Biopsych Chapters 1-4 Flashcards by Aliza Kurtz

The key deficit suffered by Jeremiah in the chapter vignette was _______________ caused by _____________.

a. excessive movements; seizures
b. impaired movements; seizures
c. excessive movements; stroke
d. impaired movements; stroke
e. visual difficulties; stroke

d. impaired movements; stroke

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To improve his deficit, Jeremiah’s non-affected limb was constrained, forcing him to use the affected limb. This therapy is called

a. constraint-applied therapy.
b. constraint-induced movement therapy.
c. restraint therapy.
d. restraint-applied therapy.
e. forced movement therapy.

b. constraint-induced movement therapy.

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Constraint-induced movement therapy involves

a. using both limbs to perform complex tasks.
b. constraining the patient’s stroke-affected limb to promote rewiring of the brain.
c. constraining the patient’s non-affected limb to promote rewiring of the brain.
d. engaging in whole body movements.
e. repeated physical therapy on both limbs.

c. constraining the patient’s non-affected limb to promote rewiring of the brain.

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“You can’t teach an old dog new tricks” was commonly believed, since it was assumed that neurons cannot be generated past a certain age. Recent research, however, suggests that _______________ is less limited than previously thought.

a. neurogenesis
b. brain grafting
c. connectionism
d. collateral sprouting
e. neural migration

a. neurogenesis

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A scientist who holds a monistic philosophy would be comfortable with which of the following statements?

a. The universe is a mental construction.
b. The left hemisphere of the brain is the location of the mind.
c. The mind is not composed of matter.
d. Everything is made of matter and energy.
e. The body is physical whereas the mind is spiritual.

d. Everything is made of matter and energy.

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________ is the belief that the mind and body are separate entities.

a. Contralateral neglect
b. Monism
c. Blindsight
d. Dualism
e. Animism

d. Dualism

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Which of the following statements is consistent with the monistic view of the mind-body question?

a. Mind and body are separate.
b. The body can influence the mind through the actions of the pineal gland.
c. The mind is spiritual, while the body is made from matter.
d. The mind can exist apart from the body.
e. The mind is generated through the physical actions of the brain.

e. The mind is generated through the physical actions of the brain.

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The mind-body question

a. asks about the nature of the mind and the body.
b. was originally posed by neuroscientists.
c. has been solved.
d. usually involves choosing a dualistic view.
e. is no longer relevant to behavioral neuroscience.

a. asks about the nature of the mind and the body.

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The author of the first psychology text was ________ and the text was entitled ________.

a. Rene Descartes; A Primer of Psychology
b. Sigmund Freud; Dream Interpretation After Cocaine Ingestion
c. Neil Carlson; Foundations of Physiological Psychology
d. Luigi Galvani; Frog Legs and Psychologic Function
e. Wilhelm Wundt; Principles of Physiological Psychology

e. Wilhelm Wundt; Principles of Physiological Psychology

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Your textbook author asserts that the primary function of the brain is to

a. allow us to appreciate art and music.
b. allow for the experience of emotions.
c. control movement.
d. create memories of our experiences.
e. interpret our sensory experiences.

c. control movement

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________ represent explanations used by all scientists.

a. Generalizations
b. Falsifications
c. Hallucinations
d. Syllogisms
e. Rationalizations

a. Generalizations

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Generalization is to __________, whereas reductionism is to __________.

a. identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms; identify simple causes of complex behaviors
b. identify simple causes of complex behaviors; identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms
c. organize data in terms of general rules; identify the smallest piece of a neuron
d. identify the smallest piece of a neuron; organize data in terms of general rules
e. organize data in terms of general rules; identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms

a. identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms; identify simple causes of complex behaviors

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Research in neuroscience should focus on

a. reductionism, generalization, and functionalism.
b. reductionism.
c. generalization.
d. functionism.
e. evolution.

a. reductionism, generalization, and functionalism.

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A neuroscientist removes the eyes of a frog to determine if the frog will still respond to light and dark in the environment. This experiment would be an example of

a. generalization.
b. reductionism.
c. separatism.
d. functionalism.
e. validity.

b. reductionism.

