Biological Basis of Behavior

Question 1

The treatment of patients with multiple neurological or psychiatric disorders is complicated by the fact that some disorders have opposing roots in the underlying brain chemistry. Administration of dopaminergic antagonists to schizophrenic patients can result in side effects resembling which of the following neurological disorders?

A. Bipolar disorder
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. Autism spectrum disorder

Answer 1

B is correct. Parkinson’s disease is tied to abnormally low levels of dopamine in the substantia nigra, triggering difficulties with movement. A dopamine antagonist would reduce this region’s sensitivity to dopamine; this has been known to cause side effects when administered to some schizophrenic patients.

A, C, D: These disorders are not as directly rooted in dopaminergic activity as Parkinson’s.

Question 2

A woman is hospitalized after having a stroke. An MRI scan discovers that the stroke is localized to the frontal lobe. A likely sign of such a stroke is:

A. blindness.
B. hyperimpulsivity.
C. auditory hallucinations.
D. memory deficits.

Answer 2

B is correct. The frontal lobe is heavily involved in executive control and decision-making; personality changes like hyperimpulsivity are a sign that this function has been compromised.

A: Blindness might be expected from a stroke in the occipital lobe, where the vision centers are located.

C: Similarly, auditory hallucinations might follow from a stroke in the hearing centers of the temporal lobe.

D: Memory deficits would likely be associated with a stroke that affects the hippocampus.

Question 3

Activation of a certain neuronal receptor is found to affect Cl- ion levels and hyperpolarize the cell to -80 mV. What is the most likely identity of the neurotransmitter that activates this receptor?

A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate

Answer 3

C is correct. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that acts on Cl- ion transport. The mention of hyperpolarization should indicate that the relevant neurotransmitter has an inhibitory effect. In combination, these facts point to GABA as the most likely activator of this receptor.

Question 4

Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT a catecholamine?

A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Acetylcholine

Answer 4

D is correct. Acetylcholine is neither a monoamine nor a catecholamine, unlike the other listed neurotransmitters.

Question 5

In Huntington’s disease, cells produce a defective form of the protein huntingtin (Htt) that contains a long “tail” of glutamine residues. This tail causes aggregation of Htt into plaques, which interfere with normal neural activity and lead to cell death. However, some types of neurons (such as those in the basal ganglia) are more vulnerable to this damage than others; their deaths often trigger the first visible signs of Huntington’s disease. Based on the information given above, an early indication of this disease might be provided by:

I. working memory deficits.
II. clumsiness or lack of coordination.
III. numbness in the extremities.

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only

Answer 5

B is correct. The basal ganglia are involved in coordinating smooth movements, and damage to this area causes the characteristic jerky movements, or chorea, associated with Huntington’s. This disease typically manifests as clumsiness or small twitches that escalate first to chorea, then to more severe writhing motions and abnormal posture.

I: Memory is affected by Huntington’s disease, but this is a later symptom. It also is not indicated by the information in the prompt, as the basal ganglia is not involved in memory.

III: Sensory issues like numbness are not characteristic of damage to the basal ganglia or any other area affected by Huntington’s disease

Question 6

Cortisol, a stress hormone, plays multiple homeostatic roles relating to glucose and glycogen metabolism. In what way does cortisol likely differ from Substance H, a peptide hormone?

A. As a glucocorticoid, cortisol probably diffuses directly through plasma membranes.

B. As a mineralocorticoid, cortisol probably floats freely in the bloodstream without a carrier protein.

C. As a derivative of cholesterol, cortisol likely triggers a second messenger cascade in target cells.

D. Cortisol is a peptide, so the two hormones are probably similar.

Answer 6

A is correct. Cortisol is a steroid hormone (more specifically, a glucocorticoid). Due to their nonpolar structures, steroids are able to traverse cell membranes without a channel or carrier.

B: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid, not a mineralocorticoid. Even without this information, you should know that peptides (not steroids) float freely in the watery environment of the bloodstream.

