Biology 20 Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is a closed system?

A

Matter can not be exchanged, but energy is exchanged.

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2
Q

Is Earth a closed system? Why?

A

We get energy from the sun and stuff but matter is not exchanged

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3
Q

Dynamic Equilibrium definition

A

any system that has lots of changes occurring but the parts of the system adjust to these changes without messing up the whole system

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4
Q

What are the earth’s 3 basic structural zones

A

the lithosphere (land), hydrosphere (water), and atmosphere (air)

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5
Q

Whats the biosphere

A

any part of the earth that contains life, lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere are all a part of the biosphere because they all contain living things

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6
Q

Biotic Definition

A

living parts of the biosphere/earth

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7
Q

Abiotic Definition

A

non-living parts of the biosphere/earth (including chemical and physical factors)

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8
Q

example of abiotic chemical and geological factors of the biosphere

A

rocks and minerals

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9
Q

example of abiotic physical factors of the biosphere

A

temperature and weather

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10
Q

levels of organization from simple to more complex (smallest to largest) (10)

A

cell - tissue - organ - system - organism - population - community - ecosystem - biome - biosphere

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11
Q

Population definition

A

group of the same species, at the same place, at a specific time

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12
Q

Community definition

A

multiple populations in an area/habitat

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13
Q

Ecosystem definition

A

a community with its biotic and abiotic factors (physical and chemical environment interacting with organisms)

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14
Q

biodiversity/biological diversity definition

A

the number of species in an ecosystem, the more species- the healthier the ecosystem

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15
Q

food-chain definition

A

a sequence linking organisms that feed on each other, starting with a food source (plants… producer) and continuing in order with each consumer

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16
Q

what do predators do for the ecosystem

A

keeps the population of its prey from getting out of hand, stops over population of a certain species

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17
Q

what do prey do for the ecosystem

A

important source of food

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18
Q

what happens when a predator goes extinct by humans

A

its prey over populates and takes over the ecosystem affecting a whole bunch of other stuff and it just creates a domino effect

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19
Q

definition of a producer

A

an autotroph; makes its own food

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20
Q

autotroph definition

A

makes its own food

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21
Q

consumer definition

A

heterotroph; must eat other things to live bc it cant make its own food

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22
Q

heterotroph definition

A

eats other things bc it cant make its own food

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23
Q

the health of top level consumers indicate what?

A

their health indicated whether toxins are entering the ecosystem because top level consumers rely totally on other members of the ecosystems food chain and the toxins in these organisms get passed down to the top consumer

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24
Q

Whats an endangered species

A

close to extinction in all parts of the country or very large location

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25
Q

whats an extirpated species

A

one that no longer exists in one part of the country but can be found in other parts

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26
Q

whats a threatened species

A

likely to become endangered if no help is provided

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27
Q

indicator species definition

A

species sensitive to small changes in an ecosystem and is used to provide early warning

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28
Q

if the populations of frogs decrease what happens

A

frogs eat large amounts of insects so there would be a LOT more insects

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29
Q

how many ecosystems are frogs and many other amphibians a part of

A

2, land and water - hydrosphere and lithosphere

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30
Q

herbivore definition

A

animal that eats only plants

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31
Q

carnivore definition

A

eats meat/other animals

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32
Q

omnivore definition

A

eats both plants and animals

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33
Q

detritus definition

A

wastes from plants and animals including their dead remains

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34
Q

what do detritus food chains do

A

recycling matter in ecosystems through decomposers

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35
Q

what are decomposers

A

ORGANISM that BREAKS DOWN DETRITUS (plant and animal waste) to get nutrients for themselves but also release some nutrients back into the soil or water which plants and algae use to grow

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36
Q

Habitat defintion

A

area that an organism or population can survive in

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37
Q

what causes habitat loss

A

humans; farming, industry, buildings, concrete, roads, housing… etc.

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38
Q

biome definition

A

large scale ecosystem

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39
Q

why are frogs disappearing (4)

A

loss of habitat, air and water quality, climate change, ultraviolet radiation

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40
Q

why is the amount of UV radiation reaching the Earth’s surface increasing?

A

damage to the ozone layer surrounding the earth

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41
Q

Ultraviolet Radiation (UV Rays) defintion

A

electromagnetic radiation from the sun that causes sunburns and cellular mutation

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42
Q

ozone definition

A

an inorganic molecule; helps screen out UV rays

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43
Q

what is a big part of the damage of the ozone

A

CFC’s (chlorofluorocarbons) found in spray cans and refrigerators

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44
Q

what organism serves as an indicator species for the health of the planet

A

frogs; they are greatly effected by global warming, UV rays, pollution, climate change, air and water quality and habitat loss

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45
Q

What is photosynthesis?

A

when green plants use solar energy, water, and carbon dioxide to produce carbohydrates (sugars) which can be used as food by other organisms

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46
Q

trophic level definition

A

a category of living things defined by how it gains its energy

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47
Q

what is placed in the first trophic level

A

producers/autotrophs, organisms that make their own food (example; from solar energy)…

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48
Q

some different types of producers

A

plants, algae, some bacteria

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49
Q

what is placed in the second trophic level

A

primary consumers; feed on producers… herbivores… rely directly on the autotrophs

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50
Q

what is placed in the third trophic level

A

secondary consumers; eat primary consumers… carnivore

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51
Q

animal that is a primary consumers

A

rabbit eats grass

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52
Q

animal that is a secondary consumer

A

snake eats rabbit

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53
Q

animal that is a tertiary consumer

A

owl eats snake

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54
Q

what is a tertiary consumer

A

eats secondary consumer

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55
Q

top carnivore definition

A

the final carnivore in a food chain, not eaten by other animals (while they are alive)

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56
Q

food web defintion

A

series of interlocking food chains, representation of the feeding relationships among organisms in an ecosystem… represents energy pathways

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57
Q

what are the most stable ecosystems

A

those with the greatest biodiversity

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58
Q

why does a greater biodiversity result in a more stable ecosystem?

A

the food web is so complex that reduction or removal of one species will only have a small effect on the ecosystem because there are many other species to replace that species energy

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59
Q

what moves energy from the abiotic component of an ecosystem to the biotic component

A

photosynthesis!!!… uses sunlight (abiotic) and moves it to the biotic component of the ecosystem (plants)

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60
Q

cellular respiration definition

A

cells break down glucose into carbon dioxide and water, releasing energy

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61
Q

chemosynthesis

A

process in which non-photosynthetic organisms convert inorganic chemicals to organic compounds without solar energy

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62
Q

chemoautotroph

A

an organism that can make organic compounds from inorganic chemicals without using solar energy

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63
Q

what organisms undergo cellular respiration to use the energy in their food

A

ALL ORGANISMS

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64
Q

Basic Chemical Reaction for Photosynthesis

A

CO2+H2O+energy –> C6H12O6+O2

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65
Q

Basic Chemical Reaction for Cellular Respiration

A

C6H12O6+O2 –> CO2+H2O+energy

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66
Q

What two ecosystems use chemosynthesis instead of photosynthesis?

A

Caves or Deep Oceans

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67
Q

How does chemosynthesis work?

A

Bacter called chemoautotrophs use CO2, H2O and an energy source (Not solar) to make nutrients.. the energy can be taken from inorganic chemicals like; hydrogen sulfide, ammonia, ferrous ions or sulfur

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68
Q

How do hot springs work?

A

thermal energy from the earths crust heats the underground water, and is released through vents in rock

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69
Q

How do bacteria in sulfur hot springs produce food

A

some bacteria use thermal energy to convert dissolved hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide into organic compounds

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70
Q

As energy travels through the trophic levels/different organisms/ecosystem at each transfer some energy is lost… why?

A

each time energy is transferred 90% is lost as heat or waste

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71
Q

what are the LABELS for the trophic levels

A

producer - primary consumer - secondary consumer (top carnivore)

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72
Q

what are the two types of food chains

A

grazer: plant - herbivore - carnivore
detritus: organic waste - scavengers - decomposers

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73
Q

trophic levels demonstrate what

A

how far an organism is from the original energy source… orignal energy=sun first trophic level =plants

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74
Q

In ALL food chains the farther up the chain you go ___ energy is available

A

LESS

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75
Q

The loss of energy at each trophic level limits the trophic levels in a food chain to about what number

A

5

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76
Q

first law of thermodynamics

A

energy can be changed in form, but not created or destroyed

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77
Q

second law of thermodynamics

A

any change in energy results in a loss of energy as heat

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78
Q

Explain why only 10% of the energy available in a plant is transferred to primary consumer

A

90% of the energy is needed for photosynthesis, growth, and reproduction…

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79
Q

ecological pyramid definition

A

illustrate the energy loss through the trophic levels

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80
Q

what is a pyramid of numbers

A

total number of organisms at each trophic level in an ecosystem

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81
Q

what shape do pyramids of numbers take?

A

depending on the producer the shape can be like an actual pyramid or if the primary consumer is very tiny and the producer is large, then there will be small amounts of trees and very large numbers of tiny insects because thousands of insects can feed off of only one tree…

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82
Q

what is a biomass pyramid

A

mass of dry tissue of organisms at each trophic level (based on stored energy amounts… places with more sunlight have higher biomass bc more stored energy)… mass decreases as you move up the food chain

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83
Q

what are biomass pyramids measured in

A

grams (g)

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84
Q

what is an energy pyramid

A

based on the energy produced at each trophic level… gets smaller as you go up

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85
Q

what are energy pyramids measured in

A

kJ, J, Calorie…

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86
Q

the higher the trophic level the ___ energy is available

A

LESS

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87
Q

what are pesticides

A

used to kill pests; however they get eaten and the toxins accumulate in food chains … ex: DDT

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88
Q

What are organic compounds

A

substances that CONTAIN atoms of CARBON and HYDROGEN

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89
Q

What are inorganic compounds

A

substances that DO NOT contain CARBON and HYDROGEN

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90
Q

Are the chemicals that make up your body; proteins, sugars and fats, organic or inorganic

A

organic

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91
Q

what are amino acids used for

A

used to build proteins

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92
Q

what are sugars (glucose) used to do

A

store energy

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93
Q

what are fatty acids used for

A

fatty acids are combined to form fats which store energy and build cell membranes

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94
Q

why must matter be recycled

A

because there is no other source of matter so we need to keep using the stuff we have…. it must be recycled to maintain life on earth

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95
Q

what happens to organic molecules during digestion

A

complex organic molecules are broken down into simpler molecules

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96
Q

what do decomposers do to organic matter held in dead bodies and wastes

A

decomposers break down ORGANIC matter into small INORGANIC molecules

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97
Q

What happens to the inorganic molecules (nutrients) that are in the soil because of a decomposer breaking organic matter into those nutrients

A

these molecules enter the soil or water which is used by plants as nutrients to make food for themselves then an animal eats the plant and it just keeps going

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98
Q

what is the major component of the cell’s cytoplasm

A

water

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99
Q

what are the three states water is in

A

vapour(gas), solid (snow,ice), liquid

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100
Q

a list of the importance of water to organisms (6)

A
  • absorbs/releases thermal energy
  • metabolic reactions take place in water
  • excellent solvent (dissolves things)
  • makes up 60% of the cells mass
  • supplies hydrogen during photosynthesis, supplies oxygen during cellular respiration
  • reactant AND product in some metabolic activities
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101
Q

what is a polar molecule

A

molecule that has a positive and negative end

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102
Q

is water a polar molecule

A

yes

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103
Q

how is water held together

A

water molecules are held together by COVALENT bonds that join ONE OXYGEN and TWO HYDROGEN atoms…