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A researcher explains aspects of post-traumatic stress disorder as an example of general laws that apply to all people. This situation fits

a. generalization.
b. reductionism.
c. separatism.
d. functionalism.
e. validity.

a. generalization.

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Imagine that you now experience such an overly strong fear of dogs that you refuse to leave your house for fear of encountering a dog. A learning theorist would suggest that the roots of your fear can be attributed to past classical conditioning, in which you associated the sight and sound of a dog with some aversive experience. This type of explanation would involve the process of

a. rationalization.
b. pseudoscience.
c. reductionism.
d. generalization.
e. dualism.

c. reductionism.

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A scientific explanation of a complex phenomenon that is cast in terms of a simpler one involves the process of

a. rationalization.
b. falsification.
c. generalization.
d. deduction.
e. reduction.

e. reduction.

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You notice that your roommate has difficulty sleeping after consuming heavily caffeinated drinks. You know from your courses that caffeine can stimulate brain neurons that produce arousal (and that such arousal disturbs sleep function). If you suggest to your roommate that his/her insomnia reflects the action of caffeine on brain function, your explanation would involve the process of

a. reduction.
b. superordinate causality.
c. generalization.
d. induction.
e. falsification.

a. reduction.

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Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Reduction uses complicated processes to explain simple ones.
b. The goal of reduction is to predict a phenomenon under study.
c. Generalization and reduction are important tools in science.
d. Scientists only use reductionistic explanations.
e. Most scientific studies use on-human experimental subjects.

c. Generalization and reduction are important tools in science.

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Ancient Greek culture before Hippocrates considered the ________ to be the seat of thought and emotion.

a. gut
b. heart
c. brain
d. pineal gland
e. stomach

b. heart

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The philosopher ________ attributed thought and emotion to the brain, whereas ________ considered the function of the brain as important for cooling the heart.

a. Aristotle; Hippocrates
b. Galen; Aristotle
c. Hippocrates; Aristotle
d. Plato; Galen
e. Hippocrates; Plato

c. Hippocrates; Aristotle

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Which of the following comments on brain function would be most likely to be made by Aristotle?

a. The mind acts through the pineal body to control the body.
b. The brain serves to cool the passions of the heart.
c. The brain is the seat of emotion, but not thought.
d. The brain routes sensory information to the heart
e. Injury to the brain alters emotion and thought.

b. The brain serves to cool the passions of the heart.

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René Descartes asserted that

a. humans cannot understand the nature of the real world.
b. the heart is the seat of thought and emotion.
c. the brain acts to cool the passions of the heart.
d. animals are mechanical creatures controlled by environmental stimuli.
e. the mind is an emergent property of the brain.

d. animals are mechanical creatures controlled by environmental stimuli.

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Descartes, who first described and studied reflexes, was a

a. monist.
b. reductionist.
c. pluralist.
d. dualist.
e. animist.

d. dualist.

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René Descartes would be considered to hold a ________ view of the mind-body problem. a. monist b. reductionist c. pluralist d. dualist e. animist

d. dualist

Descartes’s view of the mind-body was unique in that he argued that a. the heart is the organ that controls emotions. b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals. c. unlike animals, human bodies do not show reflexes. d. a reflex is a process controlled by the mind. e. the mind controls the movements of the body.

e. the mind controls the movements of the body.

Descartes argued that a. the heart is the organ that controls emotions. b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals. c. unlike animals, human bodies do not show reflexes. d. nerves produce bodily movements by inflating muscles with fluid. e. the mind is not linked to the brain.

d. nerves produce bodily movements by inflating muscles with fluid.

According to Descartes, the ________ was the point of interaction in the brain where the mind controlled the physical body. a. hypothalamus b. corpus callosum c. amygdala d. hippocampus e. pineal body

e. pineal body

In a simple experiment, Galvani disproved the hydraulic nerve-muscle model proposed by Descartes. Galvani removed a nerve and its attached muscle fibers from a frog and showed that ________ of the nerve caused ________ of the muscle. a. electrical stimulation; relaxation b. electrical stimulation; contraction c. chemical stimulation; contraction d. pressurization; relaxation e. chemical stimulation; relaxation

b. electrical stimulation; contraction

Galvani’s experiment involving a frog leg proved that a. the heart is the organ that controls emotions. b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals. c. unlike animals, human bodies do not possess reflexes. d. a reflex is a process controlled by the mind. e. the pineal gland pushes fluid through nerves into the muscles.

b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals.