C: Steroids are cholesterol derivatives, but peptides are the hormone class that are involved with second messenger systems.

D: Cortisol is not a peptide hormone.

Question 7

What is the main functional difference between the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex?

A. The adrenal medulla is part of the sympathetic nervous system, while the adrenal cortex is part of the parasympathetic division.

B. The adrenal cortex releases compounds that also act as neurotransmitters, while the adrenal medulla releases hormones alone.

C. The adrenal medulla releases compounds that also act as neurotransmitters, while the adrenal cortex releases hormones alone.

D. The adrenal medulla is connected to the hypothalamus via a hypophyseal portal system, while the adrenal cortex is directly attached via nerve fibers.

Answer 7

C is correct. The adrenal medulla secretes two catecholamines, epinephrine and norepinephrine. While these molecules are technically hormones, they also act as sympathetic neurotransmitters to promote the fight-or-flight response. In contrast, the cortex releases steroid hormones, including aldosterone and cortisol.

A: The adrenal cortex has no direct relation to the parasympathetic system.

B: This is the reverse of the correct answer.

D: The description here attempts to confuse the adrenal gland with the pituitary.

Question 8

An animal behaviorist learns that a gene of particular interest in a species of ape is especially prone to methylation. What is the likely consequence of this epigenetic modification?

A. That portion of DNA is subject to upregulated transcription.

B. That portion of genetic material tends to be spliced out of mRNA transcripts.

C. That portion of DNA is more heavily expressed than it would be if unmodified.

D. That portion of DNA is less heavily expressed than it would be if unmodified.

Answer 8

D is correct. DNA methylation is a major epigenetic change with which you should be familiar. By methylating DNA, our cells reduce the frequency of transcription of that region, thereby “silencing” it. Remember, epigenetic modifications are long-term genetic changes that are generally not passed on to the next generation.

A, C: Methylation decreases, rather than increases, transcription. Even if you did not know this, note that these two choices are essentially identical.

B: This choice relates better to introns than to methylated DNA.

Question 9

A sociologist uses adoption studies to examine the prevalence of criminal behavior in young adults. She finds that children born to incarcerated offenders but raised in a different household have a higher chance of committing a felony than members of a control group. What can we conclude from this information, if the researchers find that p < 0.05?

A. Genetics certainly plays a role in the determination of future criminal behavior.

B. Genetics probably plays a role in the determination of future criminal behavior.

C. Genetics and environment appear to contribute equally to a child’s likelihood of engaging in criminal activity.

D. None of the above; the results are not statistically significant.

Answer 9

B is correct. A p value that is smaller than 0.05 generally denotes a statistically significant relationship. In other words, the sociologist has established an apparent link between criminally active relatives and a child’s future tendency to be a criminal himself. However, this is simply a single study and appears to be very limited; for example, it assessed only felonies, not criminal actions in general, and by definition missed individuals who were not caught. For this reason, choice B represents the least extreme conclusion.

A: This choice is too strong. While genetics is very likely to be involved somehow, we cannot conclude this from the described study alone.

Question 10

Most people lack conscious memories from prior to the time when they were approximately 3.5 years old. Which term is given to this phenomenon?

A. The Moro reflex
B. Baby dementia
C. The recency effect
D. Infantile amnesia

Answer 10

D is correct. Although babies can learn and use their memories, most or all of these memories are not retained into adulthood. The average adult can recollect events from around age 3-4, but not earlier. This phenomenon is known as infantile amnesia.

A: The Moro reflex is an instinctual response to the feeling of falling. An infant will throw his head back, extend his arms, and cry when physical support is withdrawn.

B: This term, though creative, is not a scientific concept.

C: The recency effect refers to our tendency to remember the first term in a list more readily than terms given in the middle. It has no relation to infantile amnesia.

Question 11

Which of the following theories of personality places a high value on self-actualization?

A. Psychoanalytic theory
B. Biological theory
C. Humanistic theory
D. Trait theory

Answer 11

C is correct. The humanistic approach to personality posits that individuals naturally strive for self-actualization, or the fulfillment of one’s potential. This goal actually forms the top of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs; in other words, humans have a psychological need for self-actualization and can work to achieve it once more basic needs have been met.

A: Psychoanalytic theory, largely developed by Sigmund Freud, focuses more on unconscious urges than on the fulfillment of potential. This theory includes the division of the personality into the id, ego, and superego.

B: Biological theories typically posit that personality is genetic in nature.

D: Trait theories aim to divide personality into a number of traits, or personal qualities, that may or may not be expressed by particular individuals.

Question 12

Freud’s psychoanalytic theory separates human personality into three main “structures,” or components. Which of these choices accurately describes one of these components?

A. The superego drives the individual to accomplish moral aims, and in doing so, often counteracts the id.

B. The id balances input from the ego and the superego and tends to dominate in day-to-day adult life.

C. The ego is more unconscious in nature than either the id or the superego.

D. The ego represents the most base, aggressive, and pleasure-seeking aspect of personality.

Answer 12

A is correct. The superego is the “moral” component of human personality. It typically drives individuals to avoid behaviors that are morally wrong while striving to fulfill realistic goals.

B: While the id (the pleasure-driven, simplistic portion of personality) does dominate behavior in very young children, the ego takes over in late childhood and adulthood.

C: The ego is largely conscious, as it must balance input from the superego and the ego to guide the person’s day-to-day actions. It is the id and the superego that are more unconscious in nature.

D: This choice describes the id, not the ego.

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT one of Goldberg’s five factors or scales along which personality can vary?

A. Conformity
B. Neuroticism
C. Openness to experience
D. Conscientiousness

Answer 13

A is correct. Goldberg’s five dimensions are agreeableness (the degree to which one values getting along with others), extraversion (the degree to which one engages with people and the external world) conscientiousness (a person’s level of self-discipline and focus on achievement) neuroticism (the degree to which one experiences negative emotions like anxiety, depression, or anger) and openness to experience (the amount of value placed on novelty, creativity, and variety of experiences). Conformity is not a factor on this list.

Question 14

An individual has a history of superficial friendships based on who he finds worthy of his attention. His romantic partners complain that he cares more about how they fit into his idealized version of a perfect couple, rather than focusing on their wants and needs. He is extremely sensitive to jokes at his expense and spends a great deal of time ruminating about perceived slights to his character or competence. Based on this description, this individual most likely has:

A. paranoid personality disorder.
B. narcissistic personality disorder.
C. borderline personality disorder.
D. dependent personality disorder.

Answer 14

B is correct. Some classic signs of narcissistic personality disorder include an excessive concentration on one’s own self-image, a heightened valuation of external sources of self-esteem, behavior focused on maintaining self-esteem to the exclusion of genuine interest in others’ needs, wants, or experiences, and feelings of entitlement. This individual displays all of these signs.

A, C, D: The person described lacks signs like a generalized mistrust toward others (A), emotional instability or black/white thinking (C), and dependence on others to make one’s life decisions or excessive subordination (D).

Question 15

Brain scans have been used to determine the patterns of brain activation associated with certain personality disorders. A group of subjects is exposed to videos of people being killed in accidents while their brain activation is monitored with an fMRI apparatus. What pattern of activation might be expected from people with antisocial personality disorder?

A. Overactivation of areas associated with higher reasoning

B. Underactivation of areas associated with perceptual processing

C. Overactivation of areas associated with memory formation

D. Underactivation of areas associated with emotional processing

Answer 15

D is correct. Individuals with antisocial personality disorder, also known as sociopaths, tend to display a remarkable lack of emotional affect when exposed to stimuli that would distress most people. This lack of affect is particularly pronounced in situations that normally provoke empathetic responses, like watching videos of people dying. Therefore, underactivation of areas associated with emotional processing, like the amygdala, would be expected in this case. Sociopaths actually tend to have smaller amygdalas than average.

Question 16

Of the individuals described below, who is / are extrinsically motivated?

I. Robert, a student who reviews practice tests for several hours each day in the hopes of scoring well on the MCAT

II. Phil, a teacher who goes to work because he truly loves providing for his wife and children

III. Bella, a young girl who draws and paints because she enjoys how she feels when engaging in those activities

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only

Answer 16

D is correct. Extrinsically motivated activities are those that we engage in to receive a reward (whether money, food, or another type of prize). In contrast, one is intrinsically motivated when one does something because it is enjoyable or rewarding. Since Robert only studies because he wants a high score, he is certainly extrinsically motivated. However, the case of Phil is slightly trickier. Remember, though, that an individual must perform an activity solely for the love of it to be intrinsically motivated. Phil is said to enjoy “providing for his family,” but that does not mean that he loves teaching – on the contrary, he likely loves the money and stability that his job provides.

III: Since Bella makes art because she enjoys it, she is intrinsically motivated.

Question 17

A second-grade boy loves playing soccer outside, even when alone. He originally found a soccer ball in his family’s garage and began kicking it around the yard entirely of his own accord. If the boy’s parents want to reinforce this behavior, which action should they NOT take?

A. Ignore the boy entirely – not offer excessive praise, but also not punish him in any way.

B. Offer occasional praise, but mainly leave him alone with the ball.

C. Give the boy $5 whenever they see him take the ball outside.

D. Purchase the boy athletic equipment when he asks for it, but not offer it up on any sort of condition.

Answer 17

C is correct. This child is already intrinsically motivated to play soccer, as evidenced by the fact that he does so for long stretches on his own with no outside rewards. Research has shown that offering rewards (extrinsic motivation) to people who are already intrinsically motivated actually makes them less willing to engage in the task. For this reason, leaving the child alone is preferable to rewarding him in any predictable way.

Question 18

You are extremely hungry after a day without eating, so you feel a strong urge to consume food. For the moment, in fact, this desire to eat becomes your primary goal. This scenario best relates to which theory of motivation?

A. Drive augmentation theory
B. Incentive theory
C. Drive reduction theory
D. Arousal theory

Answer 18

C is correct. Drives are unpleasant urges or tensions, like hunger, that result from unmet needs, like the lack of nutrients and blood glucose. According to drive reduction theory, we base our actions on our motivation to reduce these drives.

A: Drive augmentation theory does not exist. Since drives are generally unpleasant, we would not want to “augment,” or enhance, them.

B, D: While these are theories of motivation, they relate to external rewards and general excitement, specifically.

Question 19

The opponent-process theory has often been cited in cases similar to those of which individual?

A. A man who spots a bear in the woods and subsequently becomes afraid

B. A heroin addict who cannot seem to quit

C. A young boy who is more interested in tasks when he is not given a reward

D. A toddler who has recently gained a grasp of object permanence

Answer 19

B is correct. The opponent-process theory is often used as a model to explain drug addiction. This theory states that many human behaviors and emotional responses have two antagonistic components. For example, a drug addict feels pleasure (the euphoria associated with certain neurotransmitter) when he takes the drug, but withdrawal (the lack of these neurotransmitters, causing unhappiness) when he stops. Even more interestingly, the opponent-process theory also relates to physical symptoms. Since heroin is a depressant, the drug addict’s body compensated by “speeding itself up” after many instances of taking the drug, with an increased heart rate, shaky muscles, etc. While the addict did not notice this while he was still on the substance, once he stopped, this “opponent process” became the only thing he experienced and caused withdrawal symptoms.

Question 20

A bus driver who was in a traumatic car accident as a teenager never exceeds 30 miles per hour, even on streets where the speed limit is 40 mph. Which component of his attitude toward driving is represented by the fact that he never travels faster than this speed?

