Biological Psychology Flashcards
(259 cards)
1
Q
how to neurons send messages?
A
through synaptic transmission, neurotransmitters are released from one neuron and attach to another neuron which initiates a reaction that results in post synaptic potentials
2
Q
what is a synapse?
A
The junction between two neurons, between the terminal buttons and membrane
3
Q
what is the CNS?
A
consist of the brain and spinal cord
4
Q
what is the peripheral nervous system?
A
the rest of body (besides spinal cord and brain), nerves: motor pathways and sensory pathways
5
Q
what is the cerebrum?
A
the largest part of the brain, responsible for most of our conscious activities - divided into two hemispheres, and further into 4 lobes
6
Q
what is the cerebellum?
A
a major structure of the hindbrain located at the back of the brain beneath the cerebrum, vital functions for movement, coordination and potentially other cognitive processes
7
Q
what is the brain stem?
A
located at the base of the skull, connecting the brain to the spinal cord, critical for survival and overall brain function
8
Q
what does Ipsilateral mean?
A
means “on the same side” of the body
9
Q
what is the anterior (rostral) anatomical direction for the brain?
A
towards the front of the brain
10
Q
what is the posterior (caudal) anatomical direction for the brain?
A
towards the back of the brain
11
Q
what is the superior (dorsal) anatomical direction for the brain?
A
toward the top of the brain
12
Q
what is the inferior (ventral) anatomical direction for the brain?
A
toward the bottom of the brain
13
Q
what is the coronal plane of the brain?
A
Coronal: A plane that divides the brain into front and back sections.
14
Q
what is the sagittal plane of the brain?
A
Sagittal: A plane that divides the brain into left and right sections.
15
Q
what is the horizontal (axial) plane of the brain?
A
Horizontal (Axial): A plane that divides the brain into upper and lower sections.
16
Q
what is the grey and white matter of the brain?
A
the grey matter are cell bodies and dendrites e.g. cortex, basal ganglia and thalamus- where most of brains info processing occurs, the white matter is myelinated axons e.g. the corpus callosum (pathway connects hemispheres) - communication network
17
Q
what is the corpus callosum?
A
A pathway that connects left and right side of hemisphere, its the largest fiber bundle that connects the 2 hemispheres of the brain
18
Q
what is the meninges?
A
Are a set of 3 membranes that cover and protect the brain and spinal cord (CNS)
19
Q
what is cerebrospinal fluid?
A
CFS: is a clear fluid that surrounds and protects the brain +spinal cord that fills the subarachnoid (between 2 layers of meninges), it functions as a shock absorber and buoyancy
20
Q
what is the ventricular system?
A
: is a network of interconnected cavities filled with cerebrospinal fluid within the brain, the lateral ventricals (2, connected to 3rd, contains membrane - choroid pleus that produces CSF), 3rd ventricle(centre of brain) , 4th ventricle(between brain stem and cerebellum).
They function to exchange materials between blood vessels and brain tissue
21
Q
what is the blood-brain barrier?
A
: is a semipermeable border, allows lipid soluble substances to pass, that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid. substances w/ large molecules (glucose) must be actively transported through walls. it maintains a stable environment, protection from distruptive/damaging chemicals
22
Q
what is the cerebral cortex?
A
: the outer surface of cerebrum (3mm), its folded to allow a bigger surface area (more neurons)
23
Q
what are the different features of the cerebral cortex?
A
sucli - clefts/cracks/grooves, fissures - major grooves, gyri - folds/bulges
24
Q
what are the 4 lobes of the brain?
A
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital
25
where is the frontal lobe of the brain?
The anterior area of the cortex, rostral to parietal lobe, dorsal to temporal lobe, divided from parietal by the central sulcus
26
where is the frontal lobe of the brain?
The 'wall', caudal to frontal lobe, dorsal to temporal lobe
27
where is the temporal lobe of the brain?
rostral to occipital lobe, ventral to parietal + frontal lobes
28
where is the occipital lobe of the brain?
its caudal to parietal and temporal lobes
29
what is the main sucli and gyrus?
the central suclus, precentral gyrus and post central gyrus, underneath is the sylvian fissure/lateral fissure
30
where are the primary areas?
primary motor cortex - in the frontal lobe, in precentral gyrus
primary somatosensory cortex - in parietal lobe
primary auditory cortex - temporal lobe
primary visual cortex - occipital lobe
31
what is the basal ganglia?
: are a group of structures(collection of nuclei) located deep within brain, important for motor control and reward systems
32
what can lesions in basal ganglia cause?
: disorders such as parkinsons and huntingtons
33
what are the 3 main structures of the basal ganglia?
the caudate nucleus= motor control, learning + memory, the putamen = motor control, the global pallidus - regulating motor output
34
whats the striatum?
a major component of the basal ganglia thats composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen
35
what is the limbic system?
network of structures that play role in emotional, behavioural, learning/memory and motivational processes
36
what are the key structures of the limbic system?
the amygdala: 'almond', in the temporal lobe, role in processing emotions
the hippocampus: 'sea horse', in temporal lobe, regulates some bodily functions
the fornix: 'arch'
limbic cortex
mammillary bodies: 'breast shaped'
37
what was the classic case study on H.M. on spatial navigation and the association to the hippocampus?
had procedure to treat epilepsy, removed some of temporal lobe (hippocampus), experienced side effect of amnesia, emphasising the role of the hippocampus in spatial memory and navigation
38
what is the diencephalon?
is the second division of forebrain/prosencephalon, serves as relay + processing center for sensory + motor signals + role in some autonomic functions
39
what are the two main components of the diencephalon?
- in forebrain
the thalamus: inner chamber, receives sensory info from and sends info to the cerebral cortex
the hypothalamus: under thalamus, control center for bodily functions (body temp. appetite etc) and is connected to pituitary gland
40
what is the mesencephalon?
the midbrain, crucial part of brainstem, involved in motor control (coordination, movement and reward) , sensory processing and eye movements
41
what are the key structures of the mesencephalon?
the tectum "roof", the dorsal part of midbrain composed of superioir colliculi involved in visual processing + eye movements and the inferior colliculi involved in auditory processing
the tegmentum "covering" is the ventral part, containing structures such as red nucleus/substantia niara, reticular formation
42
what is the rhombencephalon?
the hind brain, is the most caudal part of brainstem, crucial for vital functions/movement and sensory processing
43
what are the key components of the rhombencephalon?
the metencephalin - subdivision which consists of:
pons(bridge) : involved in sleep + arousal, relays info from cortex to cerebellum which is important for coordination of movement
Myelencephalon: another subdivision which contains the medulla oblongata "oblong marror" - regulation of cardiovascular system, respiration and skeletal muscle tonus
44
what are sensory neurons?
responsible for transmitting info from the periphery of the body to the CNS
45
what are interneurons?
they link sensory and motor neurons
46
what are motor neurons?