Which of the following statements is consistent with Descartes’s explanation of the mind-body question? a. The brain contains air-filled chambers. b. Nerves are filled with air and are under minimal pressure. c. Muscle activation requires no input from the brain. d. Electrical stimulation of a nerve evokes contraction of a detached muscle. e. The pineal body controls the body muscles.

e. The pineal body controls the body muscles

. ________ was a physiologist who proposed the doctrine of specific nerve energies. a. Johannes Müller b. Paul Broca c. Rene Descartes d. Ivan Pavlov e. Wilhelm Wundt

a. Johannes Müller

Which of the following is consistent with the doctrine of specific nerve energies? a. Electrical stimulation of a sensory nerve can evoke a specific sensation. b. All nerves carry dissimilar electrical messages. c. Exerting pressure on the eyeball can evoke the sensation of sound. d. Nerves can be activated by psychological stimuli. e. The height of the action potential depends on which sensory system has been activated.

a. Electrical stimulation of a sensory nerve can evoke a specific sensation.

Which scientist was among the first to advocate the use of experimental techniques in the study of physiology? a. John Watson b. Rene Descartes c. Aristotle d. Johannes Müller e. Charles Darwin

d. Johannes Müller

Johannes Müller proposed a. an important role for natural selection in the evolution of behavior. b. that language is a function of the right hemisphere. c. that the brain is divided into different functional areas with each receiving signals from a different set of nerves. d. that the pineal body allows the brain to control the mind. e. that the heart is the seat of thought and emotion

c. that the brain is divided into different functional areas with each receiving signals from a different set of nerves.

Pierre Flourens is known a. for his use of the experimental ablation technique to examine brain function. b. as the father of modern philosophy. c. for proposing the theory of evolution. d. for his study of language abilities in stroke victims. e. as a dualist philosopher.

a. for his use of the experimental ablation technique to examine brain function.

The technique of experimental ablation involves a. comparing the relative size of brains across different species. b. measurements of conduction velocity rates in damaged and intact nerves. c. chronic chemical stimulation of the brain. d. low-level electrical stimulation of the brain. e. assessment of behavioral changes after the intentional damage to a portion of the brain.

e. assessment of behavioral changes after the intentional damage to a portion of the brain.

The doctrine of specific nerve energies was proposed by a. Rene Descartes. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Pierre Flourens. d. Johannes Müller. e. Paul Broca.

d. Johannes Müller.

Paul Broca performed an autopsy of the brain of a patient who had been unable to speak after suffering a stroke. Broca concluded that a. the control of speech is a function of the left hemisphere. b. the pineal body controls speech production. c. damage to the right hemisphere impairs speech. d. muscle atrophy after a stroke is the result of a fluid pressure drop in the ventricles. e. the corpus callosum is critical for speech production.

a. the control of speech is a function of the left hemisphere.

_________ conducted experimental ablation in animals, whereas ________ applied the concept experimental ablation to humans. a. Flourens; Broca b. Broca; Flourens c. Müller; Flourens d. Müller; Broca e. Broca; Müller

a. Flourens; Broca

In 1870, Fritsch and Hitzig reported that electrical stimulation of the ________ in dogs resulted in muscle contractions of ________. a. pineal gland; the facial muscles b. parietal cortex; the opposite side of the body c. corpus callosum; both hind legs d. primary motor cortex; the opposite side of the body e. globus pallidus; the same side of the body

d. primary motor cortex; the opposite side of the body

Hermann von Helmholtz is known for a. his contributions to the study of philosophy. b. his contributions to the study of learning and memory. c. his invention of the electroencephalograph. d. measuring the speed of light. e. his measurements of nerve cell conduction velocity.

e. his measurements of nerve cell conduction velocity.

In his studies of nerve conduction velocity, Hermann von Helmholtz noted that a. electrical signal speeds differ from nerve to nerve. b. nerve conduction velocity is at the speed of light. c. nerves conduct signals faster than do electrical wires. d. the velocity of nerve conduction is slower in nerves than in wires. e. different sensory systems use different conduction speeds.

d. the velocity of nerve conduction is slower in nerves than in wires.