A. The affective component
B. The cognitive component
C. The behavioral component
D. The associative component

Answer 20

C is correct. As the term implies, the behavioral component of this man’s attitude includes his behaviors and actions. Here, he is acting to ensure that he never surpasses 30 mph when driving a bus.

A: The affective component, which consists of emotions and feelings, is best represented by this man’s fear or dislike of driving quickly.

B: Here, the cognitive component can be described as how this person thinks of his fear of speed. For example, if he finds himself remembering his accident when he exceeds 30 mph, his memory would serve as part of the cognitive component of this attitude.

Question 21

Which of these parents would be most influenced by his or her own behavior to believe that private school is the best choice for his or her children’s future?

A. The mother who speaks out against the pitfalls of public education and hosts fundraisers for private schools

B. The parent who habitually watches a news program about crime in public schools

C. The father who works for a private elementary school

D. The parent who attended private school herself

Answer 21

A is correct. Public declarations can strongly impact personal behavior. In other words, individuals who openly speak out in support of certain institutions (like private schools) or against others (like public schools) increase their likelihood of actually holding corresponding attitudes. Often, these individuals are influenced to behave in ways that agree with their declarations lest someone see them act hypocritically.

Question 22

Which of the below theories posits that a persuasive message may be processed via either a peripheral or a central route?

A. Expectancy-value theory
B. Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development
C. The elaboration likelihood model
D. Drive reduction theory

Answer 22

C is correct. The elaboration likelihood model focuses on attitude change and the factors that tend to promote it. This model theorizes that a message may be processed either peripherally (shallowly) or centrally (in a more thorough manner). Central processing tends to have a more long-lasting effect than peripheral processing, although both can alter attitude at least temporarily.

A: Expectancy-value theory deals with the prediction of behavior, not attitude change. In particular, it posits that individuals consider both the chance and the value of success when making decisions.

B: This answer relates to childhood development, not the routes of processing associated with attitude change.

D: Drive reduction theory relates to motivation.

Question 23

Which statement below does NOT accurately describe cognitive dissonance?

A. It tends to produce significant discomfort until resolved.
B. It can only be addressed by altering behavior.
C. It often leads to effort justification.
D. In typical individuals, it does not persist for an entire lifetime.

Answer 23

B is correct. For this “NOT” question, we are looking for a choice that does not fit with the concept of cognitive dissonance. In this psychological phenomenon, a person holds multiple conflicting attitudes or acts in a manner that is inconsistent with a personal belief. This conflict leads to high levels of stress and anxiety until resolved. While this resolution may involve the altering of behavior to match one’s attitudes, it can also entail a change in attitude to better align with behavior.

C: Effort justification occurs when an individual works hard to achieve a particular goal, then values that goal more highly in an attempt to feel as though the effort was worthwhile. This is often observed in conjunction with, or as a result of, cognitive dissonance.

D: This statement is true. Since cognitive dissonance is an uncomfortable state, most individuals resolve it relatively quickly.

Question 24

All of the following situations correctly relate to factors that may affect attitude or attitude change EXCEPT:

A.a newly hired prison guard, influenced by role-playing, who begins to feel suspicious of minorities.

B. a priest who was raised by progressive parents but begins to adopt homophobic sentiments after publically condemning gay marriage.

C. a woman, influenced by role-playing, who recently took a job as a maid and began to feel shame about having grown up in poverty.

D. a woman who still drives a thirty-year-old car, even though it breaks down every year, because she justifies the effort and money she has put into its maintenance.

Answer 24

C is correct. Role-playing is simply the adaptation of one’s behavior to fit a role, often for an educational or training purpose. It can also occur when one’s behavior, as dictated by social position or employment, has an influential effect on one’s attitude. In this scenario, the woman’s new role as a maid has no clear relation to her feelings of shame about her childhood poverty. There is no explicit connection between being a maid and feeling shame.

A: Prisons are frequently divided on racial lines; additionally, prison populations consist of disproportionate numbers of minorities. It is thus possible that an initially unbiased prison guard could begin to adopt racial stereotypes, since his role as a guard requires constant suspicion of prisoners.

