasal cavity merge together
  • surgery can be done to have lip repaired; during young ages mainly
114
Q

Sir John Charnley Contributions to Science

A

The surgeon who pioneered the use of artificial joints in the early 1960s.

115
Q

Fibrous Joints Characteristics

A

Joints that are created via fibrous connective tissues that are going to allow virtually no movement

116
Q

Types of Sutures

A

Serrate sutures
- dovetail joint
Lap suture
- miter joint
Plane suture
- butt join
Synopsis joint
Syndesmosis joint
Gomphosis joint

117
Q

Cartilaginous Joint Characteristics

A
  • joints that are created via cartilage, these joints allow a small amount of movement
  • Synchondroses
    : epiphyseal plate, sternum and manubrium
118
Q

Synovial Joint Characteristics

A

Also know as diarthrosis, joins bones with a fibrous joint capsule surrounding it that allows far greater range of motion between the two articulating bones than other types.

119
Q

Articular Cartilage Characteristics

A
  • hyaline
  • minimizes wear and tear
120
Q

Synovial Membrane Characteristics

A
  • produces synovial fluid
  • lubricant to reduce wear and tear
121
Q

Fibrous Capsule Characteristics

A
  • gives structural strength in the synovial membrane
122
Q

What is Bursae?

A

Pillow made from synovial membrane and is filled with synovial fluid.

123
Q

What is Bursitis?

A

Inflammation in joints- elbows

124
Q

Plane Joint (gliding, synovial)

A
  • limited 2 dimensional movement
  • ex; bones of the carpals and tarsals
125
Q

Hinge Joint (synovial)

A
  • rotational 2 dimensional movement
  • ex; elbow and knee joints
126
Q

Pivot Joint (synovial)

A
  • specialized 2 dimensional rotational movement
  • ex; between the radius and ulna
127
Q

Condyloid Joint (synovial)

A
  • limited 3 dimensional rotational movement
  • between the metacarpals and phalanges or between the metacarpals and phalanges
128
Q

Saddle Joint (synovial)

A
  • specialized 3 dimensional movement
  • between the carpals and metacarpals of the thumb
129
Q

Ball and Socket (synovial)

A
  • wide ranging 3 dimensional movement
  • shoulder, between humerus and scapula, head of the femur, and acetabulum
130
Q

Never walk on an injured knee

A

Cartilage takes longer to heal than a ligament

131
Q

Temporomandibular Joint Characteristics

A
  • lateral excursion: side-to-side movements of the mandible
  • TMJ Disorder; cleaning and grinding of the teeth
132
Q

Arthritis Defintion

A

Degradation of joint leading to distortion of pain, inflammation

133
Q

Osteoarthritis Characteristics

A

Due to wearing out of the articular cartilage between two bones

134
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Characteristics

A
  • Degradation of the articular cartilages
  • Result of an autoimmune response
135
Q

Kenneth Gustke Contributions

A

Knee replacement prosthesis

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions