Biopsych Chapter 16

Question 1

The incidence of schizophrenia in the world population is approximately ________ percent.

a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 5
d. 12
e. 15

Answer 1

b. 1

Question 2

Which of the following is true of schizophrenia?

a. Schizophrenia has been recognized as a disorder for hundreds of years.
b. Schizophrenia is a serious disorder only in adulthood.
c. The incidence of schizophrenia is about 10 percent of the world population.
d. The term means “split mind.”
e. The term is synonymous with bipolar disorder.

Answer 2

d. The term means “split mind.”

Question 3

Which statement is true regarding the incidence of schizophrenia?

a. Roughly 5% of the population is afflicted.
b. Schizophrenia is largely diagnosed in childhood.
c. Females are more likely to experience schizophrenia.
d. Schizophrenia results from brain damage and resultant excesses in dopamine release.
e. Schizophrenia affects roughly 10% of the population.

Answer 3

d. Schizophrenia results from brain damage and resultant excesses in dopamine release.

Question 4

The term schizophrenia, which means “split mind,” refers to

a. a dissociation between the individual and the psyche.
b. a split that occurs between the individual and reality.
c. multiple personalities in one individual.
d. becoming two separate individuals that do not realize the existence of the other individual.
e. an inability to make split decisions.

Answer 4

b. a split that occurs between the individual and reality.

Question 5

A positive symptom of schizophrenia would be

a. hallucinations.
b. flattened emotional response.
c. anhedonia.
d. social withdrawal.
e. severe depression.

Answer 5

a. hallucinations.

Question 6

The two major types of symptoms noted in schizophrenia include

a. thought disorder and impaired language ability.
b. hallucinations and social withdrawal.
c. delusions and hallucinations.
d. positive symptoms and negative symptoms.
e. delusions and profound sadness.

Answer 6

d. positive symptoms and negative symptoms.

Question 7

The ________ sensory system is most likely to be involved in a schizophrenic hallucination.

a. visual
b. tactile
c. kinesthetic
d. auditory
e. olfactory

Answer 7

d. auditory

Question 8

A person who believes that others are plotting against them is most likely suffering from a delusion of

a. control.
b. persecution.
c. grandeur.
d. perception.
e. fallacy.

Answer 8

b. persecution

Question 9

A person who believes that he or she is President of the World is most likely suffering from a delusion of

a. control.
b. persecution.
c. grandeur.
d. perception.
e. sensation.

Answer 9

c. grandeur.

Question 10

Delusions

a. are beliefs that are contrary to fact.
b. are linked to brain damage.
c. are perceptions that occur without the presence of stimuli.
d. indicate the presence of depression.
e. are common negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

Answer 10

a. are beliefs that are contrary to fact.

Question 11

The majority of schizophrenia cases will develop between the ages of

a. 12-14.
b. 20-24.
c. 30-34.
d. 40-44.
e. 55-59.

Answer 11

b. 20-24.

Question 12

The negative symptoms of schizophrenia

a. are best illustrated by delusions.
b. represent additions to normal behaviors.
c. are likely to be caused by excessive brain dopamine activity.
d. represent the absence of normal behaviors.
e. are best illustrated by hallucinations.

Answer 12

d. represent the absence of normal behaviors.

Question 13

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

a. represent a lack of normal behaviors.
b. usually require long hospital terms to treat.
c. are associated with low levels of brain dopamine activity.
d. indicate that the patient cannot accurately perceive reality.
e. are specific to schizophrenia.

Answer 13

a. represent a lack of normal behaviors.

Question 14

An example of a neurological symptom evident in schizophrenia would be

a. having poor problem solving and problems in learning and memory.
b. experiencing a feeling of euphoria at the start of an episode.
c. exhibiting excessive emotional expression.
d. thinking that you are the most powerful being on earth.
e. believing that doctors are part of a plot to poison you.

Answer 14

a. having poor problem solving and problems in learning and memory.

Question 15

If Individual A has schizophrenia, Individual A’s ____________ would be the most likely to also have schizophrenia.

a. older sibling
b. fraternal twin
c. parents
d. identical twin
e. neighbor

Answer 15

d. identical twin

Question 16

The fact that the odds that a child born to two schizophrenic parents will become schizophrenic is less than 50 percent suggests that

a. schizophrenia is associated with infertility.
b. schizophrenic parents rarely marry.
c. schizophrenia is not produced by a single gene.
d. schizophrenia is produced by a single dominant gene.
e. schizophrenia is a metabolic disorder.

Answer 16

c. schizophrenia is not produced by a single gene.

Question 17

Women seeking to reduce the risk of their offspring developing schizophrenia would do well to seek a mate who

a. is in his early twenties.
b. has abstained from drugs and alcohol.
c. is older than fifty.
d. smokes marijuana, but does not use alcohol.
e. has an identical twin who is schizophrenic.

Answer 17

a. is in his early twenties.

Question 18

With regard to the genetic basis of schizophrenia,

a. a person with a “schizophrenia gene” will always develop schizophrenia.
b. the concordance rate for schizophrenia is lower for monozygotic than dizygotic twins.
c. adoption studies indicate a biological basis for schizophrenia.
d. several genes may be involved in schizophrenia.
e. genes impart a susceptibility to develop schizophrenia.

Answer 18

e. genes impart a susceptibility to develop schizophrenia.

Question 19

The risk of a child developing schizophrenia is increased by

a. maternal age.
b. his or her sex.
c. paternal age.
d. their ethnic background.
e. educational level.

Answer 19

c. paternal age.

Question 20

Identical twins who are mirror images in terms of their ________ are more likely to be ________.

a. fingerprints; monochorionic
b. ventricular size; dichorionic
c. hair color; dichorionic
d. handedness; dichorionic
e. facial features; trichorionic

Answer 20

a. fingerprints; monochorionic

Question 21

In some cases, identical twins are disconcordant for schizophrenia. While environmental factors may be the cause of this difference, prenatal factors may also play a part in that ____________ twins would have greater concordance.

a. monochorionic
b. dichorionic
c. monozygotic
d. dizygotic
e. trichorionic

Answer 21

a. monochorionic

Question 22

The seasonality effect refers to the fact that individuals

a. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during the hotter months of the year.
b. are more likely to develop schizophrenia if they are born between February and May.
c. are more likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia between February and May.
d. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during winter months.
e. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during summer months.

Answer 22

b. are more likely to develop schizophrenia if they are born between February and May.

Question 23

The incidence of schizophrenia may vary as a function of season because

a. birthing during the winter represents a stressor that impairs dopamine function.
b. a fetus born during the late summer is more likely to have experienced a viral infection during the second trimester.
c. immune function is generally enhanced during the winter months.
d. a fetus born in late winter may be exposed to a viral infection during the second trimester.
e. people are more likely to be outdoors during the early fall leading to greater risk of viral infection.

Answer 23

d. a fetus born in late winter may be exposed to a viral infection during the second trimester.

Question 24

A key prediction of the viral hypothesis of schizophrenia is that

a. children born a few months after a flu outbreak are more likely to develop schizophrenia.
b. mothers taking antibiotics should be unlikely to have schizophrenic offspring.
c. children born a few months before a flu outbreak are more likely to develop schizophrenia.
d. exposure of the fetus to a virus during the third trimester is most likely to induce schizophrenia.
e. antiviral drugs have increased the incidence of schizophrenia.

Answer 24

a. children born a few months after a flu outbreak are more likely to develop schizophrenia.

Question 25

The viral hypothesis of schizophrenia is supported by the observation that a. children born a few months before a flu outbreak are more likely to develop schizophrenia. b. mothers taking antibiotics are unlikely to have schizophrenic offspring. c. analysis of stored serum from mothers whose children later developed schizophrenia showed evidence of maternal infection. d. exposure of the fetus to a virus during the third trimester is most likely to induce schizophrenia. e. obstetrical complications can predispose for schizophrenia.

Answer 25

c. analysis of stored serum from mothers whose children later developed schizophrenia showed evidence of maternal infection.