:are the nerve cells responsible for transmitting signals from the CNS to muscles, organs and glands - thereby controlling their activity
47
what is the soma part of a neuron?
The cell body, which contains the nucleus
48
what are the dendrites?
the part of the neuron that recieves messages (dendron - tree)
49
what is the axon part of a neuron?
This carries info (action potential) from the soma to terminal buttons
50
what is the myelin sheath?
This wraps around the axon (long branch of neuron)
51
what are the terminal buttons?
the part of the cell at the end of the axon branch
52
what are glial cells?
these are the supporting cells of the nervous system, primarily providing structural and metabolic support to neurons. there are several types, each w/ specific functions:
astrocytes: regulating chemical envir around neurons
oligodendrocytes - in CNS: produces the myelin sheath that insulates axons
microglia: resident immune cells of the CNS
= they provide support, waste services, supply nutrients and chemicals
53
what is node of ranvier?
a small gap or interruption in the myelin sheath covering the axons, play rolle in rapid conduction of nerve impulses. they signf increase speed of signal transmission
54
How does transmission within a neuron occur?
this is an electrical process, all cells have an electrical charge - more negative than on the outside, neuron recieves strong stimulus triggering change in membrane potential (action potential)
55
In what way do the neuron's process info in the INFORMATION-PROCESSING STAGES IN primary visual pathway?
info processing is hierarchical, meaning at each stage of the sequence the neurons come to code more and more complex components of visual info,
e.g. the photo receptors (light), then the bipolar cells to retinol ganglion cells so on.
56
who are the two key figures who made seminal contributions to our understanding of visual info processing?
david hubel and thorsten wiesel who developed experimental set up approach to record visual responses of neurons along visual pathway, awarded nobel prize in physiology or medicine 1981
57
what are photoreceptors?
:specialised cells found in the retina of the eye that are responsible for converting light into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain, they're the foundation of our sense of sight, they (and bipolar cells) vary their voltage as stimulated - all subsequent cells vary spike rat. the receptors detection of light is translated into excitation or inhibition of retinal ganglion cells via bipolar cells
58
What are the 2 types of photoreceptors?
rods and cones
59
what are rods?
: a type of photoreceptor, highly sensitive to light, dont distinguish colours , peripheral vision and detecting motion, more abundant (120 million in human retina)
60
what are cones?
:type of photoreceptor, function best in bright conditions, central vision, sharpness and colour vision, less abundant (6 million in human retina).
there are 3 types of cones - each sensitive to diff wavelengths of light - red (L), blue (S), and green (M)
61
what is a receptive field?
this is the portion of the retina/visual field in which visual stimulation will evoke a change in the firing rate of a given visual neuron
62
what is the substructure of a receptive field?
this is a description of how visual stimuli need to be presented in the receptive field of a visual neuron in order to evoke firing-rate changes
63
what are retinal ganglion cells?
The 3rd stage of info-processing stages in primary visual pathways. they recieve input from multiple photoreceptors via bipolar cells which either excitate or inhibi them, they have sub structures: ON-OFF regions organised in centre-surround receptive fields. when light is presented to ON regions excites the cell, to OFF regions inhibits the cell. these cells have a baseline firing rate and show a rebound effect
64
what happens to the firing rate of retinal ganglion cells when visual stimulus is presented to either the ON-OFF regions?
When visual stimulus is presented in off surround region - firing rate goes down
When taken away - goes up again, the opposite effect when presented to on centre surround (rate goes up), if both regions are evenly lit theres no firing rate change.
the response rates of cell is based on the sum of stimulation in ON region stimulation minus stimulation in OFF region = leads to enhancement of contrast and boundaries
65
what role do retinal ganglion cells have in colour vision
they process and transmit colour info from photoreceptors, do this as they have receptive fields that show centre-surround colour opponency (yellow on/blue off, blue on/yellow off, red on/green off, green on/red off)
66
how can negative after images be explained?
by the colour opponency in retinal ganglion cells together with firing-rate adaptation (rebound effects)
67
what is the lateral geniculate body?
the 5th stage of the information-processing stages in the primary visual pathway. receives info from the optic nerve and passes on to the primary visual cortex. also colour sensitive neurons have receptive fields that show centre-surround colour opponency
68
where is the primary visual cortex in the brain?
sits around the calcarine fissure in the occipital lobe between the hemispheres
69
what are orientation-selective cells in V1?
cells in the primary visual cortex (V1) are neurons that respond best to lines, bars or edges of a certain orientation, this means they dont respond as well to lines of an orthogonal orientation.
most V1 neurons respond to elongated stimuli w/ specific orientation
70
what are the 2 main types of orientation-sensitive V1 neurons?
simple cells: their fields have inhibitory and excitatory regions, they can be thought of as combining inputs from ON and OFF cells
complex cells: have no discrete ON and OFF regions, best response to moving stimuli (reflecting response adaptation) and can be thought of as combining inputs from simple cells
71
What is the key map in the V1 (pvc)?
crucial for processing visual information, the retinotopic map is a spatial map that preserves the spatial relationships of objects in the visual fields.
neighbouring points in the visual field are represented by neighbouring neurons in V1
72
what are the modules in V1 (PVC)?
the V1 is divided into small columnar modules that combine neurons sensitive to different aspects of stimuli presented in a small part of the visual field
73
what did Darwin study in order to identify the evolutionary role of adaptive radiation?
Foraging in different finch species.
74
where did darwin visit in 1835 and what did he bring back with him?
the galapagos islands (ecuador), geologically young islands with a high number of endemic species, he took back samples of mockingbirds between islands
75
what does 'endemic species' mean?
large number of species native to a large area/region - evolve in isolation and therefore unique to their environment
76
what is functionalism in darwins theory of evolution?