B: Here, a public declaration affects this priest’s attitude. When individuals make such public statements, they tend to be more prone to act in an according manner, as they wish to avoid being seen as hypocritical.

D: This situation exemplifies the justification of effort, a factor that can certainly impact one’s attitude.

Question 25

Of the pairings below, which properly matches the type of learning with the broader category in which it is placed?

A. Operant conditioning – a type of observational learning
B. Classical conditioning – a type of operant conditioning
C. Muscle fatigue – a type of nonassociative learning
D. Sensitization – a type of nonassociative learning

Answer 25

D is correct. Sensitization is defined as an increase in the magnitude of a response after repeated exposures to the same stimulus. It is one of the two major types of nonassociative learning.

A, B: Both operant conditioning and classical conditioning are distinct types of associative learning.

C: Muscle fatigue is not a form of learning.

Question 26

Mirror neurons are thought to play a direct role in:

I. empathy.

II. motivation.

III. observational learning.

IV. identity formation.

A. I only
B. IV only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and IV only

Answer 26

C is correct. Mirror neurons, located in various regions of the parietal and frontal lobes, are hypothesized to be involved in observational learning. They are also thought to play a role in empathy and the perception of vicarious emotions, or the emotions that we experience when we perceive others to be feeling them.

II, IV: Mirror neurons do not play a known role in either motivation or the formation of personal identity.

Question 27

Aplysia californica is a species of sea hare that was extensively studied by Eric Kandel in his experiments on habituation. One member of this species is tapped repeatedly with a pencil; each time, it pulls both its gills and siphon (a body part resembling a tube) away from the researcher. If the scientists wish to diminish this response, they should:

A. shock the animal, then tap it again.
B. continue tapping the animal after fixed intervals of time.
C. wait two days, then tap the animal again.
D. tap the animal in a different place to promote dishabituation.

Answer 27

B is correct. The scientists want to diminish, or reduce, the animal’s response to the tapping stimulus. Habituation is a decrease in response after the same stimulus is administered multiple times. To accomplish their goal, the scientists simply need to continue tapping the sea hare in exactly the same way until the response becomes habituated.

A, C: Both of these activities would likely promote dishabituation, or the return of a previously strong response to a stimulus. The scientists want to accomplish the opposite of this effect.

D: Again, the researchers are trying to stimulate habituation, not dishabituation.

Question 28

A guest speaker in Davy’s social studies class uses the word “basically” multiple times in every sentence. At first, Davy doesn’t notice it, but after about ten minutes, each new utterance of the word “basically” makes him grind his teeth and feel frustrated. How can this phenomenon best be categorized?

A. It is a type of learning, but it is not associative.
B. It is a type of learning, but it is not nonassociative.
C. It is a type of observational learning.
D. It is not a type of learning at all.

Answer 28

A is correct. The process occurring here is sensitization, or an increase in response after repeated exposures to the same stimulus. Both sensitization and its opposite process, habituation, are types of nonassociative learning.

B: This would imply that this situation exemplifies associative learning, in which a more complex connection is established between multiple stimuli or between a stimulus and a response. Associative learning includes phenomena like classical and operant conditioning.

C: Observational learning involves watching others and mimicking their behavior.

D: Learning can be either associative or, as in this example, nonassociative.

Question 29

All of the following techniques can be used to solve a complex problem EXCEPT:

A. using a heuristic.
B. using trial and error.
C. using the method of loci.
D. using an algorithm.

Answer 29

C is correct. Problem solving is a complex psychological process with the goal of finding a solution to an issue, usually one requiring multi-step logic or reasoning. The method of loci is a technique used for memorization, not problem solving.

A: Heuristics are mental shortcuts that can be very helpful when solving problems.

B: The trial-and-error approach, in which various attempts are made to resolve the issue in different ways, is a classic type of problem solving.

D: An algorithm is a series of steps developed to solve a specific problem.