Question 26

Research suggest that a deficiency of _______ may contribute to the development of schizophrenia. a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B complex c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D e. Vitamin E

Answer 26

d. Vitamin D

Question 27

Which of the following is true of the seasonality effect? a. Schizophrenia is more likely to occur for a person born in September and October. b. The seasonality effect rarely occurs in rural settings. c. The seasonality effect is mostly due to indoor smoking by the mother during the winter. d. The seasonality effect is enhanced when fall temperatures are higher than normal. e. Families living in crowded cities do not show the seasonality effect.

Answer 27

b. The seasonality effect rarely occurs in rural settings.

Question 28

The risk of a person developing schizophrenia is higher for a person a. born into an affluent family. b. whose father was quite young. c. born in a northern latitude during the late winter months. d. born in a rural area. e. born during the summer months.

Answer 28

c. born in a northern latitude during the late winter months.

Question 29

Complications of prenatal development and delivery are more likely to result in a. depression. b. anxiety disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. early-onset schizophrenia. e. agoraphobia.

Answer 29

d. early-onset schizophrenia.

Question 30

An increased risk of developing schizophrenia is associated with a. the mother experiencing obstetric complications. b. being born during the late summer months. c. a child born to a mother who experienced alcohol withdrawal. d. having an elderly father. e. being born in the fall months.

Answer 30

a. the mother experiencing obstetric complications.

Question 31

The symptoms of schizophrenia are more likely in a person whose a. mother experienced obstetric complications. b. father was under the age of 20. c. birth occurred during the summer months. d. mother had adequate nutrition during the pregnancy. e. mother was obese.

Answer 31

a. mother experienced obstetric complications.

Question 32

Environmental risk factors for schizophrenia include a. paternal age. b. genetic mutations. c. maternal age. d. parental use of tobacco during pregnancy. e. heritability

Answer 32

d. parental use of tobacco during pregnancy.

Question 33

Relative to same-age control subjects, schizophrenics show a more rapid loss of gray matter in the a. spinal cord. b. medulla. c. amygdala. d. hypothalamus. e. cerebral cortex.

Answer 33

e. cerebral cortex.

Question 34

Which of the following supports the contention that schizophrenia is associated with brain damage? a. Control subjects are more likely to show neurological symptoms. b. The size of the lateral ventricles increases in schizophrenic patients. c. The neurological symptoms noted in schizophrenia are unique to this disorder. d. The size of the lateral ventricles decreases in schizophrenic patients. e. Older people, who have already lost substantial numbers of neurons, are more likely to develop schizophrenia than are younger people.

Answer 34

b. The size of the lateral ventricles increases in schizophrenic patients.

Question 35

Studies by Weinberger and others of brain abnormality in schizophrenic patients report a. decreased number of gyri and sulci in control patients. b. increased number of cells within the corpus callosum in schizophrenic patients. c. larger lateral ventricles in schizophrenic patients. d. flattening of the cortex in schizophrenic patients. e. schizophrenic patients show more problems with eye tracking than do controls.

Answer 35

c. larger lateral ventricles in schizophrenic patients.

Question 36

Analyses of the childhood behavior of schizophrenics have found that these children show ________ than do their normal siblings or normal peers. a. more overall activity b. fewer abnormal movements c. more negative affect in their facial expressions d. less overall activity e. more symmetrical facial features

Answer 36

c. more negative affect in their facial expressions

Question 37

When looking at behavior of children who would later develop schizophrenia, these children were a. more likely to be born premature. b. likely to show deficits in facial expressions and abnormal movements. c. more likely to have colic. d. no different from those children that would not later develop schizophrenia. e. more likely to have high sociability.

Answer 37

b. likely to show deficits in facial expressions and abnormal movements.

Question 38

Which of the following minor physical anomalies is associated with schizophrenia? a. narrow-set eyes b. curved fourth finger c. head circumference outside of the normal range d. high-seated ears e. symmetrical ears

Answer 38

c. head circumference outside of the normal range

Question 39

In MRI studies of brain anatomy in identical twins discordant for schizophrenia, the schizophrenic twin usually a. had smaller lateral and third ventricles. b. had larger lateral and third ventricles. c. had a larger anterior hippocampus. d. showed a smaller corpus callosum. e. had a thinner cerebral cortex.