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104
Q

how is water a polar molecule

A

water = one oxygen, two hydrogen … electrons attracted to oxygen (negative) …hydrogens (Positive) are at the other end.. negative end repels negative ends of other water molecules but attracts the other waters positive ends

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105
Q

what pulls water molecules together

A

hydrogen bonds

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106
Q

what are hydrogen bonds

A

type of bond formed between positive end of one water molecule and the negative end of another water molecule

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107
Q

definition of the hydrological cycle (Water cycle)

A

the movement of water through the environment from the atmosphere to earth and back

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108
Q

summarize the hydrological cycle

A

river -> ocean -> evaporation -> part of clouds -> precipitation (rain/snow/hail) -> back to ground, ocean, underground, river… wherever it ends up and then gets evaporated again…

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109
Q

transpiration definition

A

the loss of water through plant leaves

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110
Q

how do plants/trees play a role in the water cycle

A

through transpiration…

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111
Q

whats surface water

A

lakes, ponds, rivers

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112
Q

what two sources do we get our water from

A

ground water, and surface water

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113
Q

percolation definition

A

the movement of a liquid through porous material like soil (water moving through the soil)

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114
Q

water table definition

A

below ground that fills with water above bedrock or clay

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115
Q

leaching definition

A

removal of dissolvable minerals by percolation (filtering through soil)

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116
Q

wet acid deposition

A

also known as acid rain… sulfur dioxide and nitrous oxides enter the atmosphere and combine with water droplets to form acids which return to the surface as rain or snow in the form of acid rain

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117
Q

dry acid deposition

A

sulfur and nitrous oxides may remain airborne and stay dry… they then combine with moisture on the earth surface like dew on a lawn, surface of a lake to form acids

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118
Q

what is the cause of sulfur dioxide and nitrous oxides in the atmosphere

A
  • when fossil fuels and metal ores containing sulfur are burn = sulfur dioxide (which is a poisonous gas)
  • vehicles, fossil fuel burning power plants, processing nitrogen fertilizers produces various nitrous oxides
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119
Q

what is capillary action

A

the upward motion of water that goes against gravity… when water carries nutrients up plants stems etc…

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120
Q

why does the ocean store a lot of INORGANIC carbon

A

because water can dissolve carbon dioxide

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121
Q

what cycles inorganic carbon dioxide into more complex organic substances

A

photosynthesis

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122
Q

carbon cycle definition

A

cycle in which carbon atoms move from inorganic form to an organic form and then back to an inorganic form

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123
Q

what released carbon dioxide into the atmosphere

A

combustion (burning things)

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124
Q

combustion definition

A

chemical reaction that occurs when a substance reacts very quickly with oxygen to release energy… burning

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125
Q

Most of the carbon in living organisms is returned to the atmosphere or water as _______ from _____ and _____

A

as carbon dioxide from wastes and decays

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126
Q

When carbon is in INORGANIC form what three places is it stored in

A

the atmosphere, the earth’s crust, the oceans

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127
Q

What is the largest storage for carbon… why

A

sedimentary rocks… carbon in oceans often get turned into rocks and then carbon stays locked in rocks for millions of years until people, volcanoes or acid rain burns the rocks up

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128
Q

peat definition

A

slowly decomposing plant matter produced in LOW-OXYGEN environments … like BOGS

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129
Q

Where is organic carbon held

A

the bodies of living things (but once they die and decay it is back to inorganic form), and organic carbon can be kept in peat in BOGS

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130
Q

What are bogs?

A

an ecosystem with very little oxygen… decomposition is VERY SLOW creating peat

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131
Q

how is coal made

A

carbon is locked away under peat and get covered in sediment and eventually the carbon can be trapped between layers of rock = carbon containing fossil fuel = coal

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132
Q

biogeochemical pathways

A

when matter cycles through the biosphere following its specific pathways = the cycles of matter

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133
Q

what are the three major cycles

A

carbon/oxygen cycle
nitrogen cycle
phosphorus cycle

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134
Q

the carbon/oxygen cycle has a lot to do with the interrelations between __________ and ___________

A

photosynthesis and cellular respiration

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135
Q

carbon dioxide is released during what activities

A

volcanoes, automobiles, combustion, uplifting and weathering

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136
Q

uplifting definition

A

tectonic plates move together creating volcanoes, mountains etc..

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137
Q

whats weathering

A

erosion; something wearing away because of wind, water, etc…

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138
Q

how have humans changed the carbo cycle

A
  • mining and burning stored carbon = more carbon dioxide in atmosphere
  • clearing away vegetation to build/farm = more carbon dioxide in inorganic reservoir (bc less photosynthesis.. more and more is being kept in the atmosphere bc the oceans can only hold so much)
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139
Q

albedo definition

A

the extent a surface reflects light that hits it… albedo of 0.08 means 8% of light is reflected

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140
Q

snow and ice have a high or low albedo… why

A

high, the white strongly reflects the light and does not absorb much energy keeping cool temps while no snow covered surfaces absorb more light and energy and reflect less light

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141
Q

nitrogen cycle definition

A

cycle of matter in which nitrogen atoms move from nitrogen gas in the atmosphere to inorganic form in soil, to organic forms in living things and back to inorganic forms in the soil and then once again as nitrogen gas in the atmosphere

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142
Q

nitrogen fixation/nitrification definition

A

atmospheric or dissolved nitrogen gets turned into nitrate ions

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143
Q

why are nitrogen atoms required in organisms

A

cells need nitrogen to make proteins and DNA

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144
Q

what makes up 79% of the atmopshere

A

nitrogen (N2)

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145
Q

what form must nitrogen be in for it to be usable to organisims

A

nitrate ions (NO3)

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146
Q

what are the two ways nitrogen can be converted into nitrates

A
  • lighting

- bacteria in soil

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147
Q

how does lighting make nitrogen into nitrates

A

energy from lighting causes nitrogen gas to react with oxygen in the air producing nitrates.. end up in the soil through rain or something and then move into plants through their roots

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148
Q

where is nitrogen fixing bacteria found

A

on the roots of legumes (such as clover, soybeans, peas and alfalfa)

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149
Q

what happens to nitrogen containing chemicals in dead organisms or their wastes when they decay

A

decomposers break down the nitrogen containing chemicals into ammonia (NH3)

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150
Q

what happens to ammonia produced by decomposers

A

bacteria convert ammonia into nitrites and then other bacteria convert the nitrites into nitrates and it is now able to be used once again

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151
Q

what is denitrification

A

when nitrates get turned into nitrites and then back to nitrogen gas which goes back to the atmosphere

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152
Q

what carries out denitrification

A

bacteria that dont need no oxygen

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153
Q

fertilizer definition

A

material used to restore nutrients to plants

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154
Q

what happens when nitrogen and phosphate fertilizers are carried by spring runoff to streams then lakes??

A

a whole bunch of algae grows = a ton of decomposers = less oxygen = less fish

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155
Q

what happens when too much nitrates is in our water (especially for babies)

A

in small humans nitrates end up in their stomach and something converts the nitrates to nitrites which then attach to hemoglobin in blood, reducing the ability to carry oxygen to tissues… this isn’t so bad in adults bc their stomachs are more acidic and the nitrates cant even get to the stomach without being destroyed

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156
Q

phosphorous cycle

A

cycling of phosphorus between biotic and abiotic components of the environment; consists of a biological and geochemical cycle

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157
Q

what is phosphorus a key element in

A
  • cell membranes
  • making DNA
  • bones
  • molecules that help release chemical energy
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158
Q

what are the two parts to the phosphorus cycle

A

long term cycle; rocks (geological)

short term cycle; living organisms (biological)

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159
Q

what are nutrients

A

chemical essential for living things

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160
Q

what two things are both nutrients

A

nitrates and phosphates

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161
Q

describe the long term/geological/rock cycle in the phosphorus cycle

A

phosphate in rocks -> weathering -> dissolved inorganic phosphate in soil/river ->runoff to ocean ->build up in ocean sediments -> uplifting -> phosphate in rocks….

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162
Q

describe the short term/biological/living organisms cycle of the phosphorus cycle

A

dissolved inorganic phosphate in soil/rivers -> enters plants -> enters animals/decomposes -> animals decompose -> dissolved inorganic phosphate in soil…

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163
Q

3 other examples of nutrients

A

potassium, calcium, magnesium

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164
Q

ecology definition

A

the study of interactions between organisms and their living and non-living environment

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165
Q

abiotic factor

A

a non-living factor that influences an organisms

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166
Q

biotic factor

A

a living factor that affects/influences an organism

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167
Q

ecotone definition

A

transition area between two ecosystems… great biodiversity because there are organisms from both of the ecosystems

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168
Q

ecological niche

A

an organisms role in an ecosystem, its place in the food web, its habitat, its breeding area, and the time of day its most active… everything it does to survive and reproduce

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169
Q

What helps reduce competition between species

A

organisms niche’s because then they feed off of the same plant at different times of day, etc.

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170
Q

whats the problem with exotic species

A

they need to compete for an already existing niche, killing off either the original organism with this niche or it dies because it cant compete with the original niche holder

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171
Q

what is one of the main causes of extinction

A

humans introducing exotic species to new places…

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172
Q

biome definition

A

large area with a specific climate, that has plants and animals adapted to this climate … each biome contains many ecosystems

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173
Q

terrestrial ecosystems

A

ecosystems that are found anywhere on earth thats not covered by water…

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174
Q

Alberta’s terrestrial ecosystems are found within what two biomes?

A

taiga and grassland

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175
Q

conifers

A

cone-bearing trees that have needles instead of leaves

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176
Q

what weather is conifer trees (part of taiga) adapted to?

A

warm moist summers, and cold dry winters… needles stop water loss during the winter because of small surface area and wax covering that also protects it from frost

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177
Q

how does the shape of a conifer help it

A

the cone shape keeps snow from piling on top of it … the needles do not hold snow… it doesnt get crushed by the snow basically

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178
Q

canopy definition

A

the upper layer of vegetation in a forest.. top of trees.. etc

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179
Q

what affects sunlight in taiga biome

A

the canopy stops the sunlight from reaching the forest floor… the most sunlight is hit by the top of conifers

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180
Q

because of such little sunlight in taiga biome of forest floor what grows there

A

shade loving plants like: shrubs, moss, ferns

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181
Q

what animals survive off of the shade loving plants of the taiga biome

A

deer, moose, voles

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182
Q

what types of animals like to eat conifers aka they thrive in taiga

A

50 species of birds … thick strong beaks capable of cracking the cones… also squirrels can feed on the pine seeds

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183
Q

what are the predators of the taiga biome

A

black, grizzly bears, weasels, owls and wolverines

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184
Q

in taiga the soil is very acidic.. why? and what grows in acidic soil?

A

the needles from the conifers are very acidic so when they decompose it makes the soil acidicy… black spruce trees grow in acidic soil

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185
Q

permafrost definition

A

a layer of permanently frozen soil under the normal soil

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186
Q

muskeg definition

A

soil above permafrost that is swampy or boggy in the summer

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187
Q

what biome is muskeg and permafrost found in

A

tundra… these affect the types of organisms that will live in this biome

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188
Q

decomposition is slow in tundra/ muskeg… why?