Characteristics of an organism has a useful function - all for survival
To understand physiological basis of various behaviours (how), we must first understand what these behaviours accomplish (why)
77
what is adaptive radiation?
evolutionary factor -
Single species rapidly evolves into multiple new species to match survival
Little competition and diverse resources (e.g. islands)
78
what is darwins example of adaptive radiation?
finches
- Common ancestor first arrives.
- Different islands have different resources.
- Natural selection – beak shapes to food source.
- Over time, multiple new species evolved.
79
what are humans closest living relatives?
chimpanzees, gorillas and orangutangs
- dna - very little differences between all
- humans + chimpanzees share almost 99% of dna
80
what is a hominid and when did it first appear?
theyre humanlike apes that appeared in africa - the first to leave around 1.7 million years ago
81
what % of the body is the human brain?
2.3%
82
what % of the body is the elephant brain?
0.2%
83
what % of the body is the shrew brain?
3.3%
84
does the size of the brain matter?
no, neurons and complexity are key
85
what is the human function; Bipedalism?
Mobility, energy efficiency and adaptability.
86
what is 'neoteny'?
NEOTENY - slowing of maturation, allowing for time for growth, important for large brain and complexity
- Not all neurons are coded at birth, allowing for learning based on environment
87
how many grams is the weight of human brain at birth to adult?
- Human brain weight for a neonatal = 350g
Adult human brain = 1400g
88
what is clayton 1998 study on the role of the hippocampus?
role in learning + memory
- Within birds and mammals - hippocampal volume is enlarged in food storing species.
- Hippocampus can change size in response to experience.
89
what is the game theory? and by whom?
Von Neumann & Morgenstern
Mathematical model of strategic decisions.
- Analysis of outcomes based on their own decisions and other players decision.
- No control on others’ decision.
90
who applied the game theory (Von Neumann & Morgenstern) to evolution strategies?
Maynard Smith & Price
- Applied in understanding evolution strategies.
- Evolutionary Stable Strategies (ESS) and Price Equation.
1973 - the logic of animal conflict
91
what is the hawk-dove game?
classic model in evolutionary game theory - analyzes the behavior of two individuals competing for a shared resource.
aim = find the Evolutionary Stable Strategy (ESS)
92
what is the Evolutionary Stable Strategy (ESS)?
strategy that, if adopted by a population, cannot be invaded by a rare mutant strategy.
93
give a summary of what the game theory demonstrates:
- The trade-offs between aggression and passivity in competition.
- mixed strategy of aggression and passivity = evolutionarily stable under certain conditions.
- pure strategies (always Hawk or always Dove) = not always stable, especially when fighting is costly relative to the resource value.
94
what is altruism?
behaviour at a cost to oneself but benefit to others (fehr and fischbacher 2003)
95
what is kin selection?
altruism towards relatives (favors reproductive success of organism's relatives, even at cost to the organism's own survival and reproduction)
= animal's genes can be passed on not just through its own offspring, but also by helping its relatives survive and reproduce, as they share a proportion of the same genes.
96
what is hamiltons rule related to kins selection?
hamilton 1963:
rB>C
= (r = genetic relatedness, B = benefit to recipient and C = cost to altruist’s fitness)
= Hamilton's Rule suggests that altruistic behavior is more likely to evolve when the benefit to the related recipient, weighted by the degree of relatedness, outweighs the cost to the altruist.
97
what are the two mechanisms non-kin altruism is based on?
1) Reciprocal altruism (Trivers, 1971)
- Benefits will be reciprocated in a similar situation.
2) Group Selection
- More cooperation – helps dominate selfish groups.
98
what is depolarization and hyperpolarization?
changes in a cell's membrane potential, particularly important in nerve and muscle cells for transmitting signals.
D= inside of a cell becomes less negative (or even positive) compared to its resting state.
- electrical charge difference decreases
H= inside of a cell becomes more negative compared to its resting state. The electrical charge difference across the membrane increases
99
what is propagation?
The action potential is transmitted down an axon via propagation
The action potential is regenerated at points along the axon due to entry of sodium ions at the neighbouring point (a bit like a chain of dominos falling)
100
what is salatory conduction?
saltare = "to jump"
the way action potentials travel down the axon that has a myelin sheath, AP regenerated along axon at nodes of randier
= fast conduction
= more energy efficient
101
what is 'binding' in the process of transmission between neurons?
neurotransmitter binds to binding site on post-synaptic membrane (lock and key)
102
what does the postsynaptic potential depend on?
on which channel (locj) is opened:
EPSP = excitatory postsynaptic potential
IPSP = inhibitory postsynaptic potential
103
what are the 3 Type of ion channels and the PSP they determine?
Sodium (Na+) influx: Leads to influx of p+ = depolarization (EPSP).
Potassium (K+) efflux: = hyperpolarization (IPSP).
Chloride (Cl-) influx: lead to hyperpolarization (IPSP)
104
what are the two main types of receptors found of the postsynaptic neurons?
Ionic and metabotropic receptors
105
what are Ionic receptors?
Contains a binding site and an ion channel
= this opens when molecule attaches to binding site
106
what are metabotropic receptors?
Contains a binding site,
= Initiates a chain reaction that eventually opens ion channels, requires energy
PSPs slower than those produced by ionotropic receptors
107
what is neural integration?
process by which neurons combine and process multiple synaptic inputs to generate a single output signal, typically an action potential
EXCITATORY: increases likelihood of neuron firing
INHIBITORY: decreases likelihood
INTEGRATION: summation of PSPs in control of neuron firing
108
what does inhibition of inhibitory neurons lead to?
more likelihood of behaviour
109
what does excitation of inhibitory neurons lead to?
less likelihood of behaviour
110
what happens to the visual info from modules in V1 to result in perception/memory?
the visual info needs to be combined and further processed which takes place in the visual association cortices (V2-V5, inferior temporal cortex, posterior parietal cortex) and other regions
111
what does it mean to say the stages of visual info processing exhibits functional differentation?
means that each distinct stage of processing within our visual system is specialized for a different and specific function
w/ different neuron types of different brain regions processing different properties of visual stimuli
112
what is the extrastriate cortex?
encompasses all the visual cortical areas outside of the striate cortex (V1). These areas are crucial for higher-level visual processing and are organized in a hierarchical and parallel manner.