Answer 39

b. had larger lateral and third ventricles.

Question 40

The likelihood of developing schizophrenia increases to 31 percent for a person with ________ and ________. a. birth complications; stress during adulthood b. a mother who consumed a high-fat diet dieting pregnancy; a family history of schizophrenia c. an identical twin who is normal; physical anomalies d. a family history of schizophrenia; physical anomalies e. minor physical anomalies; who was born during the summer months

Answer 40

d. a family history of schizophrenia; physical anomalies

Question 41

Which of the following is true of brain development and schizophrenia? a. Rapid neuron loss occurs in early childhood in schizophrenia with little subsequent loss during adulthood. b. Schizophrenics show rapid neuron loss that occurs in early adulthood, but not continuous neuron loss. c. Schizophrenia shows the same degenerative pattern as is noted in Alzheimer’s disease. d. Schizophrenia shows the same degenerative pattern as is noted in Parkinson’s disease. e. Schizophrenia involves the creation of new, but abnormal, neurons.

Answer 41

b. Schizophrenics show rapid neuron loss that occurs in early adulthood, but not continuous neuron loss.

Question 42

The positive symptoms of schizophrenia may be caused by a. an imbalance of norepinephrine in the brain. b. a single recessive gene. c. excessive activity in dopamine circuits in the brain. d. poor parenting. e. a degenerative disorder of the brain.

Answer 42

c. excessive activity in dopamine circuits in the brain.

Question 43

Positive symptoms, such as hallucinations, result from a. an imbalance of norepinephrine in the brain. b. underactivity of the mesolimbic system. c. damage to the mesocortical system. d. overactivity of the mesolimbic system. e. overactivity of the mesocortical system.

Answer 43

d. overactivity of the mesolimbic system.

Question 44

The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia states that schizophrenia is caused by a. low levels of one or more of the monoamines. b. a breakdown product of the neurotransmitter serotonin. c. overactivity of dopaminergic synapses. d. damage to ascending dopamine fibers. e. an imbalance between acetylcholine and dopamine within the frontal cortex.

Answer 44

c. overactivity of dopaminergic synapses.

Question 45

Chlorpromazine was initially developed to prevent surgical shock, but was later found to be an effective treatment for a. phobias. b. schizophrenia. c. mania. d. depression. e. neuroses.

Answer 45

b. schizophrenia

Question 46

The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are reversed by drugs that are a. agonists at serotonin receptors. b. dopamine receptor agonists. c. antagonists at GABA receptors. d. similar in structure to benzodiazepines. e. dopamine receptor antagonists.

Answer 46

e. dopamine receptor antagonists

Question 47

Imagine that you have been handed a list of drugs and that beside each drug name is a number that represents the potency of that drug for blocking dopamine receptors (where a low number means a greater potency at blocking). Which drug would you choose for the treatment of schizophrenia? a. potency value = 0.1 b. potency value = 0.3 c. potency value = 1.0 d. potency value = 5.0 e. potency value = 100.0

Answer 47

a. potency value = 0.1

Question 48

The dopamine schizophrenia hypothesis is supported by the finding that a. antipsychotic drugs are dopamine agonists. b. cocaine and amphetamine do not have antischizophrenic effects. c. drugs that induce schizophrenic symptoms are dopamine antagonists. d. dopamine antagonists relieve the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. e. reserpine depletes monoamine vesicles and makes schizophrenia worse

Answer 48

d. dopamine antagonists relieve the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Question 49

Administration of high doses of drugs such as ________ would be expected to produce the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. a. GABA b. glycine c. caffeine d. amphetamine e. chlorpromazine

Answer 49

d. amphetamine

Question 50

John has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and has shown improvement in positive symptoms while taking chlorpromazine (CPZ). You would expect his positive schizophrenia symptoms to return if John a. stops taking CPZ and takes part in a cocaine party. b. takes double his CPZ dose per day. c. takes reserpine in addition to CPZ. d. mixes alcohol with CPZ. e. ingests alpha-methyl-para-tyrosine in addition to CPZ.