A

the low temperatures limit the reproduction of soil bacteria and fungi… limits the amount of organic matter in soil

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189
Q

plants that live in the slow decomposition soil in tundra are

A

lichens, mosses, tall grass, small shrubs, stunted conifers

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190
Q

pools of water that collect in muskeg/tundra are suitable for what organisms

A

black flies and mosquitoes…

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191
Q

where are caribou found

A

muskeg ecosystems of taiga!!!

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192
Q

whats the soil like in grassland biome

A

very good decomposition its very good healthy soil… all the grass with deep roots is good for decomposition.. the warm temperatures = rapid decay and makes a rich layer of humus

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193
Q

whats humus

A

decaying plant and animal matter

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194
Q

abiotic limiting factors of terrestrial ecosystems (ANY AREA OF LAND)

A
  1. soil
  2. available water
  3. temperature
  4. sunlight
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195
Q

Soil as a limiting factor for terrestrial ecosystems

A

the quality and amount of soil are critical factors in determining the size and health of the plant community and the biodiversity of an ecosystem

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196
Q

Available water as a limiting factor for terrestrial ecosystems

A

the amount of water available in an ecosystem helps determine the size and health of populations and biodiversity of an ecosystem… (rains a lot: lots of biodiversity.. rains a lil: only plants that can survive wit small amounts of water

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197
Q

temperature as a limiting factor for terrestrial ecosystems

A

temperature affects both abiotic and biotic factors.. can vary significantly throughout the year… what animals survive in constant heat, constant cold… something that constantly changes… how does the soil reacts to very cold temperatures… makes it pretty shitty huh?

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198
Q

sunlight as a limiting factor for terrestrial ecosystems

A

the amount of sunlight determines what types of plants will grow there.. closer to the equator the amount of sunlight in a day is constant.. southern or northern places have different amounts of sunlights at different times of the year… how does this affect things?

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199
Q

Taiga biome and limiting factors

A

sunlight: tree canopy stops sunlight from hitting the floor year round; making shrubs moss ferns, etc which brings deer and moose and birds in the conifers
temperature; warm moist summers, cold dry winters = like conifers.. animals must be able to adapt in the cold and summer like bears and deer
available water: less precipitation, most of the precipitation is snow
soil; soil is acidic bc of the needles of conifers, . water in the soil ok but acidic soil

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200
Q

Animals in taiga

A

50 species of birds bc of conifers.. primary consumers: moose, voles, deer… secondary; black/grizzly bears, weasels, owls, wolverine

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201
Q

Grassland biome and limiting factors

A

sunlight; so much sunlight bc no trees all grass = good soil/ decomp.. no trees bc too dry.. sun all year round
temperature: very warm, no shade, very dry = no trees, warm temp = good decomp
available water; doesnt get much rain bc the grass doesnt really need it = no trees or green plants
soil; GREAT soil.. warm temp, sunlight, grass = good decomposition - amazing soil

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202
Q

animals in grassland biome

A

lots of ground animals: snakes, mice, weasels
big grazers: bison, deer,
some randoms: rabbits, yellow-bellied sapsuckers, grasshoppers
LOTS of herbivores
predatory birds bc no nuts/seeds or berries:. hawk

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203
Q

Limiting factors in tundra/muskeg biome

A

sunlight; not very much sunlight… short growing season… the days are often very short
temperature; very cold, permafrost, dry
available water; low precipitation
soil; permafrost = VERY slow decomp… always cold…
All of this = not a lot of plants or trees in general… lowest energy flow

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204
Q

All the biomes and their energy flows

A

energy flow 2 (low): Tundra (frozen desert)
energy flow 7 (good): grassland
energy flow 10 (good): taiga (lots of snow.. mixed season)
energy flow 16 (great): deciduous (lil bit of everythang)

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205
Q

Limiting factors in Deciduous biome

A

sunlight; spring-sun reaches forest floow where the plants at the bottome grow - then summer the trees grow and the plants at the bottom are already fully grown so their is sunlight available for canopy and the understory = good sunlight - lots of photosynthesis goin on from the trees = rapid growth throughout the biome
temperature; high temp = good decomp, rich topsoil good for all the plants deciduous trees need lots of energy from temp and sun and decomp etc.
available water; high precipitation, lots of rain = rich topsoil, good for plants, lots of humus,
soil; lots of decomp from leaves, high temp, high precipitation, sunlight, lots of detritus, litter, bacteria … all these factors make very good soil for all of the plants that need it
deciduous biome has the highest energy flow

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206
Q

The basic flaws of each biome

A

tundra: cold, dry, permafrost, less decomp, less sunlight
grassland: too dry for anything but grass lol
taiga: acidic soil, less light, less precipitation
deciduous: less light in summer for forest floor

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207
Q

Animals in tundra biome

A

black bear; caribou (muskeg = great for caribou), black flies and mosquitoes bc of the pools of water

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208
Q

Animals in Deciduous biome

A

black bear (trees); weasels, moose (litter/plants), deer (litter/plants), woodpecker (trees). thick layer of leaf litter = lots of insects, = lots of insect eating birds and mammals… all the vegetation = moose n deer, large canopy = bird and climbing mammals WOODPECKER

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209
Q

understory definition

A

below the canopy layer, usually shrubs and small trees

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210
Q

litter definition

A

upper layer of soil composed of mainly partially decomposed leaves or grass

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211
Q

what are the most common trees in deciduous biome

A

aspen, balsam poplar, and birch

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212
Q

abiotic limiting factors in aquatic ecosystems

A
  1. chemical environment
  2. sunlight
  3. temperature
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213
Q

when talking about limiting factors of an aquatic ecosystem what is the chemical environment factor?

A

the type of water (fresh or salt), the amount of oxygen dissolved in the water, and any other dissolved substances in the water (minerals or pollutants, etc)

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214
Q

when talking about limiting factors of an aquatic ecosystem what is sunlight do?

A

may vary throughout the year, the amount of sunlight can also depend on how deep a body of water is.. ecosystems near the top of the surface get more sunlight = higher temps and more photosynthesis = more organisms near the top

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215
Q

when talking about limiting factors in aquatic ecosystems what does temperature do?

A

temperature may vary throughout the year, and the temperature can also depend on how deep the water is and how much sunlight can reach and warm it up..

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216
Q

what is a fourth abiotic factor in the aquatic ecosystem

A

water pressure

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217
Q

littoral zone definition

A

area from the shore of the lake or pond to the point where no more plants grow in the lake bottom

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218
Q

limnetic zone definition

A

the area of lake or pond in which there is open water and sufficient light for photosynthesis to occur

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219
Q

profundal zone definition

A

the region of a lake beneath the limnetic zone, in which there is insufficient light for photosynthesis to occur

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220
Q

what part of the lake is most productive

A

littoral, most plants and algae

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221
Q

what organisms are found in the limnetic zone

A

PLANKTON both autotrophic and heterotrophic … food for fish, tadpoles and birds

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222
Q

what is the (Mostly) only source of nutrients in the profundal zone of lakes

A

the rain of dead plants and animals that fall from the limnetic zone… this detritus (animal/plant matter including dead corpse) is slowly broken down by bacteria or consumed by bottom dwelling weirdo fish called detritus feeders

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223
Q

what problems occur with breaking down detritus that falls to the profundal zone

A

the bacteria uses oxygen to break it down, lowering the amount of oxygen in the water.. bc theres no sunlight or plants to replace this used up oxygen.. there is now VERY low levels of oxygen very few fish can survive in these environments.. one example that can is carp

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224
Q

topsoil definition

A

the soil layer beneath the litter, composed of small particles of rock mixed with humus (decaying plant and animal matter)

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225
Q

subsoil definition

A

the soil layer beneath the topsoil, usually containing more rock particles and less organic matter than top soil

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226
Q

bedrock definition

A

the layer beneath the soil, composed of rock or clay

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227
Q

layers of soil in order

A
  1. litter
  2. topsoil
  3. subsoil
  4. bedrock
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228
Q

what can affect the pH of the soil

A

the rock in which the soil comes from and the types of plants that grow in it and the acidity of rain, snow and groundwater that enters the soil

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229
Q

groundwater definition

A

water in the soil or rock below the Earth’s surface

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230
Q

pure water becomes less dense below ______ degrees… thats why _____ floats

A

4 degrees… thats why ice floats

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231
Q

the lowest layer of a lake often has a temperature of what?

A

4 degrees… most dense

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232
Q

how lake temperatures work in the winter n how they affect the fishies

A

layer of ice, then near the surface is slightly above 0 degrees, at the bottom the water is 4 degrees.. if the ice gets too thick light wont shine through and levels of oxygen dissolved will drop and the organisms will die

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233
Q

how lakes work in the spring

A

ice melts, oxygen gets through, wind stirs the water = increases SA = amount of dissolved oxygen.. cold surface water warms reaching 4 degrees oxygen sinks .. basically the oxygen is mixed throughout the lake called spring turnover

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234
Q

how lakes work in the summer (oxygen, density, temp, organisms)

A

water is warmer than 4 degrees and the oxygen stops sinking :(.. layers of water are set up, most dense at the bottom, least at the top.the layers don’t mix so theres little movement of oxygen.. organisms in the low level of lake (hypolimnion) must rely on oxygen reserved from spring turnover .. at the top level of lake (epilimnion) the warmer it is the less oxygen can be held so if it gets really hot they can lose their oxygen and those organisms can die

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235
Q

how lakes work in the fall

A

the lake cools and once the temp reaches 4 degrees oxygen falls down again mixing throughout the lake the fall turnover renews oxygen levels

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236
Q

epilimnon definition

A

the upper level of a lake which warms up in summer

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237
Q

hypolimnion definition

A

the lower level of a lake which remains at a low temperature year round

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238
Q

thermocline definition

A

the zone between the epilimnion and hypolimnion, in which temperatures change rapidly

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239
Q

the solubility (ability to dissolve) of _____ in water INCREASES as temperatures DECREASE

A

OXYGEN

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240
Q

biotic potential

A

the maximum number of offspring that a species could produce with unlimited resources

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241
Q

the 4 factors that regulate biotic potential

A

birth potential: max # of offspring per birth
capacity for survival: # of offspring that reach adulthood
breeding frequency: # of times a species reproduces each year
length of reproductive life: age of sexual maturity and # of years the individual can reproduce

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242
Q

biotic limiting factors

A
  1. amount of food
  2. predators
  3. disease or parasite
  4. competition
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243
Q

amount of food as a limiting factor

A

has an organisms food supply just gone extinct?!?! is there enough food for everyone in the species?!?!

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244
Q

predators as a limiting factor

A

lots = killing all the prey .. few = overpopulation of prey

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245
Q

disease or parasite as a limiting factor

A

lots of disease… sick and die, very little = healthy living organisms

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246
Q

competition as a limiting factor

A

can an organism compete against another for its resources… one or the other will die.. wins = food/habitat/resource… loses = death

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247
Q

carrying capacity

A

the maximum number of individuals of a species that can be supported by an ecosystem (determined by availability of resources)

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248
Q

when is stability achieved in an ecosystem

A

when its in equilibrium

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249
Q

deforestation

A

humans cutting/burning down trees

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250
Q

what are the two kinds of lakes

A

oligotrophic and eutrophic

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251
Q

oligotrophic lakes

A

deep and cold
low nutrient levels
only a few kinds of organisms
very clear water

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252
Q

eutrophic lakes

A
shallow and warmer
good supply of nutrients
lots of biodiversity
murky, cloudy water.. bc of decomp and producers etc
many photosynthetic organisms
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253
Q

eutrophication

A

oligotrophic lakes slowly fill in because of erosion or drought, minerals falling to the bottom of the lake the lake fills in and then becomes eutrophic and then eventually dry land

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254
Q

as the lake gets shallower oxygen levels ___ and _____ increases

A

decrease and temperature increases

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255
Q

stromatolite

A

a banded limestone structure containing fossilized bacteria

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256
Q

artificial ecosystem

A

an ecosystem that is planned or maintained by humans… a park, a zoo, etc.