Neurons in this cortex signal 'global' properties of visual scenes and objects, rather than 'component' properties - v3, v5
113
what is colour constancy?
ability of our visual system to perceive the colour of an object as remaining relatively constant under varying illumination conditions
114
How does the colour sensitivity of some neurons in V4 differ from that of neurons in the primary visual pathway and V2, according to the text?
Some neurons in V4 are 'colour-sensitive', meaning their response to wavelengths in their receptive field's center depends on the wavelengths reflected from the background. Neurons in the primary visual pathway and V2 are only 'wavelength' sensitive.
115
what is the distinction between global/pattern motion vs component motion?
Two different ways of perceiving or processing motion in the visual system:
Global/pattern motion: refers to the perception of the overall, coherent movement of a group of elements or an entire object
Component motion: refers to the perfection of the individual movements of the elements that make up a moving object or pattern
116
what are the 2 visual information processing streams in the extrastriate cortex?
DORSAL STREAM: goes up (dorsally) into parietal lobe
- More to do with spatial and mortor processing - visuomotor/visual-spatial
- WHERE/HOW
VENTRAL STREAM:
- Goes down ventral pathway (ventrally) to inferior temporal cortex
- Object analysis = recognition
WHAT
117
what is mishkin and underleider evidence for the 2 visual information processing streams (ventral/dorsal)?
using monkeys, had monkey doing tasks relying on visual info processing
1st - to remember objects then pick correct for reward
2nd - animal to look close to location of object for reward
= found object task was impaired by lesions to inferioir temporal lobe (ventral)
= posterior parietal lesions - dorsal stream - impaired object locations but not other task
118
what type of visual info does the ventral stream process? (according to milner and goodale)
the ventral stream processes visual info for object perception (what)
119
what type of visual info does the dorsal stream process? (according to milner and goodale)
the dorsal stream processes visual info for visuo-spatially guided action (how)
120
what was milner and goodales evidence for what type of visual info the ventral and dorsal streams process?
patients w/ occipito-temporal brain damage (ventral pathway) show severe forms of visual agnosia (i.e. deficits in aspects of visual perception without blindness),
but intact visually guided actions
whereas patients w/ posterior-parietal lobe (dorsal pathway) lesions show optic ataxia (i.e. deficits in visually guided reaching) w/ otherwise relatively intact visual function
121
what is visual agnosia?
Visual agnosia is a neurological condition characterized by the inability to recognize objects, people, places, or other visual stimuli despite having intact visual sensory processing
122
what is optic ataxia?
Optic ataxia is a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to accurately reach for or point to objects under visual guidance, despite having intact visual acuity, eye movements, and strength
123
who was patient DF and what evidence did they provide for visual info processing in dorsal/ventral pathways?
patient DF w/ extensive bilateral ventral-stream lesions has profound visual agnosia - but shows intact visually guided reaching
DF can act on visual stimulus (e.g. visuomotor posting) but is unable to make perceptual judgments (e.g. perceptual orientation matching)
124
what is the inferior temporal cortex contribution to visual info processing?
The inferior temporal cortex receives inputs from extrastriate cortex and forms the final stage in the visual processing hierarchy of the ventral stream
- Neurons in the cortex can response very selectively to specific shapes and objects
= responses show: invariance to change in size, orientation etc
(neurons recognise object regardless of viewpoint)
125
where and what are 'face cells' in the brain?
neurons in the inferior temporal lobe which show highly selective responses to individual faces
= hypothetical neurons at end of processing hierarchy that 'recognize' individual entities
126
what is the medial temporal lobes role in the visual info processing stages?
further processing and multimodal integration at the end of the higherarchy, combining inputs from both visual streams + other sensory modalities - such as:
-complex spatial reps
- multimodal reps of experiences
127
what are gyri in the brain?
Gyri (singular: gyrus) are the ridges or folds on the surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum in the brain.
128
what are sulcus in the brain?
Sulci (singular: sulcus): These are the grooves or depressions – the valleys or indentations that lie between the gyri. They separate the ridges.
gyri
/\/\/\/\
sulci
129
what is the longitudinal fissure in the brain?
he longitudinal fissure is the deep groove that runs along the midline of the brain, separating the left and right cerebral hemispheres.
130
what are fissures in the brain?
essentially very deep and prominent sulci (grooves or depressions) on the surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum.
131
what are the 3 main categories that contribute to an emotional response?
- behavioural
- autonomic
- hormonal
= emotional response
132
what are the 7 basic emotions according to Ekman?
anger, disgust, fear, surprise, happiness, sadness, contempt
133
what was ekmans main conclusion about basic emotions? is this supported?
Ekman says - Basic emotions are universal (present in all human societies) and do not need to be learned.
- happy stimuli recognised consistently
- fear and anger confused
- surprise and fear confused
= not as universal as he claimed
134
what is gendrin et al 2014 criticism to Ekmans approach of basic emotions?
tested this on the Himba tribe in Namibia.
Task: Sort face pictures into piles – no labels given:
“Happy” and “Fearful” consistently recognised.
But not Sadness, Disgust and Anger.
135
how many fuzzy categories of emotion did cowen and keltner 2017 identify?
27
136
sorenson 1975 failed to replicate ekmans study on basic emotions when using..?
free labelling
137
who was ekmans studys on basic emotions funded by? why is this an issue?
DARPA (Defence Advanced Research Projects Agency).
= has some 'interesting' research it funds
=they were more interested in using this research for deception detection for defence purposes
138
what was the tool that ekman developed for lie detection?
METT - Micro-expression Training Tool
Ekman’s theory for METT was that people show fleeting expressions of “felt emotions.”
So, when people attempt to mask, emotions consistent with their “actual state” will appear briefly as some facial muscles are difficult to control.
139
what emotions are viewd as empirically established and by what % of emotion researchers?