Answer 50

a. stops taking CPZ and takes part in a cocaine party.

Question 51

John has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and has shown improvement in positive symptoms while taking chlorpromazine (CPZ). Which of the actions below, if taken by John, would be expected to speed up his recovery from schizophrenia? a. John stops taking CPZ and takes part in a cocaine party. b. John takes half of the normal CPZ dose per day. c. John takes reserpine in addition to CPZ. d. John mixes alcohol with CPZ. e. John ingests amphetamine in addition to CPZ.

Answer 51

c. John takes reserpine in addition to CPZ.

Question 52

The mesolimbic pathway projects from the ________ to the ________. a. substantia nigra; caudate b. globus pallidus; ventral tegmental area c. midbrain; cingulate cortex d. ventral tegmental area; nucleus accumbens and amygdala e. ventral tegmental area; frontal cortex

Answer 52

d. ventral tegmental area; nucleus accumbens and amygdala

Question 53

PET studies indicate that schizophrenic patients treated with amphetamine show ________ from the striatum and a corresponding ________. a. reduced release of dopamine; increase in positive symptoms b. reduced release of GABA; decrease in positive symptoms c. greater release of dopamine; decrease in negative symptoms d. greater release of dopamine; increase in positive symptoms e. reduced release of serotonin; increase in negative symptoms

Answer 53

d. greater release of dopamine; increase in positive symptoms

Question 54

Which of the issues below are serious problems for the use of antipsychotic drugs for schizophrenia? a. These drugs reverse the negative but not the positive symptoms. b. These drugs may reverse the positive but not the negative symptoms. c. These drugs block D4 receptors in the striatum, which results in motor side effects. d. Long-term administration of these can induce depression as a side effect. e. The drugs exaggerate both positive and negative symptoms.

Answer 54

b. These drugs may reverse the positive but not the negative symptoms.

Question 55

A drug company seeking to develop a new antischizophrenic drug would want to develop a drug that reverses both positive and negative symptoms but that avoids the blockage of ________ receptors within the ________ of the schizophrenic brain. a. D1; nucleus accumbens b. D2; medial prefrontal cortex c. D3; hippocampus d. D2; striatum e. D4; amygdala

Answer 55

d. D2; striatum

Question 56

Patients with _____________ are unable to stop moving. This condition is common among individuals who take antipsychotic medications. a. Parkinson’s disease b. Huntington’s disease c. tardive dyskinesia d. paroxysmal dyskinesia e. athetosis

Answer 56

c. tardive dyskinesia

Question 57

The capacity of an antischizophrenic drug to produce tardive dyskinesia may result from a. subsensitivity of dopamine receptors. b. reduced release of dopamine. c. enhanced release of dopamine. d. supersensitivity of dopamine receptors. e. degeneration of dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra

Answer 57

d. supersensitivity of dopamine receptors.

Question 58

Clozapine is referred to as an “atypical” antischizophrenic drug because it a. can reverse schizophrenic symptoms without producing the motor disorder tardive dyskinesia. b. has little blocking action within the striatum. c. is more potent at blocking D2 receptors than D4 receptors. d. effectively treats schizophrenia, but also produces motor side effects. e. was an accidental discovery.

Answer 58

a. can reverse schizophrenic symptoms without producing the motor disorder tardive dyskinesia.

Question 59

The negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal, are caused by a. underactivity of the mesolimbic system. b. excessive birth weight. c. damage to the mesocortical system. d. overactivity of the mesolimbic system. e. overactivity of the mesocortical system.

Answer 59

c. damage to the mesocortical system.

Question 60

Which of the following is true of clozapine (CL)? a. CL blocks D2 receptors in the amygdala. b. CL is a typical antipsychotic medication. c. CL is less likely than chlorpromazine to produce tardive dyskinesia. d. CL may be effective in treating patients who were refractory to older drugs. e. CL can worsen delusions.

Answer 60

c. CL is less likely than chlorpromazine to produce tardive dyskinesia.