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257
Q

natural ecosystem

A

ecosystem in which the interactions are not changed purposely by humans

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258
Q

two types of biodiversity

A

species diversity and genetic diversity

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259
Q

species diversity

A

describes the number of different species

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260
Q

genetic diversity

A

the amount of variation in inherited traits between individuals of the SAME SPECIES

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261
Q

taxonomy definition

A

the science of classifying organisms … done by taxonimists

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262
Q

binomial nomenclature

A

a method of naming organisms by using two names - genus and species (genus, species is the order)

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263
Q

genus definition

A

the first part of a binomial name; a genus includes several species ALWAYS FIRST LETTER CAPITALIZED AND IT CAN BE WRITTEN ALONE… species always needs its genus and is never capitalized

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264
Q

species definition

A

a group of organisms that look alike and can breed with each other under NATURAL circumstances to produce FERTILE offspring

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265
Q

binomial nomenclature uses what language for the names

A

latin

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266
Q

taxa definition

A

categories used to classify organisms

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267
Q

8 taxa of classification system

A
Domain               Most inclusive to least inclusive
Kingdom              aka general to more specific
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
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268
Q

How to remember 8 taxa of the classification system

A

Dumb Kid Plays Chess On Freeway Gets Slaughtered

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269
Q

Phylogeny

A

the history of the evolution of organisms.. relationships shown in a phylogenetic tree

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270
Q

Protista Definition

A

a kingdom originally meant for only unicellular organisms … now multicellular algae is included in protista

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271
Q

Monera definition

A

in the 5 kingdom system its a kingdom that includes organisms that dont have a true nucleus

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272
Q

archaebacteria

A

in the six kingdom system; its a kingdom that has prokaryotic microorganisms , heterotrophs, live in salt lakes, hot springs and animal guts .. it has a cell wall does not contain peptidoglycan

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273
Q

prokaryote

A

A prokaryote is a single-celled organism that lacks a membrane-bound nucleus, mitochondria, or any other membrane-bound organelles.

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274
Q

eubacteria

A

in a six kingdom system; its a kingdom consisting of prokaryotic microorganisms that contain a peptidoglycan cell wall

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275
Q

A six kingdom system of classification

A
  1. Eubacteria
  2. Archaebacteria
  3. Protista
  4. Fungi
  5. Plantae
  6. Animalia
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276
Q

whats a phylogenetic tree

A

shows the relationships in the history of the evolution of species.. the tree starts from the most ancestral form and includes branchings that lead to all of its descendants

277
Q

dichotomous key definition

A

a two-part key used to identify living things.. Di=2

278
Q

how does a dichotomous key work

A

a series of choices must be made and each choice leads to a new branch of the key.. if the choices are made accurately the end result is the name of the organism being identified

279
Q

what is taxonomy used for

A

its used by biologists to identify organisms and recognize natural groupings of living things

280
Q

paleontology definition

A

the study of fossils

281
Q

direct evident of evolution comes from

A
fossils
radiometric dating (determining the age of a rock/fossil)
282
Q

radiometric dating definition

A

a technique used to determine the age of a rock or fossil

283
Q

biogeography definition

A

the study of the geographic distribution of life on Earth (how animals/organisms are distributed throughout the earth’s land..)

284
Q

endemic definition

A

a term used to describe a species that is found in one location only (evolved in isolation)

285
Q

what do fossils show about the difference between animals today and previously in time

A

fossils show that species living today are different from those living in the past, they reveal a progression of different species on earth over time from simple forms into more and more complex forms

286
Q

Indirect evidence of evolution examples

A
  • comparative anatomy (studying the anatomy of different species or fossils with current species)
  • homologous/analogous features
  • embryology
287
Q

patterns found in fossils

A
  1. different species lived on earth in the past
  2. organisms in the past were much simpler and farther in the future you get the more complex the organism get
  3. living species and their closely matching fossils are usually located in the same area
288
Q

homologous features definition

A

features with similar structures but different functions

289
Q

analogous features definition

A

look the same and kinda do the same thing but dont come from the same evolutionary origin (aka a bird wing and an insect wing)

290
Q

embryology definition

A

the study of organisms in their early stages of development.. closely related organisms go through similar stages in their development

291
Q

vestigial features definition

A

structures with no useful function (belief is they were once useful to an ancient ancestor)

292
Q

DNA definition

A

the molecule that makes up genetic material

293
Q

Gene definition

A

a segment of DNA that performs a specific function; such as coding for a particular protein

294
Q

The four bases in DNA

A

adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), guanine (G)

295
Q

artificial selection definition

A

the process of humans selecting a breeding individuals with the desired traits

296
Q

spontaneous generation definition

A

the belief that living things arose from non-living matter..

297
Q

inheritance of acquired characteristics definition

A

traits acquired in life time could be passed on to its offspring

298
Q

Lamarck’s Theory

A

He believed that VERY simple species were produced through spontaneous generation and then gradually became more complex. He believed that organisms had a desire to become better so they’d adapt for these desires or needs to survive (aka stretching out their neck to reach high food, growing a thumb to do stuff idk) he also believed in the use and disuse of things so if you used your right arm every day itd get stronger but if you never used your left one it’d fall off and your children would be born without left arms because theyre basically meaningless

299
Q

How does fossilization occur

A

-organic components of the organism are replaced by minerals
-impressions left by organisms are preserved by the solidification of mud
-organisms can sometimes be caught in amber
-can be found frozen in ice
acidic-bogs = slow decomp.. = never decompose

300
Q

convergent evolution

A

development of similar forms from unrelated species due to adaptation to similar environment (bird wing and butterfly wing).. analogous structures = not related but similar forms!

301
Q

inherited traits

A

determined by DNA, inherited by parent… hair, eye and skin colour

302
Q

acquired traits

A

developed over lifetime; basketball skills, music ability

303
Q

How does a change in DNA occur

A

through mutation, natural selection/variation

304
Q

theory of use and disuse

A

lamarck says that each body part possesses a will which allows it to change in order to better fit its environment (short necked giraffe stretches for food, slowly making its neck longer) if a body part is not used it will begin to disappear (animal in the dark losing eyesight)

305
Q

Darwin’s Theory of Evolution (5)

A
  1. overproduction
  2. variation
  3. competition
  4. survival of the fittest
  5. speciation (passing on successful traits)
    He believed in natural selection
306
Q

overproduction

A

the number of offspring produced by a species is greater than the number that can survive

307
Q

variation

A

differences found in the individual organisms of the same species.. no two individuals are exactly alike.. differences are caused by mutation and sexual reproduction

308
Q

natural selection

A

the best win - the organisms in a species with the best traits to survive … survive.. aka a blind cat would probably get killed compared to a not blind cat or a speedy cat would win over a super slow cat

309
Q

what two factors cause variation between individuals

A

mutations and sexual reproduction

310
Q

competition

A

because there are more organisms than resources they need to compete for these resources; nature picks which organisms survive

311
Q

survival of the fittest

A

the most fit (for the environment) survive…

312
Q

speciation

A

the surviving individuals reproduce with other survivors and pass on their good traits… over a bunch of generations new species arise by the accumulation of inherited traits that constantly change
when a type is produced that significantly different from the original = new species

313
Q

compare darwin and lamarck

A

darwin: organisms may vary regardless of the environment
lamarck: individuals change to suit their environment
darwin: then the environment determines whether their variation is good (survives) or not (cant compete)
lamarck: change is based on the need to be able to compete or want to change

314
Q

mutation definition

A

a change in the DNA sequence of a chromosome (can be caused by environment -chemicals or radiation- or when cells fuck up)

315
Q

neutral mutation

A

a mutation that has no effect on the organism

316
Q

fitness definition

A

an organisms reproductive success

317
Q

harmful mutation definition

A

a mutation that reduces an organisms fitness

318
Q

beneficial mutation definition

A

a mutation that enhances an organisms fitness

319
Q

why is there very little variation and evolution in asexual organisms like bacteria

A

bc they all clones of their parents so they all the same unless their is a beneficial mutation nothin gunna change

320
Q

gene pool definition

A

all the genes in a certain population

321
Q

speciation definiton

A

the fomration of a new species

322
Q

allopatric speciation definition

A

when two groups of organisms of the same species get separated somehow and end up in different environments and have to adapt to different things and their positive variations are different over time they become two different species because of the way they’ve adapted

323
Q

theory of gradualism

A

the idea that speciation takes place slowly

324
Q

theory of punctuated equilibrium

A

the idea that species evolve rapidly, followed by a period of little or no change

325
Q

divergent evolution

A

evolution into many different species.. homologous structures = related but different forms!!

326
Q

branching evolution

A

one or more species branch off a parent species which continues to exist

327
Q

biochemistry in evolution

A

The discoveries of RNA and of molecular fossils closely related to nucleic acids suggest that nucleic acids (and specifically, RNA) were crucial to Earth’s first life. These observations support the RNA world hypothesis, that early life used RNA for basic cellular processes (instead of the mix of proteins, RNA, and DNA used by modern organisms

328
Q

what is ATP

A

energy in a form the cell can use (adenosine triphosphate)

329
Q

ATP is made from the joining of ______ with another _____ molecule.. it forms the high energy bond

A

Adenosine Di-Phosphate (ADP) + Phosphate molecule (P) = Adenosine Tri-Phosphate (ATP) – ADP+P = ATP

330
Q

What is ATP used for?

A

motion, transport ions/molecules,building molecules, everything in ur cells and body!!

331
Q

stored energy = ____ energy

A

potential

332
Q

electrons are ______ charged

A

negatively

333
Q

protons are _____ charged

A

positively

334
Q

what is photosynthesis

A

the process that converts energy from the sun into chemical energy that is used by living cells

335
Q

photon definition

A

a packet of light

short wavelength: high energy
long wavelength: low energy

336
Q

what is light

A

its a form of the electromagnetic radiation that travels as waves, one wavelength=one photon.. light is the visible portion our eyes perceive photons of different wavelengths as different colours

337
Q

what is the balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis

A

6CO₂ + 6H₂O -> C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

338
Q

Photosynthesis only occurs in ______ because they contain a special pigment called _____

A

plants, algae, some protists, and cyanobacteria because they all have chlorophyll which is necessary to carry out photosynthesis

339
Q

chlorophyll definition

A

the light absorbing green-coloured pigment that begins the process of photosynthesis

340
Q

where is chlorophyll located

A

in the chloroplast

341
Q

whats all inside the chloroplast

A

thylakoids and stroma

342
Q

whats the thylakoid in the chloroplast

A

they’re little disk things …

343
Q

where is the site of light dependant reaction in photosynthesis

A

thylakoid of chloroplast

344
Q

granum

A

one stack of thylakoids

345
Q

grana

A

many stacks of thylakoids

346
Q

whats stroma in the chloroplast

A

the gel surrounding the thylakoids

347
Q

whats the site of light independent reaction/calvin cycle during photosynthesis

A

the stroma in the chloroplast

348
Q

white light is composed of what colours

A

all colours of the rainbow

349
Q

chlorophyll a absorbs

A

blue green

350
Q

chlorophyll b absorbs

A

yellow - green

351
Q

pigment carotenoids absorb

A

orange

352
Q

pigment xanthophyll absorbs

A

yellow

353
Q

why do leaves in the fall change

A

in the summer with the warm temperature there are high amounts of chlorophyll which reflect green light, but in the fall the temperature cools and there is less chlorophyll allowing the other pigments to reflect orange/yellow/red light instead of being overpowered by green chlorophyll

354
Q

what are chlorophyll a & b’s job in photosynthesis

A

chlorophyll a is the only pigment that can transfer the energy from sunlight to the reactions for photosynthesis , chlorophyll b acts as an extra pigment picking up the photons that chlorophyll a forgot, or absorbed rlly shittily

355
Q

what is the primary light absorbing pigment in all photosynthetic organisms?