Which is the correct match between scientist and idea? a. Paul Broca; doctrine of specific nerve energies b. Pierre Flourens; use of ablation to study brain-behavior relations c. Fritsch and Hitzig; language is localized within the left hemisphere d. Rene Descartes; doctrine of specific nerve energies e. Sigmund Freud; use of ablation to study brain-behavior relations

b. Pierre Flourens; use of ablation to study brain-behavior relations

Hermann von Helmholtz estimated that nerve conduction velocity is about a. 9 feet/second. b. 90 feet/second. c. 900 feet/second. d. 9000 feet/second. e. 90,000 feet/second.

b. 90 feet/second.

This scientist discovered neurons that terminated on cardiac cells that were responsible for controlling contractions of the heart. a. Jan Purkinje b. Hermann von Helmholtz c. Luigi Galvani d. Johannes Müller e. Pierre Flourens

a. Jan Purkinje

Purkinje cells can be found in the a. medulla. b. cerebral cortex. c. tegmentum. d. cerebellum. e. amygdala.

d. cerebellum.

Neurons that terminated on cardiac cells that were responsible for controlling contractions of the heart are known as a. cardiac cells. b. neurofibrillary cells. c. Purkinje fibers. d. myocardium fibers. e. cardiac fibers.

c. Purkinje fibers.

________________ used the Golgi staining technique to examine individual neurons in the brain. a. Camillo Golgi b. Jan Purkinje c. Hermann von Helmholtz d. Luigi Galvani e. Santiago y Cajal

e. Santiago y Cajal

. ____________________ won a Nobel Prize in 1906 for his work in describing the structure of the nervous system. a. Camillo Golgi b. Jan Purkinje c. Hermann von Helmholtz d. Luigi Galvani e. Santiago y Cajal

e. Santiago y Cajal

John O’Keefe, May-Britt Moser, and Edvard Moser were awarded the 2014 Nobel Prize for a. developing amplifiers to detect weak electrical signals. b. developing neurochemical techniques to analyze chemical changes within cells. c. discovering mirror neurons. d. discovering a spatial positioning system in the brain. e. treating depression with deep brain stimulation.

d. discovering a spatial positioning system in the brain.

Charles Darwin proposed the principle of a. specific nerve energy. b. primary motor cortex. c. experimental ablation. d. natural selection. e. functionalism

d. natural selection.

. _____________ refers to a situation when a particular characteristic allows an organism to be more reproductively successful, causing the characteristic to become more prevalent. a. Darwinism b. Natural selection c. Artificial selection d. Mutation e. Selective advantage

b. Natural selection

The belief that the natural characteristics of an organism exert useful effects is termed a. reductionism. b. positivism. c. functionalism. d. consolidation. e. adaptation.

c. functionalism.

Functionalism is demonstrated by a. no brain differences between different songbird species. b. same-sized spatial reasoning areas in the brains in a species that primarily hunts and one that does not. c. more activity in the amygdala in an aggressive species. d. equal levels of activity in the amygdala for calm and aggressive species. e. no differences in degree of development of the cerebral cortex between dolphins and snakes.

c. more activity in the amygdala in an aggressive species.

The physiological mechanisms of an organism that give rise to certain behaviors a. can be said to have purpose. b. can be understood in terms of whether the behaviors produce useful functions. c. are thought to be different from species to species. d. are not subject to evolutionary principles. e. are present at birth and do not require environmental stimulation for complete expression.

b. can be understood in terms of whether the behaviors produce useful functions.

The principle of natural selection proposes that certain characteristics that ________ will become more prevalent in a species. a. are associated with multiple genetic mutations b. inhibit reproductive behaviors c. increase reproductive success d. impair adaption to the local environment e. reduce reproductive success

c. increase reproductive success

Over successive generations, moths develop spots that resemble eyes on their wings that scare off predators. This characteristic would be a ___________. a. selective advantage b. genetic susceptibility c. general advantage d. selective disadvantage e. genetic predisposition

a. selective advantage

Praying mantises are typically green or brown in color to allow them to blend into their surroundings. If a group of praying mantises were born a different color, they would be at a disadvantage. This change, although not advantageous for the mantis, could happen naturally through a. mutation. b. gene splicing. c. genetic alteration. d. natural selection. e. genetic predisposition.

a. mutation.