80-90%
anger, fear, disgust, sadness and happiness
= importance for survival is relatively clear
140
what are said to be the 2 extreme positions in the brain for basic emotion?
the frontal lobe area = anger centre
the temporal lobe area = fear centre
= BUT compelling evidence these extreme positions are wrong
141
what is the view that emotions are distributed representations in brain networks?
view changing from centres in brain to emotions as dynamic, distributed representations in brain networks: such as:
arousal + fear - amygdala
valence + anger- orbitofrontal cortex
happiness - dorsal anterior cingulate
sadness - subgenual anterior cingulate
disgust - anterior insula
142
how does the amygdala act as a fear brain area?
takes in info from primary sensory cortices, thalamys and association cortices = amydala stimulation = behavioural test or sign of fear or anxiety such as: increased startle/facia; expressions of fear/ freezing etc
143
what are the 3 main areas - curzon et al 2009 - associated with fear indicated by cued fear conditioning and extinction?
Amygdala – Fear Response
Hippocampus – Association between CS and CR
Frontal / PFC – Attention/ Conscious Control.
144
what is Cognitive reappraisal?
Cognitive reappraisal is a cognitive emotion regulation strategy that involves changing the way one thinks about a situation to alter its emotional impact.
145
what areas of the brain are important for voluntary control over amygdala activation?
Anterior Insula (AI), Anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) and PFC (lateral and medial)
146
what were the findings of oschner et als 2002 study on cognitive appraisal?
Participants were asked to reappraise negative images.
E.g., crying in grief – change meaning – crying with joy.
Decreased activation in amgydala and increased activation in PFC (lateral and medial).
= provides evidence for voluntary control over amygdala activation
147
what is schizophrenia, and how many ppl does it affect?
Considered to be a type of psychosis; a loss of contact with reality
A "split mind", a break in reality
-affects approx 1:300 people (=24 million)
- Onset is most often during adolescence and 20s
148
what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
- hallucinations
- thought disorder
- delusions; persecution, grandeur, control
149
what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
- flat emotional response
- poverty of speech
- lack of initiative and persistence
- anhedonia (lack of interest)
- social withdrawal
150
what are the cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia?
- difficult sustaining attention
- low psychomotor speed
deficits in learning and memory
- poor problem solving
- poor abstract thinking
151
what are the neurological symptoms of schizophrenia?
= Ventricular enlargement is one of the earliest and most consistent findings in schizophrenia.
= The ventricles of patients with schizophrenia are approx 130% the size of normal controls
(VENTRICLES = fluid-filled cavities within the brain that play important roles in supporting and protecting neural tissue, regulating cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and providing buoyancy to the brain
152
what are ventricles?
VENTRICLES = fluid-filled cavities within the brain that play important roles in supporting and protecting neural tissue, regulating cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and providing buoyancy to the brain
153
what is the % of developing schizophrenia in MZ twins?
48%
= suggests strong genetic link
154
what is the % of developing schizophrenia in husband/wife?
2%
= suggests an environmental factor
155
what is davis et al 1995 study findings on the concordance rates in twins with schizophrenia?
monozygotic twins:
- Monochorionic concordance = 60%
- Dichorionic concordance = 10.7%
= even prenatal environment is an environment e.g. one side gets inflamed, other does no
156
what are some environmental factors that may contribute to the onset of schizophrenia?
- Cannabis use
- Prenatal infection
- Birth month
- Childhood trauma
- Chronic stress
157
what is the dopamine hypothesis?
suggests that schizophrenia is caused by an overactivity of dopamine neurotransmission in certain areas of the brain. Specifically, it implicates increased levels of dopamine, an increased number of dopamine receptors, or an increased sensitivity of dopamine receptors.
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where did the dopamine hypothesis originate from?
- Hypothesis originated from observations made in the 50s and 60s using antipsychotic medications with antagonize dopamine receptors, alleviating psychotic symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia (e.g. chlorpromazine)
- Dopamine agonists induce positive symptoms (e.g. amphetamine)
Activity of dopamine neurons in the acumens strongly reinforce behaviour
Fibiger 1991 - paranoid delusions caused by activity in amygdala (amygdala - fear responses, learning emotional responses)
Snyder 1974 - schizophrenia report elation at the start of schizophrenic episode
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what is the theory behind the interaction of NMDA (glutamate receptor) on schizophrenia?
NMDA (glutamate receptor) THEORY: glutamate hyperactivity in regions involved with cognition and executive function (e.g. prefrontal cortex)
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what is the serotonin theory of schizophrenia?
SEROTONIN THEORY: serotonin dysfunction may disrupt typical cognitive abilities prompting the SCZ development
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what is an affective disorder?
categorised as a mood disorder, identified by disruptions in emotions
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why is schizophrenia not an affective disorder?
While some overlap in symptoms and comorbidity between schiz and affective disorders (e.g. SCZ can be a feature of both psychotic symptoms and mood episodes),
= these conditions are generally considered distinct due to their clinical presentations, neurobiological underpinnings and treatment approaches
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what is bipolar disorder?
main type of affective disorder:
- Alternating periods of mania and depression
- 1% of the population afflicted at some point in their life
- Equally frequently in men and women
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what is unipolar disorder (MDD)?
main type of affective disorder:
- Depression without mania
- 2 or 3 times more likely in women than men
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what is seasonal affective disorder (SAD)?
main type of affective disorder:
- Depression typically associated with the onset of winter months
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what are the findings of Gershon et al 1976 study on the heritability of affective disorders in twins?
MZ concordance = 69%
DZ concordance = 13%
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what did Rosenthal 1971 suggest about affective disorders?
10 TIMES MORE LIKELY TO SUFFER FROM AFFECTIVE DISORDERS IF A CLOSE RELATIVE ALSO DOES
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what did price 1968 suggest about affective disorders?
concordance is the same whether twins are raised apart or together
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what is the monamine hypothesis?
suggests depression is caused by faulty activity on monoamine neurons e.g.
- Deficiencies in serotonin (thought to play a role in modulating mood)
- Norepinephrine imbalance (plays a role in the bodies stress response)
- Dopamine dysfunction (plays a role in reward and pleasure pathways)
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what is iproniazid?
a drug treatment of depression:
- inhibits monamine oxidase (a monamine antagonist), thus increasing serotonin, dopamine and norepinepherine)
= discovered as a side effect of TB treatment
= unpleasent side effects
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what is tricyclic antidepressants?
drug treatment of depression:
- agonists of JUST serotonin and norepinepherine
= inhibits reuptake of neurotransmitter by terminal buttons
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what is reserpine?
a drug used to treat high blood pressure = causes depression as it is a general monoamine antagonist
173
What is cognitive neuropsychology?
The study of the relationship between brain regions and behaviour.