A

chlorophyll

356
Q

chloroplast definition

A

a membrane-bound organelle in green plant algae cells that carries out photosynthesis

357
Q

stroma definition

A

the protein rich semiliquid material in the inside of a chloroplast

358
Q

within the stroma a system of membrane-bound sacs called ______ stack on top of one another to form columns called ____

A

thylakoids…. called:grana

359
Q

lamellae definition

A

grana (stacks of thylakoids) are connected by lamellae (unstacked thylakoids)

360
Q

thylakoid membrane definition

A

the photosynthetic membrane within a chloroplast that contains light-gathering pigments and ETC

361
Q

thylakoid lumen definition

A

the fluid filled spaces inside a thylakoid

362
Q

what are the two steps in photosynthesis

A

light dependant reaction and then light independant reaction

363
Q

briefly describe the light dependant reaction going on in the thylakoid membrane

A

water, and light energy are absorbed and oxygen is produced, ATP and NADPH(carrying electrons) then go to the light independant reaction

364
Q

briefly describe the light independent reaction going on in the stroma

A

carbon dioxide is absorbed and the ATP, NADPH is taken and glucose is produced

365
Q

describe a chloroplast

A

they have an outer membrane and an inner membrane. in between the membranes contains gel( stroma) which is surrounding thylakoids (bunch of disks stacked up) .. the membranes contain chlorophyll molecules and ETC

366
Q

ATP definition

A

a molecule containing three high energy phosphate bonds that acts as the primary energy transferring molecule in living organisms

367
Q

ADP definition

A

a molecule containing two high energy phosphate bonds … (ADP+P=ATP.. ATP-P=ADP)

368
Q

NADP⁺

A

a compound that accepts one hydrogen atom and two electrons forming NADPH .. its an electron acceptor (PHOTOSYNTHESIS)

369
Q

NADPH

A

A compound that donates one hydrogen atom and two electrons to another molecule to reform NADP⁺; its an electron donor (pHOTOSYNTHESIS)

370
Q

each molecule of glucose is synthesized from __ molecules of carbon dioxide and __ molecules of water

A

6&6

371
Q

energy is _____ when ADP+P=ATP and ATP-P=ATP ______ energy

A

energy is stored when ATP is formed and this same energy is released when the ATP is broken back into an ADP and P

372
Q

carbon fixation definition

A

changing CO₂ into organic molecules

373
Q

light dependant reactions definition

A

(THYLAKOID) the first set of reactions of photosynthesis in which light energy excites electrons in chlorophyll molecules, powerS chemiosmotic ATP synthesis and results in the reductions of NADP⁺ to NADPH

374
Q

light independent reactions definition

A

(STROMA) the second set of reactions in photosynthesis (the calvin cycle); these reactions do not require solar energy

375
Q

calvin cycle defintiion

A

(STOMRA)a cyclic set of reactions occurring in the stroma of chloroplasts that fixes the carbon of CO₂ into carbohydrate molecules and recycles coenzymes

376
Q

Name three energy containing molecles that are made during photosynthesis

A

ATP, NADPH, Glucose

377
Q

Where do the light-dependant reactions of photosynthesis take place?

A

Thylakoids of chloroplast

378
Q

Where does carbon fixation/light independent reaction take place?

A

stroma of chloroplast

379
Q

photosystem definition

A

a cluster of photosynthetic pigments embedded in a thylakoid membrane of a chloroplast that absorbs light energy (photosystem I&II)

380
Q

electron transport chain definition

A

(ETC) a series of progressively stronger electron acceptors, each time an electron is transferred, energy is released

381
Q

photolysis defintion

A

a chemical reaction in which a compound is broken down by light ; in photosynthesis , water molecules are split by photolysis

382
Q

Explain the ETC

A

In thylakoid; A photon hits chlorophyll, an e⁻ in PSII absorbs the photon making it excited, the e⁻ goes through the ETC (by a series of redox reaction)to lose all its energy, this energy is used to pump H⁺ into thylakoid from stroma .. when e⁻ has gone through the ETC and has no energy it gets reenergized at PSI and here it will bond with an H⁺ and NADP⁺ and leaves the thylakoid as NADPH

383
Q

What is the role of electron donors/acceptors in the ETC

A

-donors (NADPH) lose electrons, acceptors (NADP⁺) gain electrons.. when a molecule gains electrons (reduced), it releases energy
-> NADP⁺ —release–> NADPH
NADPH then donates electrons to other molecules

384
Q

What happens to the electrons released during photolysis?

A

when one water molecule splits two electrons are removed , energy from the sun excites the e⁻ in PSII. The energy is slowly released when passed down the ETC

385
Q

What is the role of oxidations and reductions in the ETC

A

they release energy in small amounts

386
Q

NADPH molecules are used to do what

A

to transfer high energy electrons to the calvin cycle/light independent reaction

387
Q

When are hydrogen ions released into the thylakoid lumen

A

When light breaks water (photolysis)the H⁺ goes into the lumen, electrons enter PS11 and we breath in the Oxygen, when the electrons go through to ETC the electron’s energy is used to pump more hydrogen ions into the lumen, a whole bunch of H accumulates into the lumen

388
Q

Where are photosystems I & II located

A

thylakoid membrane

389
Q

What does the calvin cycle use to do what

A

it uses NADPH and ATP to reduce CO₂ -> G3P which is used to make glucose and other carbohydrates

390
Q

What happens when H⁺ begins to pile up in the thylakoid lumen

A

when theirs too many H⁺ in the lumen, H⁺ move from the lumen to the stroma through protein channels called ATP synthase complexes - the H⁺ goes through and they release energy; the ATP synthase complex uses the released energy to combine ADP and P making ATP (this is called chemiosmosis) – this all takes place in the thylakoid membrane

391
Q

Name the final product of the calvin cycle, what happens to this compound

A

G3P- it is used to make glucose

392
Q

chemiosmosis definition

A

a process for synthesizing ATP using the energy of an electrochemical gradient (H⁺ gathering in the lumen [photosynthesis] or intermembrane space [cell resp.]) and ATP synthase complex

393
Q

ATP synthase complex definition

A

a specialized protein complex embedded in the thylakoid membrane that allows H⁺ ions to escape the lumen resulting in energy to create ATP

394
Q

OIL RIG

A

Oxidizing is losing [an electron]

Reduction is gaining [an electron]

395
Q

Oxidation definition

A

a reaction in which an atom or molecule loses electrons

396
Q

reduction definition

A

a reaction in which an atom or molecule gains an electron

397
Q

Why is the production of NADPH important IN PHOTOSYNTHESIS

A

used to transfer high energy electrons to the calvin cycle

398
Q

How are the electrons passed onto the ETC replaced

A

replaced by photolysis of water.. H2O Is broken by light and 2 electrons are removed, 2 hydrogens go to the lumen and O we breath in

399
Q

What are all the products of the light dependant reaction

A

Oxygen, ATP and NADPH

400
Q

Where do electrons come from in photosynthesis

A

when photolysis occurs in photosynthesis (Light splitting one water molecule) 2 electrons are removed

401
Q

How does getting electrons through photolysis work?

A

the light splits H2O up into 2H⁺ and one Oxygen, when water is split energy is released resulting in 2 electrons

402
Q

Explain how ATP is made

A

Photolysis-puts H⁺ into thylakoid lumen, when electrons go through ETC more H⁺ is pushed into the thylakoid lumen,the H⁺ piles up in the lumen and they want to leave so they go through the ATP synthase complex and when they go through it energy is released and the ATP synthase complex uses this released energy to join ADP and P to make ATP

403
Q

Explain how NADPH is made

A

after electrons go through ETC and lost their energy they enter PSI and absorb more photons , H⁺ are going through the ATP synthase complex and NADP⁺ picks up the energy charged electron in PSI and H⁺ ion leaving the ATP synthase complex and forms NADPH

404
Q

What reactants are needed for the calvin cycle

A

ATP, NADPH, CO2 —-> G3P-> carbohydrate (glucose)

405
Q

How do the reactants ATP, NADPH, CO2 needed for calvin cycle contribute to the formation of glucose

A

Glucose is C6H12O6, So NADPH gives it the Hydrogens, CO2 gives it the carbon and oxygen… ATP is there for energy etc..

406
Q

What factors affect the rate of photosynthesis

A

carbon dioxide levels, light intensity, the wavelength or “color” of light the plant is absorbing

407
Q

How does light intensity affect photosynthesis

A

the more light available for the plant, the more photosynthesis will occur, however there is a point where there can be too much light and the rate of photosynthesis will go down

408
Q

Best colours of light for photosynthesis in order

A
  1. blue
  2. red

worst is yellow

409
Q

cellular respiration _________ energy

A

releases

410
Q

balanced formula for cellular respiration

A

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ -> 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + chemical energy

411
Q

What is cellular respiration

A

process by which cells break down glucose into carbon dioxide and water, releasing energy

412
Q

the two types of cellular respiration

A

aerobic (OXYGEN)

anaerobic (NO OXYGEN)

413
Q

NADH definition

A

electron carrier, donates electrons in CELLULAR RESPIRATION

414
Q

NAD⁺ definition

A

an electron carrier, accepts electrons in CELLULAR RESPIRATION

415
Q

FADH₂ definition

A

an electron carrier, donates electrons in CELLULAR RESPIRATION

416
Q

FAD⁺ definition

A

an electron carrier, accepts electrons in CELLULAR RESPIRATION

417
Q

What are FAD⁺,FADH₂,NAD⁺,NADH roles in cellular respiration

A

transfer electrons through oxidation-reduction reactions (OIL RIG)

418
Q

How do the oxidation and reduction reactions in electron transfer help form ATP?

A

Energy released from the oxidation-reduction reactions is used to attach a free phosphate to ADP to make ATP

419
Q

active transport defintiion

A

the movement of substances through a membrane against a concentration gradient using membrane bound carrier proteins and energy from ATP

420
Q

sodium-potassium pump definition

A

an active transport mechanism that pumps sodium and potassium ions into and out of a cell

421
Q

what is active transport used for in cellular respiration

A

active transport can be used to move substances either into or out of the cell

422
Q

give specific examples of ATP use in the body

A
  • used to expand and contract muscles
  • changes shapes of molecules which changes its functions
  • powers active transport of molecules across a membrane
423
Q

One glucose molecule has 100 times more stored energy than one ATP molecule, explain why cells can’t use glucose.. and how they get the energy from glucose

A

the glucose energy cannot be directly used by the cell,it is too much for the cells to handle and must be broken up into smaller portions to be used .. in cellular respiration some of the energy in glucose is converted into ATP

424
Q

the energy released by cellular respiration is used to do what

A

used to make ATP

425
Q

when glucose, carbohydrates, other food molecules are converted to ATP how much is actually converted into usable ATP, and how much is released as heat

A

about 36% is turned into ATP while 64% is released as heat

426
Q

What organisms use the 64% heat “waste” released when glucose is turned into ATP

A

mammals and birds, warm blooded animals use it to heat themselves.