Question 30

All of the following choices accurately describe a conditioned stimulus EXCEPT:

A. as an event or object that was previously neutral to the subject.

B. as a stimulus that eventually elicits the same response as the unconditioned stimulus.

C. as something that produces a response that may eventually undergo extinction.

D. as a stimulus that causes an innate reaction in the subject.

Answer 30

D is correct. It is unconditioned, not conditioned, stimuli that naturally evoke reactions in the subjects involved.

A: This is correct. Neutral stimuli eventually become conditioned through pairing with unconditioned stimuli.

B: This is also correct. For example, think of Pavlov’s dogs. After pairing a bell with the presentation of food for an extended time, the bell alone was able to elicit the response of salivation in the dogs.

C: This is accurate. Any conditioned response may become extinct if it is presented without a reinforcing (unconditioned) stimulus for a sufficient amount of time.

Question 31

A child learns to associate the multicolored stars given by her teacher with candy and praise. At first, her heart rate and breathing increase whenever she sees any star-shaped stickers. Later, the teacher begins to use only blue stars, and the child stops responding to star stickers of any other color. This situation best relates to:

A. negative reinforcement.
B. stimulus discrimination.
C. stimulus generalization.
D. shaping.

Answer 31

B is correct. Stimulus discrimination is the process in which a conditioned stimulus becomes more specific. Here, the child initially responds to all star-shaped stickers, but after a period in which praise and candy are paired only with a specific subset of stickers (blue ones), she starts responding to blue stickers alone.

Question 32

Which of the following type(s) of learning would NOT be categorized as associative?

I. Operant conditioning
II. Sensitization
III. Classical conditioning
IV. Extinction learning

A. II only
B. IV only
C. I and II only
D. II and IV only

Answer 32

A is correct. In associative learning, a connection is formed between multiple distinct stimuli or between a stimulus and a response. Operant and classical conditioning are classic examples of this form of learning, so C can be eliminated. Sensitization is a phenomenon in which repeated exposures to the same stimulus provoke increased responses. Like its opposite, habituation, it is a type of non-associative learning.

IV: Extinction learning is not a type of learning at all.

Question 33

When referring to classical conditioning, extinction always involves:

A. an unconditioned stimulus becoming conditioned.
B. a conditioned stimulus becoming unconditioned.
C. a conditioned stimulus becoming neutral.
D. an unconditioned stimulus becoming neutral.

Answer 33

C is correct. Extinction is the loss of a previously conditioned response. In other words, an extinct response is one that ceases to occur when the stimulus is presented, generally because the connection between the two is no longer being reinforced. A perfect way to describe this process is that a conditioned stimulus is reverting back to a neutral one.

A, B: An unconditioned stimulus can never convert to a conditioned one, and vice versa.

D: An unconditioned stimulus is innately reinforcing, and would never be able to revert to being neutral.

Question 34

A yoga instructor teaches a class of adult students. When about to transition into the most difficult, physically exhausting part of the class, she always looks around at the students and says “You got this!” Unfortunately, the students soon begin to hyperventilate and become very nervous whenever they hear the phrase “You got this!” In this anecdote:

A. the phrase “You got this!” is an aversive primary reinforcer.

B. the physical pain produced by the exercises is an aversive secondary reinforcer.

C. the students’ nervousness and hyperventilation is an unconditioned response.

D. the teacher’s action of looking around and saying “You got this!” is a conditioned stimulus.

Answer 34

D is correct. The phrase “You got this!” is initially neutral, or even slightly positively reinforcing. Over time, however, the students begin to associate the phrase with upcoming pain and difficulty, making them respond with nervous behavior. At this point, “You got this!” has become conditioned.

A: Primary reinforcers are naturally desirable or undesirable, like food, water and pain. The phrase “You got this!” is not innately reinforcing, and certainly not naturally aversive.

B: Pain is naturally aversive to virtually all people, making it a primary reinforcer. Unlike secondary reinforcers, primary reinforcers are rewarding or aversive on their own, not as a result of associative learning.