Question 61

Brain damage is thought to produce the ________ symptoms of schizophrenia. a. positive b. concordant c. cognitive d. negative e. mood

Answer 61

d. negative

Question 62

Weinberger argues that the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are related to a. loss of neurons from the cerebellum. b. elevated dopamine activity within the nucleus accumbens. c. increased neural activity within the ventral tegmental area. d. decreased activity of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. e. increased activity of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

Answer 62

d. decreased activity of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

Question 63

Which of the following supports the notion that impairment of the prefrontal cortex is related to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia? a. MRI studies indicate abnormalities within the temporal cortex of schizophrenics. b. Schizophrenic patients show greater activity of the frontal cortex than do controls. c. Schizophrenic patients do poorly on neuropsychological tests that are sensitive to damage of the prefrontal cortex. d. MRI studies indicate abnormalities within the parietal cortex of schizophrenics. e. Schizophrenic patients show a greater number of neurons within the gray matter of the frontal cortex.

Answer 63

c. Schizophrenic patients do poorly on neuropsychological tests that are sensitive to damage of the prefrontal cortex.

Question 64

Positive and negative schizophrenia symptoms are shown by humans after ingestion of a. alcohol. b. haloperidol. c. phencyclidine. d. chlordiazepoxide. e. a low dose of cocaine.

Answer 64

c. phencyclidine

Question 65

PCP acts as a(n) ________ at ________ receptors. a. agonist; NMDA b. antagonist; dopamine c. agonist; acetylcholine d. indirect antagonist; NMDA e. antagonist; GABA

Answer 65

d. indirect antagonist; NMDA

Question 66

The atypical antipsychotic clozapine produces a(n) ________ activity within the ________. a. increase in GABA; ventral tegmental area b. decrease in GABA; ventral tegmental area c. increase in dopamine; nucleus accumbens d. decrease in dopamine; hippocampus e. increase in dopamine; prefrontal cortex

Answer 66

e. increase in dopamine; prefrontal cortex

Question 67

A mutation of the __________ gene is a known genetic cause of schizophrenia. a. PKC b. DISC1 c. CD4 d. APC e. OSE

Answer 67

b. DISC1

Question 68

Aripiprazole acts as a(n) ______________ in the mesolimbic system and as a(n) ____________ in the prefrontal cortex. a. agonist; antagonist b. antagonist; agonist c. agonist; agonist d. antagonist; antagonist e. partial agonist; partial antagonist

Answer 68

b. antagonist; agonist

Question 69

A drug that binds with high affinity to a receptor, but has less efficacy than the endogenous transmitter, would be termed a(n) a. pseudo-agonist. b. antagonist. c. partial agonist. d. autoreceptor agonist. e. autoreceptor antagonist.

Answer 69

c. partial agonist.

Question 70

Tiana cries for several hours a day. She is having difficulty going to work and maintaining her GPA. The death of her father two weeks ago is hitting her hard. In this case, Tiana’s depression is a. abnormal because it has lasted too long. b. normal because it has not been an extensive duration and has occurred in response to an understandable cause. c. abnormal because it has no explanation. d. normal but it would be considered abnormal if her crying bouts lasted longer on a daily basis. e. normal but would be considered abnormal if she was still able to attend work and school.

Answer 70

b. normal because it has not been an extensive duration and has occurred in response to an understandable cause.

Question 71

Episodes of mania are characterized by a. suicidal thoughts. b. extreme sadness. c. crying spells. d. strong feelings of guilt. e. intense euphoria.

Answer 71

e. intense euphoria.

Question 72

Depression is nearly ______ as likely in _______. a. half; women than men b. one fifth; women than men c. five-fold; men than women d. twice; men than women e. twice; women than men

Answer 72

e. twice; women than men

Question 73

Sadie is taking the maximum number of classes allowed, has joined three different volunteer groups, talks excessively, and is full of energy. After a month, she lapses into a severe state of depression lasting a few weeks before bouncing back to her highly energized self. This description best fits a. bipolar disorder. b. severe depression. c. severe mania. d. unipolar depression. e. schizoaffective disorder.

Answer 73

a. bipolar disorder.