427
Q

aerobic cellular respiration definition

A

the set of reactions that takes place in the cell in the presence of oxygen and releases energy stored in glucose

428
Q

what are the end products of aerobic cellular respiration

A

carbon dioxide gas, water, and 36 ATP molecules

429
Q

What are the four stages of aerobic cellular respiration

A
  1. glycolysis
  2. pyruvate oxidation
  3. the Krebs cycle
  4. the ETC and chemiosmosis
430
Q

The equation summarizing aerobic cellular respiration

A

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ + 36ADP + 36P -> 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + 36ATP

431
Q

anaerboic cellular respiration definition

A

the set of reactions that takes place in the cell in the ABSENCE OF OXYGEN and releases energy stored in glucose

432
Q

two types of anaerobic cellular respiration

A
  1. glycolysis

2. fermentation

433
Q

where do both types of anaerobic cellular respiration take place

A

in the cytoplasm of the cell

434
Q

Aerobic respiration takes place in the _____ of oxygen and produces _____ ATP per glucose molecule

A

takes place in the presence of oxygen and produces 36 ATP per glucose molecule

435
Q

Anaerobic respiration takes place in the _____ of oxygen and produces _____ ATP per glucose molecule

A

takes place in the absence of oxygen and produces 2 ATP per glucose molecule

436
Q

glycolysis definition

A

a process for harnessing energy in which a glucose molecule is broken into two pyruvate molecules in the cytoplasm of the cell

437
Q

where does glycolyisis take place

A

in the cytoplasm

438
Q

glycolysis splits a _ carbon glucose molecule into two _ carbon ______ molecules

A

splits a 6 carbon glucose molecule into two 3 carbon pyruvate molecules

439
Q

simply explain glycolyisis

A

2 ATP are split into 2P&2ADP; releasing energy. At the same time 2 NAD⁺ ions take in H⁺ to form two NADH molecules.. releasing H⁺ into the cytoplasm.. enough energy is released to join 4 ADP+4P to make 4 ATP.. when glycolysis is done the cell has consumed a single glucose molecule and produced 2 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvate molecules

440
Q

reactants of glycolysis

A

glucose, 2NAD⁺, 2ATP, 4ADP

441
Q

products of glycolysis

A

2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP

442
Q

Equation for glycolysis

A

glucose + 2 ATP + 2 NAD⁺ + 4 ADP + 4 P-> 2 pyruvate + 2 ADP + 2 P + 2 NADH + 4 ATP

443
Q

After glycolysis only a small portion of the energy of glucose has been converted to ATP .. in what form is the rest of the usable energy found at this stage of the process

A

the remaining energy is currently in the 2 pyruvate molecules and NADH moelcules

444
Q

Where do the last 3 stages of aerobic cellular respiration take place (the first one being glycolysis in the cytoplasm)

A

pyruvate oxidation, the krebs cycle, and the etc all take place in the mitochondria

445
Q

mitochondria definition

A

a eukaryotic (has nucleus) cell organelle in which aerobic cellular respiration occurs - scattered throughout a cyctoplasm - produce large quantities of ATP

446
Q

mitochondrial matrix definition

A

the fluid that fills the interior space of the mitochondrion

447
Q

intermembrane space definition

A

the fluid - filled space between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes

448
Q

214 of ur textbook look at the pictures n memorize em

A

do it

449
Q

pyruvate oxidation connects what

A

connects glycolysis in the cytoplasm with the krebs cycle in the mitochondrial matrix

450
Q

stage 2; pyruvate oxidation starts when..

A

the 2 pyruvate molecules that were made from a single glucose molecule are transported through the two mitochondrial membranes into the matrix .. once there, three things happen

451
Q

what 3 things happen when the 2 pyruvate molecules enter the mitochondrial matrix

A
  1. CO2 is removed from each pyruvate and released as waste
  2. the remaining 2 Carbon portions are oxidized by NAD+ and each NAD+ gains 2 H+ (2 pro, 2 electrons) from the pyruvate molecule and the remaining 2-carbon compound becomes acetic acid
  3. Acetyl CoA attach’s to the acetic acid forming acetyl - CoA.. this thing goes to the krebs cycle
452
Q

Summarize glycolysis (anaerobic and aerobic) (happens in the cytoplasm)

A

starts with glucose(C6H12O6), 2 ATP are used, 2 NAD+ each take 2H (C6H8O6) and 2 electrons = 2NADH, 4 ADP+4P=4ATP..the glucose split into 2 C3H4O3 (pyruvate).. one glucose has now been made into 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate and 2 ATP.. the two ATP made here are added to the total count at the end

453
Q

Chemical equation of a pyruvate molecule

A

C3H4O3

454
Q

Summarize pyruvate oxidation (aerobic) (mitochondrial matrix)

A

starts with 2 pyruvate that have come from the cytoplasm to the matrix, a CO2 is removed from each pyruvate and released as waste.. NAD+ takes 2 H and electrons from pyruvate this turns the remaining two carbons into an acetyl group.. turning pyruvate into an acetic acid ..Hydrogens go into NAD+.. CoA attaches to the acetic acid = 2 Acetyl CoA.. Acetyl CoA enters the Krebs Cycle, the 2 NADH produced enter stage 4 (ETC)

455
Q

Krebs Cycle definition

A

a cyclic series of reactions that transfers energy from organic molecules to ATP, NADH, and FADH2, and removes carbon atoms as CO2

456
Q

Since two molecules of acetyl CoA are formed from one molecule of glucose, the Krebs cycle occurs ______ for each molecule of glucose processed

A

TWICE

457
Q

As acetyl CoA enters the cycle the CoA is released so where does it go

A

it gets used all over again for the next pyruvate

458
Q

during one complete cycle of the Krebs cycle a total of __ NAD+, and __ FAD are reduced to form __ NADHs and __ FADH2

A

a total of 3 NAD+ and one FAD are reduced to form 3 NADHs and one FADH2

459
Q

During one complete cycle how many ATPès are made

A

One, but because 1 glucose = 2 krebs cycles that in total would be 2 ATP formed per 1 glucose molecule processed

460
Q

During one complete cycle of the krebs cycle two CO2 are produced, what happens to them

A

they’re released as waste

461
Q

By the end of the krebs cycle all of the Carbon in glucose has been tunred into

A

Carbon dioxide and released as waste

462
Q

What are the products of one cycle through the krebs cycle (so double this)

A

2 Carbon dioxide thats released as waste, 3 NADH that go on to the etc, and one FADH2 that also moves on to the etc also 1 ATP

463
Q

how does the ETC (stage4) work?

A

electrons (carried in by FADH2 AND NADH (nadh is stronger of the two..) go through the ETC, slowly releasing energy, this energy being released forced H+ from the matrix across the inner membrane to the intermembrane space (where they all pile up), the electron is now low in energy at the end of the ETC, oxygen takes away the electron from the final carrier and forms with 2 hydrogens from the matrix to make water. making oxygen the FINAL ELECTRON ACCEPTOR IN THE ETC

464
Q

how does chemiosmosis and oxidative ATP synthase work

A

the H+ that has piled up in the intermembrane space during the ETC , they want out and are forced out through ATP synthase complex (chemiosmosis).. when it goes through the ATP synthase complex the energy released forced ADP and P to make ATP.. once the ATP is formed they are transported through both membranes and into the cytoplasm

465
Q

how many ATP is made per NADH and FADH2 that brought electrons

A

the amount of electrons brought in by one NADH can make 3 ATP and the amount of electrons brought in by one FADH can make 2 ATP

466
Q

oxidative ATP synthesis definition

A

the production of ATP from a series of oxidation reactions

467
Q

Total ATP made in cellular respiration from one glucose?

A

36

468
Q

alcohol fermentation definition

A

a form of fermentation occurring in yeast in which NADH passes its hydrogen atoms to acetaldehyde, generating carbon dioxide, ethanol and NAD+

469
Q

lactic acid fermentation definition

A

a form of fermentation occurring in animal cells which NADH transfers its hydrogen atoms to pyruvate, regenerating NAD+ and lactic acid

470
Q

alcohol fermentation creates what from glucose

A

ethanol and carbon dioxide which are released as waste products

471
Q

when is lactic acid fermentation a thing

A

during exercise.. additional ATP are produced from lactic acid fermentation when u using all ur energy to workout thats why you pant bc u aint using oxygen to make that ATP

472
Q

what is lactic acid fermentation

A

anaerobic respiration after glycolysis lactic acid is made, making the end products 2 atp and lactic acid

473
Q

In alcohol fermentation a molecule of ___ is removed from ______ forming ______.. the _____ is converted to _____ by attaching hydrogen from NADH

A

CO2 is removed from pyruvate forming acetaldehyde, acetaldehyde is converted to ethanol ..

474
Q

In lactic acid fermentation, pyruvate molecules accept ____ from NADHs and form ______

A

accept hydrogens and form lactic acid

475
Q

alcohol fermentation occurs in ____ cells and is used in what food making

A

occurs in yeast cells and is used in wine, beer, and bread making

476
Q

chemicals of life

A

vitamins and minerals, lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids

477
Q

carbohydrate definition

A

a molecule composed of sugar subunits that contain carbon , hydrogen, and oxygen 1:2:1 ratio

478
Q

when carbohydrates are not used (aka you dont do anything that requires energy aka u sit down all day) what happens to them

A

if there is too much of them not being used they get stored as fat… BREAD MAKES U FAT?!?!

479
Q

polymer defintion

A

a molecule composed of three or more subunits

480
Q

monosaccharide definition

A

a single sugar unit

481
Q

isomer definition

A

one of a group of chemicals that have the same chemical formula but different arrangements of the atoms

482
Q

most sugars end in what suffix

A

“ose”

483
Q

what are 3 common monosaccharides

A

glucose, fructose, and galactose (they are all isomers - they all have the same chemical formula)

484
Q

the combination of what forms a disaccharide

A

the combination of two monosaccharides

485
Q

sucrose is a disacharide formed from what

A

gluicose and fructose

486
Q

maltose is a disaccharide from what

A

two glucose

487
Q

lactose is a dissacharide from what

A

glucose and galactose

488
Q

disacharides are formed from what process

A

dehydration synthesis/dehydrolysis

489
Q

dissacharide definition

A

a sugar formed by the joining of two monosaccharides

490
Q

dehydration synthesis/dehydrolysis definition

A

the process by which larger molecules are formed by the removal of water from two smaller molecules (removing water from two monosaccharides to form disaccharide)

491
Q

hydrolysis definition

A

the process by which larger molecules are split into smaller molecules by the addition of water (water breaks disaccharide into 2 monosaccharides)

492
Q

polysaccharide definition

A

a carbohydrate composed of many monosaccharide subunits

493
Q

starch definition

A

a plant polysaccharide made of many subunits of glucose… used to store energy

494
Q

glycogen definition

A

the form of carbohydrate storage in animals

495
Q

cellulose definition

A

a plant polysaccharide that makes up plant cell walls

496
Q

starches can exist in what two forms

A

amylose and amylopectin

497
Q

triglyceride definition

A

a lipid composed of glycerol and 3 fatty acids

498
Q

fat definition

A

a lipid composed of glycerol and saturated fatty acids; solid at room temperature

499
Q

oil definition

A

a lipid composed of glycerol and unsaturated fatty acids; liquid at room temperature

500
Q

glycerol and fatty acids can be combined by what?