- Historically linked to evidence from damaged brains
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what is the aim of cognitive neuropsychology?
Aims to assign specific psychological functions to particular brain structures (assuming we accept modularity of brain function…).
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what is does the modularity of brain functions mean?
The modularity of brain function refers to the idea that the brain is organised into distinct, specialised regions or modules, each primarily responsible for processing specific types of information or carrying out particular cognitive functions
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who is Franz Joseph Gall (1758-1828) and Johan Spurzheim (1776-1832).?
seen as the beginnings of cognitive neuropsychology:
As a youth, Gall was annoyed by students with a good memory but poor original thinking…
Developed a theory of brain function:
Localisation of function.
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what is the theory: Localisation of function.
different parts of the brain responsible for variations in individual differences. - developed by joseph gall and johan spurzheim:
- Studied ppl w/ skills in maths, music, sense of colour, combativeness, - discovered “bumps” in some areas.
- Depressions in skull indicate underdevelopment.
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what is phrenology?
the study of skull structure as indications for mental faculties.
e.g., Amativeness (sex drive) behind lower part of ears.
= Most assessments entirely subjective
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what is cranioscopy?
older term that is synonymous with phrenology. It refers to the pseudoscientific practice of determining personality traits and mental abilities by examining the shape and size of the skull.
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who is pierre flourens (1794-1867)?
work in cognitive neuropsychology - conducted experiments:
Lesioned parts of the cortex of different animals: Observed how it behaved.
At first: → Moved very little, refused to eat and drink
Later: → Recovery of function. To the point of appearing “normal”.
Pattern of loss and recovery seemed inconsistent with the assumption of localisation.
However:
Lesions to:
Parts of the brain stem = permanent breathing difficulties
Cerebellum = loss of locomotor co-ordination.
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what are brodmanns areas?
developed by korbinian brodmann 1868-1918)
= labelled zones based on cell organisation (density), cell type and number of connections
= are a cytoarchitectonic map of the human brain
- divides the cerebral cortex into 52 distinct regions (though only 47 are typically numbered in humans)
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Who is Paul Broca (1824-1880)?
received a patient "tan" - could only say "tan"
= autopsy revealed a lesion to the left frontal lobe: demonstrating lateralisation and localisation
discovered - BROCAS AREA
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what is the brocas area?
in frontal lobe, usually left hemisphere
= associated with the production of speech and the planning and organization of language
= anterior speech region
= is made up of brodmann areas 44 + 45
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what is the syndrome that results from damage to the brocas area?
broca's aphasia
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who is Carl Wernicke?
- investigated region of cortex that recieves info from ear - behind brocas area
wernicke's patient = spoke fluently but w/ no sense, could hear but not understand
= WERNICKES AREA
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what is the wernickes area?
- behind brocas area - Broadmann area 22.
- region of temporal lobe, in left hemisphere
- associated with the comprehension of language. This includes understanding spoken and written language.
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what is the syndrome that results from damage to the wernickes area?
wernicke's aphasia
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what is Wernicke's model of language processing?
classic neurological model that describes how the brain processes language, focusing on the roles of Wernicke's + Broca's area and their connection via the arcuate fasciculus.
- wernickes area (sounds - sound images
- sound images transmitted along AF to
- brocas area (representation of speech movements)
= instructions sent to control mouth muscles
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what is conduction aphasia?
impairment in the ability to repeat words or phrases despite intact comprehension and fluent speech production.
= caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, a bundle of nerve fibers that connects Wernicke's area (involved in language comprehension) in the temporal lobe to Broca's area (involved in language production) in the frontal lobe
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what is working memory?
short term, rehearsal
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what is amnesia?
Damage to memory
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what are the areas of the brain related to memory?
Hippocampus, amygdala and related structures in the MEDIAL (inside) TEMPORAL LOBE (MTL) - fornix, mamillary body
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what is the amygdalas role to forming memories?
crucial role in processing emotions, particularly fear and aggression
= significantly influences how memories are formed and recalled, especially those with emotional content
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what is the fornix and mammillary body?
fornix = major output of the hippocampus and the mammillary body is further output = pushing towards thalamus (info relay station
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what is the hippocampus role in forming memories?
- role in created long term memories
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what is anterograde amnesia? what type of memory is affected?
The Inability to Form New Memories
Info acquired before damage is relatively spared
Impaired declarative (explicit) memory:
episodic and semantic.
Relative preservation of non-declarative (implicit) memory:
perceptual (familiarity with stimuli).
procedural (motor skills & habits).
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what are the causes of anterograde amnesia?
disorders such as:
- Korsakoff's syndrome
- thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency
= due to alcoholism: poor diet and impaired absorption of thiamine from intestine, which produces bilateral degeneration of mammillary bodies
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what is temporal lobectomy and what does it cause?
bilateral removal of temporal lobes for patients with intractable seizures
= can cause anterograde amnesia
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how is H.M.s case study of anterograde amnesia?
after a surgical bilateral removal of anterior hippocampal regions - circumscribed lesion
= intact working memory
= deficits specific to semantic and episodic memory
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what is the difference between anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia?
memory affected:
Anterograde amnesia – since lesion
Retrograde amnesia – prior to lesion
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how did they test H.M. for retrograde amnesia?
(Marslen-Wilson & Teuber, 1975)
HM: photos of celebrities suggest retrograde amnesia spans decades, with more distant memories relatively preserved
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how is H.M.s case study of retrograde amnesia?
H.M: Temporally graded retrograde amnesia:
- Old memories (childhood) intact.
* Memories immediately before lesion lost.
E.g., forgot death of favourite uncle in 1950…
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what is visual agnosia?
damage to the ventral stream that causes the inability to recognize - a lack of knowing or perception
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what is agnosia?
the inability to recognize - a lack of knowing or perception
= can come in many flavours: visual, auditory, somatosensory etc
MODALITY SPECIFIC: individuals with visual agnosia would be able to name an object through touch
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what is optic ataxia?
damage to the dorsal stream
= affects a person's ability to accurately reach for and grasp objects under visual guidance.
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what is apperceptive visual agnosia?
A Deficit in Object Perception:
- impaired shape perception
-acuity
-brightness discrimination
-colour vision
= evidence by impairments in drawing, copying and visual recognition, even in common objects
- inability to extract GLOBAL STRUCTURE.