Question 74

All but ________ are a symptom of depression. a. slow movements b. periods of intense crying c. increased appetite for sex d. decreased appetite for food e. sleep disturbances

Answer 74

c. increased appetite for sex

Question 75

An example of a positive benefit associated with a manic episode would be a. intense effort at completing a project. b. intense euphoria. c. severe disorganization. d. increased energy to take on many projects at once. e. delusions of grandeur.

Answer 75

a. intense effort at completing a project.

Question 76

What statement is true about the heritability of affective disorders? a. Monozygotic twins are less likely to develop affective disorders than dizygotic twins. b. Relatives are 3 times more likely to develop affective disorders. c. There appears to be a link between circadian rhythm and depression. d. Sleep and affective disorders are not associated. e. Monozygotic twins are 100% concordant for affective disorders

Answer 76

c. There appears to be a link between circadian rhythm and depression.

Question 77

Susceptibility to develop affective disorder is most strongly associated with a. the gene for the dopamine transporter. b. multiple genes on multiple chromosomes. c. a gene located on chromosome 11. d. specific chromosomes linked to sleep and circadian rhythms. e. a gene located on the Y chromosome.

Answer 77

d. specific chromosomes linked to sleep and circadian rhythms.

Question 78

Which treatment has the least side effects? a. tricyclics b. drugs that inhibit MAO c. lithium d. SSRIs e. electroconvulsive shock therapy

Answer 78

d. SSRIs

Question 79

Treatment for bipolar disorder includes a. lithium. b. drugs that inhibit MAO. c. drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine. d. sleep deprivation. e. electroconvulsive shock therapy.

Answer 79

a. lithium.

Question 80

Lithium is an effective treatment for ________ but not ________. a. depression; mania b. bipolar disorder; unipolar depression c. anxiety disorder; delusions d. unipolar depression; hallucinations e. delusions; hallucinations

Answer 80

b. bipolar disorder; unipolar depression

Question 81

The best evidence that there is a difference between bipolar affective disorder and unipolar depression is that a. the age of onset differs between the two disorders. b. there is a sex difference in the incidence of these disorders. c. lithium is effective in treating only bipolar disorder. d. chlorpromazine is only effective in treating unipolar depression. e. serotonin reuptake inhibitors are effective for bipolar disorder but not unipolar depression.

Answer 81

c. lithium is effective in treating only bipolar disorder.

Question 82

An important function of monoamine oxidase is to a. provide the precursor for the catecholamines. b. convert dopamine into norepinephrine. c. convert norepinephrine into epinephrine. d. convert catecholamines and serotonin into inactive forms. e. speed up the digestion of cheese within the gut.

Answer 82

d. convert catecholamines and serotonin into inactive forms.

Question 83

Drugs that inhibit the activity of monoamine oxidase (MAO) a. can result in excess levels of glycine in terminal buttons. b. can result in excess levels of serotonin within terminal buttons. c. are an effective treatment for depression. d. can have minor side effects. e. can induce schizophrenia.

Answer 83

c. are an effective treatment for depression.

Question 84

The capacity of tricyclic antidepressant drugs to ________ is why these drugs function as monoamine agonists. a. block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into the terminals b. block the reuptake of dopamine into the terminals c. speed up the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into the terminals d. block NMDA receptors e. stimulate the release of glycine within the limbic system

Answer 84

a. block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into the terminals

Question 85

The ability of fluoxetine (Prozac) to function as an effective treatment for ________ is related to its capacity to ________. a. delusions and hallucinations; block serotonin reuptake b. depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder; block serotonin reuptake c. anxiety disorders; inhibit MAO d. schizophrenia; block dopamine receptors e. obsessive-compulsive disorder; release glycine

Answer 85

b. depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder; block serotonin reuptake

Question 86

Which class of antidepressant agents has the effect of increasing activity in both serotonin and norepinephrine synapses? a. cocaine-related stimulants b. lithium salts c. SSRIs d. SNRIs e. MAOIs

Answer 86

d. SNRIs

Question 87

What is the benefit of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? a. ECT works quicker than pharmacological treatments. b. Individuals who experience ECT avoid relapse. c. Individuals who experience ECT do not experience brain damage. d. Individuals who experience ECT have increased brain activity. e. It is effective against bipolar disorder.