A

dehydration synthesis..

501
Q

how are triglycerides formed?

A

by the union of glycerol and 3 fatty acids through dehydration synthesis

502
Q

What do lipids do for our bodies

A

part of cell membranes, cushion organs, vitamin carriers and help make hormones, keeps us warm in the cold

503
Q

wax definition

A

a long-chain fatty acids joined to long chained alcohols or carbon rings.. lipid that is insoluble in water.. very stable.. good for waterproofing things like plant leaves animal feathers ..

504
Q

phospholipid definition

A

a lipid with a phosphate molecule attached to the glycerol backbone, making the molecule polar; the major components of cell membranes

505
Q

protein definition

A

a chain of amino acids that form the structural parts of cells or act as antibodies or enzymes.. folded and coiled into specific shapes

506
Q

amino acids definition

A

a chemical that contains nitrogen; can be linked together to form proteins

507
Q

proteins are made of building blocks called

A

amino acids

508
Q

peptide bond definition

A

the bond that joins amino acids

509
Q

polypeptide definition

A

a chain of three or more amino acids

510
Q

essential amino acid definition

A

an amino acid that must be obtained from FOOOOD (8 of them)

511
Q

a proteins shape or structure determines what?

A

its function.. the structure is determined by its sequence of amino acids

512
Q

4 types of proteins

A

primary protein structure, secondary protein structure, tertiary protein structure, quaternary protein structure

513
Q

whats the primary protein structure

A

every protein starts at this level.. its the unique arrangement of amino acids in the polypeptide

514
Q

whats the secondary protein structure

A

the coiling and folding of amino acid chains (Polypeptides).. caused by hydrogen bonds

515
Q

whats the tertiary protein structure

A

the coiled and folded polypeptide is further twisted into a 3D shape

516
Q

whats the quaternary protein structure

A

when multiple polypeptidescome together

517
Q

denaturation definition

A

changes in the shape of a protein by physical or chemical factors .. once dealt with it can go back to its original form

518
Q

coagulation definition

A

permanent change in the shape of a protein.. cooking an egg is an example.. if you cool it off again it will be forever cooked

519
Q

chemical reactions occur when?

A

when molecules collide

520
Q

what does adding thermal energy do for chemical reactions

A

adding thermal energy makes molecules move faster which creates more collisions which increases the chance of a chemical reaction.. however too much can destroy the cell

521
Q

catalyst definition

A

a chemical that increases the rate of chemical reactions without altering the products or being altered itself (used over and over again)

522
Q

enzyme definition

A

a protein catalyst that permits chemical reactions to proceed at low temperatures

523
Q

substrate definition

A

a molecule on which an enzyme works

524
Q

active site definition

A

the area of an enzyme that combines with the substrate

525
Q

cofactor definition

A

an inorganic ion that helps an enzyme combine with a substrate molecule

526
Q

coenzyme definition

A

an organic molecule synthesized from a vitamin that helps an enzyme to combine with a substrate molecule

527
Q

enzymes are identified by what suffix

A

“ase”

528
Q

What factors affect enzyme reactions

A

pH, Substrate molecule concentration, temperature, competitive inhibition

529
Q

how does pH affect enzyme reactions

A

different enzymes function better in specific pH’s

530
Q

how does substrate molecule concentration affect enzyme reactions

A

substrates are a molecule on which an enzyme works.. the more substrate molecules available for enzymes to attach to, the more chance of a collision and a chemical reaction… however if there are way more substrates than enzymes eventually theyll just be extras floatin around doin nothing till the enzymes free again

531
Q

how does temperature affects enzymes

A

reaction rates increase as the temperature increases (thermal energy = reactions.. remember?) the high temp makes the molecules move faster = more collisions.. at too high temperatures proteins change shape .. then theyre less effective or not effective at all bc the substate cant bind anymore

532
Q

how competitive inhibition effects enzymes

A

inhibitors are shaped a lot like substrate and compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active site.. when inhibitors are joined to the enzyme the substrate cant bind with the enzyme and it doesnt function properly

533
Q

competitive inhibitor definition

A

a molecule with a shape complementary to a specific enzyme that competes with the substrate for access to the active site of the enzyme and blocks chemical reactions

534
Q

feedback inhibition definition

A

final product builds up then some of the final product will stop the enzymes to limit production rates

535
Q

metabolic pathways

A

orderly sequences of chemical reactions, with enzymes regulating each step of the reaction

536
Q

precursor activity definition

A

the activation of the last enzyme in a metabolic pathway by the initial substrate

537
Q

allosteric activity definition

A

a change in an enzyme caused by the binding of a molecule

538
Q

the 4 components of the digestive process

A
  1. ingestion (eating)
  2. digestion (enzymes breaking down food)
  3. absorption (transport digested nutrients to the cells)
  4. egestion (remove food waste)
539
Q

where does physical (Mechanical) digestion begin and what does it do

A

in the mouth, where food is chewed and formed into bolus by the tongue .. it breaks food into smaller pieces increasing the surface area for chemical digestion

540
Q

amylase definition

A

an enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates

541
Q

about salivary glands (3)

A

saliva is produced here, saliva contains amylase (breaks down carbs), it gives us tastes and makes food slippery and swallowable

542
Q

about the esophagus

A

brings food from mouth to stomach, peristaltic contractions move the food down the tube,

543
Q

peristalsis/peristaltic contractions

A

contractions that make the food in the esophagus move from the mouth to the stomach down the tube

544
Q

where is initial protein digestion

A

the stomach

545
Q

about the stomach

A

food storage, protein digestion, 3 layers of muscles.. muscle contractions churn food, can expand to hold more food, cells line the inner wall; they secrete various fluids that help with digestion, contractions of the stomach mix the food with stomach fluids (gastric fluids)

546
Q

what does gastric fluid (stomach fluid) contain?

A

mucus, hydrochloric acid (HCl), pepsinogens and more…

547
Q

what does hydrochloric acid (HCl) do (in stomach)

A

kills harmful substances ingested with food, converts pepsinogen to pepsin which is a protein digesting enzyme

548
Q

what regulates the movement of food from the esophagus to the stomach and to leave the stomach?

A

sphincters

549
Q

what are sphincters

A

a muscle that regulates the opening and closing of a tubelike structure

550
Q

what regulates the movement of food from the esophagus to the stomach and to leave the stomach?

A

lower esophageal sphincter (allows food into the stomach) and the pyloric sphincter (food to leave to the small intestine)………sphincters

551
Q

what are sphincters and how do they wrok

A

a muscle that regulates the opening and closing of a tubelike structure.. contraction closes the opening and relaxation allows things to enter through

552
Q

contractions of the stomach do what

A

mix the food with gastric juices/fluid

553
Q

what kind of digestion is the stomach

A

both chemical and physical

554
Q

mucus definition

A

a protective lubricating substance composed of mostly protein

555
Q

pepsin definition

A

a protein digesting enzyme produced in the stomach

556
Q

what is the pH of a stomach

A

2.0-3.0 .. very acidic

557
Q

how does the stomach protect itself from the protein digesting enzymes and the acid

A

a layer of alkaline mucus

558
Q

whats heartburn

A

because the esophagus doesnt have that mucus lining the stomach has, if some of the acid in the stomach gets into the esophagus thats heartburn

559
Q

ulcer definition

A

a lesion on the surface of an organ

560
Q

how do you get ulcers

A

when the mucus lining of the stomach breaks down the cell membrane is exposed to hydrochloric acid and pepsin.. the destruction of the cell membrane leads to a peptic ulcer

561
Q

in which area of the small intestine does most digestion occur

A

the first 25-30 cm called the duodenum; does digestion

562
Q

whats the second part of the small intestine

A

jejunum; does absorption

563
Q

whats the third part of the small intestine

A

ileum; does absorption

564
Q

how does the small intestine move things through the tube

A

much like the esophagus through peristalsis

565
Q

what happens in the small intestine

A

secretes digestive enzymes, absorption occurs here

566
Q

villi definition

A

small fingerlike things extending into the small intestine to increase surface area for absorption .. covered in microvilli

567
Q

microvilli definition

A

microscopic fingerlike things further increasing surface area for absorption

568
Q

important chemical testsd

A
  1. benedicts reagent
  2. iodine test
  3. biuret
  4. sudan IV dye
569
Q

iodine test

A

TEST FOR STARCH, .. when negative it remains amber, when there is starch it turns black/blue

570
Q

biuret test

A

TEST FOR PROTEIN.. its blue.. when no protein is present (negative) it remains blue.. when positive it turns purple

571
Q

sudan IV

A

TEST FOR FAT… if fat is present a red or pink colour will result

572
Q

translucence test

A

TEST FOR FAT.. if theres fat rubbing it on unglazed paper will make it clear

573
Q

whats the induced fit model

A

the shape of the active site on an enzyme does not EXACTLY fit the substrate and the substrate forces its way

574
Q

examples of inhibitor moelcules

A

cyanide, carbon monoxide, penicillin

575
Q

acid definition

A

pH lower than 7

576
Q

base definition

A

pH higher than 7

577
Q

metabolism definition

A

all chemical reactions that occur within cells

578
Q

monomer definition

A

basic subunit used to build larger moelcules

579
Q

catabolic reactions definition

A

complex chemicals broken down into smaller units

580
Q

anabolic reactions definition

A

small units combine to make larger molecules

581
Q

each villus (villi) has what to do what

A

capillaries and lacteals.. capillaries absorb monosaccharide and amino acids to the circulatory system (carbs and protein) and fats are absorbed through lacteals to the circulatory system

582
Q

lacteal definition

A

small vessel that transports the products of fat digestion to the circulatory system

583
Q

capillary definition

A

blood vessel that connects arteries and veins.. site of fluid and gas exchange

584
Q

secretin definition

A

a hormone released from the duodenum that stimulates pancreatic and bile secretions

585
Q

because food gets all covered in hydrochloric acid and pepsin in the stomach, how does the small intestine protect itself from this stuff?