= can see parts, but not whole
e.g. inability to even perceive and cognitively process faces.
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what is associative visual agnosia?
- ability to perceive shape, but inability to recognize it e.g. name it
- No problem copying figures
HOWEVER, inability to draw from verbal instruction or to recognize objects using vision
e.g. inability to recognize or apply any meaning to the face, despite perceiving it (can still identify individuals through voice, hairstyle etc.,).
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what is the 'fusiform face area' (FFA)?
the fusiform gyrus in the lower part of the occipital and temporal lobe (usually right sided) given name of face area due to multiple studies finding that damage in this area caused visual agnosia (PROSOPAGNOSIA - face blindness)
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what is PROSOPAGNOSIA
visual agnosia - neurological condition characterized by the inability to recognize faces. It is often referred to as "face blindness"
= damage to fusiform gyrus - face area
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what are the three principle measures of sleep?
- Electro-encephalogram (EEG). (Head)
- Electro-oculogram (EOC). (Eye)
- Electro-myogram (EMG). (Neck)
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what are pre sleep alpha waves?
type of brain wave that falls within the 8-12 Hz frequency range.
- observed as a person transitions from being awake to falling asleep
- activity in low amplitude/high frequency waves
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what are the 4 stages of sleep EEG?
- PROGRESSIVE
- SLEEP SPINDLE
- K COMPLEX
- REM sleep
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what is the progressive stage of sleep EEG?
1st -
* Progressive: increase in amplitude, decrease in frequency.
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what is the sleep spindle stage of sleep EEG?
2nd -
* Sleep Spindle: 1 to 2s burst of 12-14Hz waves.
- it and k complex stage suggested to be involved in memory consolidation
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what is the K complex stage of sleep EEG?
3rd -
- K complex – Single large upward, then downwards deflection
- largest event in health human EEG - it and the sleep spindle suggested to be involved in memory consolidation
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what is the REM sleep stage of sleep EEG?
sleep is characterized by low-voltage, mixed-frequency brain waves and is often associated with dreaming
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what is Dement 1978 study on REM sleep?
80% awakenings during REM sleep = dream recall.
93% awakenings during nREM sleep = no dream recall.
nREM dream recall – isolated experiences (e.g., perception of falling).
REM dream recall – more narrative.
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what is the difference between nREM and REM sleep?
nREM dream recall – isolated experiences (e.g., perception of falling).
- generally associated with reduced brain activity, slower breathing and heart rate, and muscle relaxation.
REM dream recall – more narrative.
- characterized by rapid eye movements, increased brain activity (similar to wa
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what is dement and kleitman 1975 study on REM sleep dream recall?
Participants awoken 5 or 15 minafter onset of REM.
Asked, on the basis of the dream events, how long they had been
dreaming (5 or 15 min).
Participants correct 92/111 cases
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what are recuperation theories of sleep?
* Being awake disrupts homeostasis.
* Sleep restores this.
e.g., sleep restores energy levels.
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what are evolutionary theories of sleep?
* Sleep is not a reaction to homeostatic disruption.
* Sleep evolved (in humans) to prevent accidents and predation at night.
Sleep is like sex. We don’t need it to stay alive but we are still motivated to have it!
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what did youngstedt and kline 2006 suggest about sleep?
Little / No effect of exercise on sleep duration in humans
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what do recuperation theories of sleep suggest about the effects of sleep deprivation?
1. Increases in physiological / behavioural disturbances.
2. After deprivation, missed sleep must be regained.
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what was randy gardners case study?
Dement, 1978:
Randy Gardner – 260 hours awake.
= 1st recovery night (14 hours sleep)… then back to normal.
= dissimilar to recuperation theories which suggest missed sleep must be caught up on
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what is suggested about sleep deprivations effects on depression?
Vogel et al. (1975, 1990):
Preventing REM sleep acts as an antidepressant.
Scherschlicht et al. (1982):
Examined effects of 20 antidepressants.
All reduced REM sleep.
Most increased slow-wave sleep.
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what was rechtschaffen et al 1983 study on sleep deprivation in rats?
* After several days, experimental rats died.
* But, post-mortem revealed swollen adrenal glands, gastric ulcers and internal bleeding.
Possibly a consequence of stress and physical damage?
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what was contantin von economo study on teh hippothalamus involvement in sleep?
studied the brains of those who died from the virus encephalitis lethargica.
= Victims who had difficulty sleeping – Damage to anterior region.
= Victims who had difficulty staying awake – Damage to posterior region.
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what is the reticular system influence on sleep
reticular formation - complex network of brainstem nuclei and neurons
regulating sleep-wake cycles by modulating brain activity and influencing arousal levels
Area became known as the Reticular Activating system – low activity = sleep, high activity = wakefulness
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what is mouzzi and morgan 1949 study on the reticular systems involvement in sleep?
Stimulation of the reticular formation of sleeping cats woke them.
Area became known as the Reticular Activating system – low activity = sleep, high activity = wakefulness
229
what is narcolepsy?
a sleep disorder:
- rare long term brain condition that can prevent a person from choosing when to wake or sleep
- The brain is unable to regulate sleeping and waking patterns normally, which can result in:
-excessive daytime sleepiness
-sleep attacks
-cataplexy - temporary loss of muscle control
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what is the stomachs primary function?
Stomachs primary function is to serve as storage reservoir
hydrochloric acid breaks food down and pepsin begins breaking down protein molecules into amino acid
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what is between the stomach and the upper portion of intestine?
Stomach empties through pyloric sphincter into duodenum (upper portion of intestine) where most of absorption takes place
232
where doe most of the absorption of food happen in the digestive system
the upper portion of the intestine: duodenum
233
what are the pancreas and gall bladders function in the digestive system?
supply digestive enzymes to the duodenum
- gall bladder also stores bile
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what digestive enzymes break down in the duodenum?