Answer 87

a. ECT works quicker than pharmacological treatments.

Question 88

When comparing transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which statement is most accurate? a. TMS has less side effects than ECT. b. TMS has more side effects than ECT. c. TMS has greater relapse rates than ECT. d. ECT has greater relapse rates than TMS. e. TMS is more invasive than ECT.

Answer 88

a. TMS has less side effects than ECT.

Question 89

An alternative to electroconvulsive shock for the treatment of bipolar disorder is the use of a. anticonvulsant drugs. b. MAO inhibitors. c. transcranial magnetic stimulation. d. chlordiazepoxide. e. fluoxetine.

Answer 89

c. transcranial magnetic stimulation.

Question 90

An alternative to lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder is the use of a. anticonvulsant drugs. b. MAO inhibitors. c. cocaine or amphetamine. d. chlordiazepoxide. e. ketamine.

Answer 90

a. anticonvulsant drugs.

Question 91

A major problem for the use of lithium in psychiatry is that a. lithium dulls thought processes. b. there is a narrow therapeutic index for lithium. c. lithium may not work in up to 50 percent of patients. d. lithium is an expensive treatment. e. lithium reduces appetite and body weight.

Answer 91

b. there is a narrow therapeutic index for lithium.

Question 92

Brain activity in depressed individuals shows increased activity in the a. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex. b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex. c. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. d. ventrolateral prefrontal cortex. e. anterior cingulate cortex.

Answer 92

a. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex.

Question 93

The monoamine hypothesis states that depression is caused by a. loss of cells within the prefrontal cortex. b. insufficient activity of monoaminergic neurons. c. excessive activity of dopamine synapses. d. overactivity of monoaminergic neurons. e. excessive activity of serotonin synapses.

Answer 93

b. insufficient activity of monoaminergic neurons.

Question 94

Which statement demonstrates evidence in favor of the monoamine hypothesis for affective disorders? a. Reserpine does not cause depressive symptoms. b. Tryptophan depletion causes depression in susceptible individuals. c. L-DOPA results in depressive symptoms. d. Dopamine agonists treat depression. e. Dopamine antagonists treat depression.

Answer 94

b. Tryptophan depletion causes depression in susceptible individuals.

Question 95

With more stressful life events, some people cope better than others. One line of research suggests that individuals have a(n) ____________ risk of depression with one or two copies of ____________ alleles for the promotor region of the 5-HT transporter. a. increased; short b. increased; long c. decreased; short d. decreased; long e. increased; medium

Answer 95

a. increased; short

Question 96

Research on sleep patterns and depression indicate that individuals with depression a. have increased Stage 3 sleep. b. are deep sleepers. c. have decreased Stage 1 sleep. d. enter into REM sleep earlier in the night. e. experience the same amount of eye movements as non-depressed individuals.

Answer 96

d. enter into REM sleep earlier in the night.

Question 97

Evidence from animal and human studies shows that most antidepressant drugs a. increase slow-wave sleep. b. increase REM sleep. c. suppress slow-wave sleep. d. suppress REM sleep. e. produce an enhanced degree of fragmentation of REM sleep.

Answer 97

d. suppress REM sleep.

Question 98

The effect of total sleep deprivation on depression a. suggests that sleep causes the destruction of an endogenous substance that promotes depression. b. develops slowly. c. is sufficiently large enough to justify this as an effective way to treat depression. d. is relatively long lasting. e. is lost after even a short nap.

Answer 98

e. is lost after even a short nap.

Question 99

The only treatment(s) that produce(s) an immediate lifting of depression is (are) a. repeated cocaine treatment. b. MAOIs or SSRIs. c. alcohol and barbiturates. d. total sleep deprivation or injection of ketamine. e. ether.

Answer 99

d. total sleep deprivation or injection of ketamine.

Question 100

The symptoms of seasonal affective disorder are reduced by a. exposing people to bright light every day. b. simulating the gradual rise in light intensity that occurs at dawn. c. taking a one-hour evening walk. d. administration of reserpine. e. lithium treatment.

Answer 100

a. exposing people to bright light every day.