A

when the food enters the small intestine covered in HCl and pepsin, prosecretin is converted into secretin bc of the acids.. secretin is absorbed into the bloodstream and carried to the pancreas where it signals the release of fluid which contains NaHCO3 that get carried to the small intestine and buffer the HCl and raise the pH to 8.0 the basic pH inactivates pepsin

586
Q

what all does pancreatic secretion contain

A

NaHCO3 (raises pH)
Amylase (breaks down carbohydrates)
lipase (breaks down lipids)
trypsin and chymotrypsin (Break down protein)

587
Q

enterokinase definition

A

an enzyme of the small intestine that converts trypsinogen to trypsin

588
Q

trypsin definition

A

a portein digesting enzyme

589
Q

erepsin definition

A

an enzyme that completes protein digestion by converting short-chain peptides into amino acids

590
Q

lipase defintion

A

a lipid digesting enzyme

591
Q

summarize the protein digestion in the small intestine

A

trypsin: protein to peptides
erepsin: peptides to amino acids

592
Q

summarize the carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine

A

pancreatic amylase: starch to maltose

maltase: maltose to glucose

593
Q

what produces bile

A

the liver

594
Q

bile salt definition

A

a part of bile that breaks down large fat globules

595
Q

when the stomach is empty where is bile held

A

the gallbladder

596
Q

when there are fats in the small intestine what hormone is released

A

cholecystokinin (CCK)

597
Q

cholecystokinin (CCK) definitin

A

a hormone secreted by the small intestine that stimulates the release of bile salts

598
Q

the breakdown of fat into smaller droplets is what kind of digestion

A

PHYSICAL… The physical digestion of fat prepares it for the chemical digestion by creating a larger surface area for enzymes to act on

599
Q

how does CCK work

A

fats enter the duodenum and stimulate the release of the hormone CCK, CCK is carried by the bloodstream to the gallbladder, CCK stimulates the release of bile salts from the gallbladder, bile salts emulsify fats

600
Q

Various functions of the liver

A

makes bile salts, and holds em in the gallbladder; makes blood protein, forms urea from a nitrogen group in amino acids, maintains blood sugar level, stores glycogen, stores some vitamins, converts harmful things (alcohol) into less harmful things

601
Q

gallstone definition

A

crystals of bile salts that form in the gallbladder

602
Q

jaundice definition

A

the yellowish discolouration of the skin and other tissues brought about by the collection of bile pigments in the blood (pile of gallstones)

603
Q

cirrhosis definition

A

chronic inflammation of the liver tissue characterized by the growth of nonfunctioning fibrous tissue

604
Q

colon definition

A

the largest segment of the large intestine where water reabsorption occurs

605
Q

material not absorbed by the end of the small intestine enters what

A

the large intestine through the ilial-caecal sphincter

606
Q

what is the caecum

A

a small pouch at the beginning of the small intestine that has the appendix which is useless to humans it digests cellulose in some herbivores

607
Q

functions of the large intestine

A

absorb water, absorb vitamins, eliminate undigested material from the digestive tract

608
Q

some bacteria live in the large intestine.. they do what? what vitamin does this create?

A

the bacteria can digest material that we may not be able to digest, this creates vitamin K

609
Q

what is the rectum

A

the holding pouch for feces

610
Q

whats the anus

A

the sphincter allowing feces to exit the body

611
Q

what are hemorrhoids or piles

A

when rectal veins get inflamed.. the inside diameter of anus decreses and the passage for feces is difficult and painful

612
Q

what does fiber do to ur poo

A

it retains water throughout the digestive tract making ur poo soft.. diarrhea

613
Q

seeing, hearing or smelling food will

A

produces saliva (nervous system)

614
Q

gastrin definition

A

a hormone secreted by the stomach that stimulates the release of HCl

615
Q

entergastrone definition

A

a hormone secreted by the small intestine that decreases gastric secretions and motility

616
Q

organs and sphincters of the digestive tract in order

A
mouth
pharynx
esophagus
--cardiac sphincter
stomach
--pyloric sphincter
small intestine
--ileal-caecal sphincter
large intestine
rectum
--anal sphincter/anus
617
Q

whats the pharynx

A

the throat where nasal cavity and mouth meet, and esophagus and trachea meet.. keeps food from getting in the lungs.. contains the epiglottis which does the food keeping from lungs thing

618
Q

epiglottis

A

lil flappy in the pharynx that keeps food from the lungs

619
Q

physical fitness depends on what

A

the ability to deliver oxygen and chemical fuels to the cells of the body

620
Q

atmosphere is mde of what

A

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1%other

621
Q

what is breatinhing

A

the movement of air between the atmosphere and our body (inspiratrion and expiration)

622
Q

respiratory membrane definition

A

membrane where diffusion of oxygen and gases occurs between the living cells of the body and the external environment

623
Q

respiration definition

A

all processes that supply oxygen to the cells of the body (breathing, gas exchange, cellular respiration)

624
Q

external respiration

A

takes place in the lungs and involves the exchange of O2 and CO2 molecules between the air and blood

625
Q

internal respiration

A

takes place within body and involves exchange of O2 and CO2 molecules between blood and tissue fluids

626
Q

gas exchange definition

A

diffusion that allows for carbon dioxide to leave the capillaries surrounding the alveoli allowing the entrance of oxygen into the capillary… carbon dioxide out,,, oxygen in

627
Q

how does air enter the respiratory system

A

through the two nasal cavities or the mouth.. hairs and mucus lining the nasal cavity keep foreign particles OUT

628
Q

trachea definition

A

the windpipe, takes air into the lungs, lined with cilia (filter extra particles)

629
Q

cilia definition

A

tiny hairlike structures found on some cells that sweep away foreign debris

630
Q

what two openings branch from the pharynx

A

the trachea and the esophagus

631
Q

what does the cilia do in the trachea

A

the lil hairs and mucus traps debris and then the hairs sweep it up and out of the trachea and into the pharynx away from the lungs..

632
Q

what supports the wall of the trachea

A

bands of cartilage keep the trachea open

633
Q

air from the pharynx enters what

A

the larynx

634
Q

whats the larynx

A

the voicebox, 2 thin elastic ligaments called vocal cords, when the air passes the vocal cords vibrate creating sound

635
Q

what even is the adams apple

A

cartilage that protects the larynx

636
Q

inhaled air moves from the trachea to what

A

the bronchi ..

637
Q

whats the bronchus

A

bronchi; there are 2 bronchus that bring air to the left and right lungs.. where they branch into smaller airways called bronchioles

638
Q

unlike the trachea and bronchi the bronchioles do not contain what

A

cartilage bands

639
Q

air moves from bronchioles to tiny air sacs called what

A

alveoli

640
Q

alveoli are surrounded by what

A

capillaries

641
Q

what do the alveoli do

A

the point of gas exchange, increase surface area for gas exchange, very thin air sacs, site of gas diffusion

642
Q

oxygen moves from the air within alveoli to ____ while carbon dioxide moves from capillaries into the air in the ____

A

from the air within alveoli into capillaries while carbon dioxide moves from capillaries into the air in the alveoli

643
Q

pleural membrane definition

A

a thin membrane that surrounds the outer surface of the lungs and lines the inner wall of the chest cavity

644
Q

diaphragm

A

band of muscle shaped like a dome, separates thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity, helps in breathing

645
Q

during inspiration (inhalation); the diaphragm muscle does what

A

contracts.. pulling downward (flatening), the chest volume increases and the pressure in the lungs decrease .. the pressure in the atmosphere is greater than in the chest and forces air into the body to equalize the pressure

646
Q

during experation (exhaling) ; the diaphragm muscle does what

A

diaphragm relaxes, returning to dome shape.. chest volume decreases, and pressure increases in the chest cavity and is now greater than the atmospheric pressure , air moves out of the lungs to equalize it

647
Q

ribs

A

bones that protect the thoracic cavity

648
Q

intercostal muscles

A

muscles between ribs that raise and lower the rib cage; aid in breathing

649
Q

when intercostal muscles contract

A

pulls the ribs upward and outward; increasing the volume of the chest lowers pressure in the chest cavity and air moves into the lungs

650
Q

when intercostal muscles relax

A

rib cage falls, diaphragm relaxes, air moves OUT

651
Q

when labelling the body stuff the right is on the ____ and the left is on the ____

A

right is on the left and left is on the right, its backwards bc its facing you or something

652
Q

oxygen continuously moves from the ____ into the ____ and carbon dioxide moves from the ____ to the ____

A

oxygen; alveoli into blood

carbon dioxide; blood into alveoli

653
Q

Inhalation steps (5)

A
  1. diaphragm contracts down
  2. intercostal muscles contract out
  3. increased lung volume
  4. environmental air pressure is greater than lung pressure
  5. air rushes in to equalize pressure
654
Q

exhalation steps (5)

A
  1. diaphragm relaxes up
  2. intercostal muscles relax
  3. decrease in lung volume
  4. lung pressure is greater than environment air pressure
  5. air rushes out to equalize pressure
655
Q

diffusion across alveoli:

A
  • oxygen moves from air into the lungs across the alveoli and into the capillary where it becomes attached to hemoglobin
  • carbon dioxide moves from blood across alveoli and into the air of the lungs
656
Q

characteristics in the alveoli that help with diffusion

A

have thin walls, kept moist, richly supplied with blood vessels, large surface area

657
Q

arteries carry blood

A

away from the heart

658
Q

veins cary blood

A

to the heart

659
Q

hemoglobin definition

A

the oxygen carrying molecule in red blood cells

660
Q

oxyhemoglobin definition

A

hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen

661
Q

carbonic anhydrase definition

A

an enzyme found in red blood cells that speeds the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid

662
Q

buffer definition

A

a substance capable of neutralizing acids and bases thus maintaining the original pH of the solution

663
Q

gasses diffuse from and area of ____ pressure to an area of ____ low pressure

A

high pressure -> low pressure

664
Q

pressure of oxygen is _____ in the atmopshere and _____ in the veins and tissues

A

highest in atmosphere and lowest in veins and tissues

665
Q

pressure of carbon dioxide is _____ in tissues and veins and ____ in the atmosphere

A

CO2 is highest in the tissues and lowest in the atmosphere

666
Q

some CO2 combines with water from plasma to form _______ this decreases the carbon dioxide _______ in the blood ensuring that carbon dioxide continues to _____ into the blood

A

to form carbonic acid, decreases carbon dioxide pressure.. making sure CO2 continues to diffuse into the bloood

667
Q

chemoreceptor definition

A

nerve receptor.. if stimulated the diaphragm begins breathing movements .. more breathing = lower CO2 levels

668
Q

brathing movements are controlled by what

A

by nerves from the medulla oblongata in the brain

669
Q

medulla oblongata

A

sensitive to CO2 Levels in blood, if CO2 levels are too high medulla tells diaphragms and intercostals to increase activity.. once CO2 levels are normal medulla stops sending an increase activity message

670
Q

bronchitis definition

A

an inflammation fo the bronchial tubes

671
Q

emphysema definition

A

a respiratory disorder characterized by an overinflation of the alveoli

672
Q

breathing movements are regulated by

A

the medulla and by chemoreceptors in the carotid artery and the aorta

673
Q

factors affecting breathing rate

A

exercise; CO2 lvls increase so u breath more, hormones; adrenaline, high altitude; less oxygen is present = more breathing.. this is why athletes train in high altitude places

674
Q

carbon monoxide

A

acts as a competitive inhibitor in the red blood cell, it attaches to hemoglobin this makes hemoglobin unavailable for O2 or CO2

675
Q

there are three types of muscles

A

cardiac, smooth, skeletal/striated

676
Q

when muscles contract part of the body..

A

moves

677
Q

cardiac muscles

A

muscle that makes the heart beat, found only in the heart. contracts and relaxes involuntarily.

678
Q

smooth muscle

A

involuntary; found lining of organs (Like stomach, esophagus for peristalsis, uterus)

679
Q

skeletal muscles

A

voluntary; makes the bones of the skeleton move.

680
Q

skeletal muscles are attached nto bones by what

A

tendons

681
Q

muscles ____ when they contract and ______ when they relax

A

shorten when contract, lenghten when they relax

682
Q

a body part moves only when

A

a contracting muscle pulls it

683
Q

antagonistic muscles

A

a pair of skeletal muscles that work against each other to make a joint move

684
Q

flexor definition

A

the muscle that must contract to bend a joint

685
Q

extensor definition

A

the muscle that must contract to straighten a joint

686
Q

sarcolemma definition

A

the delicate sheath that surrounds muscle fibres

687
Q

myofilament definition

A

a thread of contractile proteins found within muscle fibres (either myosin or actin)

688
Q

myosin definition

A

a fibrous protein that forms (together with actin) the contractile filaments of muscle cells and is also involved in motion in other types of cells.

689
Q

actin definition

A

a protein that forms (together with myosin) the contractile filaments of muscle cells, and is also involved in motion in other types of cells.