- break down protein molecules to amino acids, - - starch AND complex sugar molecules to simple sugars
= Simple sugars + amino acids readily pass through duodenum wall to blood stream and carried to liver
235
where does bile come from and what does it do?
the liver and stored in the gall bladder
- Fats are emulsified (broken into droplets) by bile in the duodenum
- Fats cant be passed through duodenum wall and is carries by small ducts into the lymphatic system
236
what is the set point theory?
a theory of hunger: keesey and powley 1986
- Hinger is a consequence of an energy deficit
- Each individual has an optimal level of energy resources - a set point
Bodies inherently seek to return to this set point = this is homeostatis
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what are the problems with the set point theory of hunger?
keesey and powley 1986 suggesting hunger is caused by lowered levels of energy resources:
BUT:
- evolutionarily unlikely because of inconsistencies in environment
- not supported by evidence: e.g. high calorie drink before meal doesnt stop meal
- ignorance of environmental factors: effects of learning, preference, social factors
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what is the positive incentive theory of hunger?
multiple factors are a function of hunger:
ANTICIPATION,
- expected pleasure of eating drives hunger
- Expected pleasure = POSITIVE-INCENTIVE VALUE
- CRAVINGS initiate eating `= hunger perception
MULTIPLE FACTORS:
- FLAVOUR of the food
- Knowledge of the food (learning)
Time since last meal, amount of food in gut, blood glucose levels…
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what is the "conditioned taste preference" experiment?
an experiment done to show how learning of tastes can cause preferences which determine what one eats:
- rats in cage - oppt to drink flavoured water
- water A (glucose), water B (0 calories)
TEST: rats get to choose = would prefer A as learned its followed by calorie intake
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what is the "conditioned taste aversion" experiment?
an experiment done to show how learning of tastes can cause aversions which determine what one eats:
- rats in cage
- given different waters, A is followed by lithium chloride which induces nausea
= therefore rats will avoid flavour A when given choice
241
what did galef suggest about food preferences?
- Galef - generally speaking, animals will prefer a certain type of food if they’ve seen other animals eating it (clear evolutionary advantage (poison/death etc))
242
what is Fudims experiment on learning to eat vitamins and minerals?
FUDIM 1978: associating salt w/ flavours
- rats given oppt to drink compounds of 2 flavours: one day oppt to drink salt water w/ acritical flavour of almond, other day is banana and sugar
INGECTING STAGE: one group control, nothing happen and the other group injected w/ formalin (salt reduction)
- Rats weren't given anything to drink
Then given TEST
= control group: showed oppt to choose which solution to drink (taken salt + sucrose out), rats preferred banana over almond
= test group: rats showed preference for almond, associated salt solution
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what is harris et al experiment on thyamine depleted rats?
thyamine (Vitamine B1) depleted rats
Learned to choose a COMPLETE diet and avoid a thyamine DEPLETE diet
HOWEVER: effect weakened when there was a choice between 10 different diets
= provides hints to ppl struggling to choose healthy diet as we have so many options around us
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what causes the feeling of pre-meal hunger?
- Eating a meal STRESSES the body: influx of fuel moves it away from HOMEOSTATUS
- Signals for a meal (e.g. time of day, smells) evokes a CEPHALIC PHASE
Here, INSULIN is released into blood: blood glucose goes down
THUS, hunger isnt a cry for energy - it’s the body preparing for homeostasis distruption
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what is a cephalic phase?
INSULIN is released into blood: blood glucose goes down before a meal to prepare body for homeostasis distruption
246
what is weingarten study on conditioned hunger?
2) CONDITIONED HUNGER IN RATS (weingarten 1983)
Buzzer and light (CS) - food
= rats ate more food when the cs was subsequently presented
= can be applied to humans
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what is the VENTRALMEDIAL HYPOTHALAMUS?
section of hypothalamus in both hemispheres
- a satiety centre: inhibits eating, suggested to stop you from eating
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what is hetherington and ranson study on the VENTRALMEDIAL HYPOTHALAMUS?
1940: lesions vhm in rats
VHM lesions = hyperphagia (overeating and obesity)
1) Dynamic phase: excessive eating, weight gain
2) Static phase: body weight maintained
Overweight state returns following diet
To note: VMH syndrome rats will not work for food
Sensitive to unpalatable foods (finicky)
249
what is the LATERAL HYPOTHALAMUS?
section of hypothalamus, known as feeding centre
250
what is anand and brobecks study on the LATERAL HYPOTHALAMUS?
1951: lesioned areas in rats:
Lesion = APHAGIA (cessation of eating)
LH syndrome (teitelbaum and epstein 1962)
1) Aphagia is often accompanied by adipsia (cessation of drinking)
2) RECOVERY is possible:
-tube feeding
-milk soaked cookies
-dry food pellets
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why were the studys of the ventralmedial hypothalamus and lateral hypothalamus findings disproved?
HETHERINGTON AND RANSON (1940) on VMH syndrome
and
anand and brobecks 1951 on lateral lesions
1) VMH lesions in fact damaged paraventricular nucleus - this region produces hyperphagia and obesity
2) Hypothalaums regulates metabolism, not eating
VMH lesions: increases blood insulin:
-increases lipogenesis (production of fat)
-decreases lipolysis (breakdown of body fat)
THUS, the rats must consume more calories to meet demand
LH lesions produce a variety of motor disturbances, and lack of responsiveness
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what is cannon and washbrun study on the stomach?
1912:
- Contractions caused by empty stomach correlated with HUNGER
BUT
- Patients without stomachs still get hungry
= stomach is not necessary for hungry
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what is koopmans study on the stomach?
1981:
- Transplanted an extra stomach and length of intestine into rats, joined the major arteries and veins
- Food injected into the stomach (and held there) eating went down
- WEIRD .. Transplanted stomach had no functioning nerves
Satiety signal must have reached the brain through BLOOD FLOW (cant have been nutrients(not absorbed by the stomach))
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what are peptides?
- Short chains of amino acids (can function as either a hormone, or as a neurotransmitter_
Ingested food stimulated receptors in the gastrointestinal tract to release these into the bloodstream (these can pass through the blood-brain barrier)
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what is gibbs, young and smith 1973 study on peptides?
satiety peptide
- Injected peptide choleystokinin (CCK) into the gut of hungry rats, rats ate LESS food
Why? = CCK may induce nausea (does it support flavour aversion?)
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what is leptin?
- Discovered as a spontaneous genetic mutation in a mouse colony
- Low leptin mice = ate more, converted calories to fat more efficiently
- Suggests it’s a negative feedback signal to lower appetite and encourage fat metabolism
Seeley & Woods (2003):
Detected leptin receptors found in the mouse brain.
Injections of leptin in obese mice results in reduced eating and reduced weight.
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