Question 35

A fifth-grade teacher visits all of the desks in her classroom every twenty minutes, giving each student a sticker only if he or she is focusing on her work. Which reinforcement schedule does this situation involve?

A. Variable-ratio
B. Fixed-ratio
C. Fixed-interval
D. Variable-interval

Answer 35

C is correct. The teacher rewards the behaving students after certain amounts of time, not a certain number of desired responses, making this either a fixed-interval or a variable-interval schedule. Since she checks in after regular twenty-minute time periods, it must be fixed-interval.

Question 36

In which situation would a variable-interval schedule be significantly more effective than a continuous reinforcement schedule?

A. A choir director wants to motivate her singers to practice on their own, and must do so as rapidly as possible.

B. A professional equestrian needs to train her horse to complete a complicated series of steps for an upcoming show.

C. A researcher wishes to teach rats to press a button as many times as possible in one minute, but does not care how long the training process takes.

D. A dog trainer wants her poodles to continue obeying commands, even during long shows when they are not allowed to be given rewards.

Answer 36

D is correct. For the dogs must continue responding even after they stop receiving rewards, the reinforcement schedule must be resistant to extinction. Variable-interval schedules are much more resistant than continuous ones, since the unpredictable nature of the original rewards allow the animal to continue expecting them, even after long stretches in which no reinforcement is given.

A: Continuous reinforcement promotes faster learning than any other schedule, so this is backwards.

B: This situation relates more to shaping than to either reinforcement schedule mentioned in the question. Shaping is used to teach complex behaviors by reinforcing simple steps, then gradually building upon them to produce more complicated actions.

C: This researcher simply wants to produce the greatest possible number of responses, which is more likely with continuous reinforcement than with a variable-interval schedule.

Question 37

One difference between operant and classical conditioning is that operant conditioning:

A. involves the activity of mirror neurons.

B. can either increase or decrease the frequency of voluntary actions.

C. is most commonly associated with the experiments of Ivan Pavlov.

D. uses associative learning to pair a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned one.

Answer 37

B is correct. Classical conditioning involves involuntary actions, while operant conditioning involves conscious, voluntary ones.

A: Mirror neurons are most strongly related to observational learning, not operant (or classical) conditioning.

C, D: These describe classical conditioning.

Question 38

If you complete all of your daily MCAT studying before 6pm, your mother makes your little sister do all of the household chores instead of you. Your mother is using which technique to motivate you to study?

A. Negative reinforcement
B. Negative punishment
C. Positive punishment
D. Positive reinforcement

Answer 38

A is correct. Questionable ethics aside, your mother is trying to increase the frequency of your studying behavior, meaning that she must be using some form of reinforcement. Since something aversive (chores) is being taken away, this situation exemplifies negative reinforcement. Specifically, it falls into the category of avoidance learning.

Question 39

Which of the following scenarios is most closely related to extinction?

A. A child is constantly praised as he learns to ride a bike, but grows tired of the attention and stops trying as hard.

B. A circus elephant who was just bought by a new owner sometimes responds to his old name.

C. A seventh-grader is punished by his parents for using crude language, but continues to do so because it amuses his friends.

D. A teenager used to practice the piano every night but slowly stops when his family members stop complimenting his musical ability.

Answer 39

D is correct. Extinction occurs when a certain behavior used to be reinforced or punished, but no longer is. This results in the frequency of the behavior gradually returning to its original level. In this case, the teenager used to practice the piano more frequently due to the reinforcement (compliments) that he received. When this reinforcement ceases, he decreases the behavior.

A: This is not extinction, since the child is still receiving reinforcement (praise) but simply chooses to decrease his bike-riding.

B: This situation relates more to spontaneous recovery, in which a behavior (responding to a previous name) sometimes reappears even after it has been extinguished.

C: This is not extinction, since the child is still being punished. Instead, he continues the behavior because he is also receiving reinforcement (amusement / approval) from his friends.