Mutations involve a. adverse neural development caused by drug ingestion in adulthood. b. accidental changes in the genetic information of the chromosomes. c. poor adaptation to the environment. d. improved reproductive success. e. only beneficial changes in the characteristics of an organism.

b. accidental changes in the genetic information of the chromosomes.

Genetic mutations a. have mostly beneficial effects. b. usually increase the survivability of offspring. c. rarely result in problems for the offspring. d. are usually deleterious. e. always confer selective advantages to the offspring

d. are usually deleterious.

The key benefit of genetic diversity for a species is that a. diversity allows the species to adapt to different environments. b. mutations are kept to a minimum. c. diversity promotes neural development. d. diversity reduces reproductive success. e. harmful mutations are increased in the species.

a. diversity allows the species to adapt to different environments.

Traits that can be altered via genetic mutations a. are beneficial. b. are unobservable. c. are physical. d. exert direct actions on behavior. e. mostly involve psychological function.

c. are physical.

The process of evolution a. does not involve genetic mutations. b. can occur in the absence of natural selection. c. rests on the doctrine of specific nerve energies. d. refers to a gradual change in the structure and function of a species. e. was proven correct by experimental ablation experiments.

d. refers to a gradual change in the structure and function of a species.

________ is thought to be an advantage associated with the development of color vision in primates. a. The ability to breed at night b. The ability to move in the forest at night c. The capacity to discriminate ripe from unripe fruit d. The capacity to communicate using symbols e. Rapid nerve conduction

c. The capacity to discriminate ripe from unripe fruit

The development of perception that allowed for color differentiation was a functional development; not all animals have this ability. What made it functional? a. It allowed the ability to breed at night. b. It allowed for night vision. c. It allowed for differentiation of ripe fruits. d. It enabled bipedalism. e. It allowed for contrast detection

c. It allowed for differentiation of ripe fruits.

Which of the following was the key characteristic of early humans that allowed them to effectively out-compete other species? a. Color vision allowed for the detection of ripe fruit and game. b. Mastery of fire allowed for provision of warmth in shelters. c. Agile hands allowed for the creation and use of tools. d. Mastery of fire allowed food to be cooked. e. A larger brain allowed for more complicated behavior.

e. A larger brain allowed for more complicated behavior.

With regard to the surviving members of the primate family tree, a. members of the family tree share 78.8% of their DNA. b. members of the family tree share 98.8% of their DNA. c. chimpanzees and gorillas share 50% of their genes. d. humans share only 1.2% of their genes with other members of the family tree. e. there is little genetic similarity between primate groups.

b. members of the family tree share 98.8% of their DNA.

Which of the following is true of the hominid species? a. Homo sapiens left Africa around 1.7 million years ago. b. Homo erectus made tools from stone. c. Homo sapiens eventually killed off Homo neanderthalis through armed conflicts. d. Modern humans are known as Homo sapiens. e. Homo sapiens evolved directly from Homo neanderthalis.

d. Modern humans are known as Homo sapiens.

Which of the following is correct with regard to the relation between brain size and body size? a. Human brains are larger than other species when expressed relative to total body weight. b. Human brains are larger than elephant brains in terms of absolute size. c. The human brain is more than 5% of total body weight. d. The elephant brain is larger than the human brain in terms of percent of body weight. e. Larger brains require smaller bodies

a. Human brains are larger than other species when expressed relative to total body weight.

Recent research has shown that intelligence is dictated by a. the number of neurons not dedicated to set functions, like walking. b. the number of neurons dedicated to movement and other set functions. c. ratio of larger brain to body size. d. ratio of smaller brain to body size. e. degree of connections between neurons.

a. the number of neurons not dedicated to set functions, like walking.

. ________ refers to the concept that human brain maturation takes a long time relative to that of other species. a. Adaptation b. Mutational drift c. Schizotemy d. Neoteny e. Maladaptation

d. Neoteny

An adult human brain undergoes a ______-fold increase in weight relative to that of the newborn brain. a. two b. four c. six d. eight e. ten

b. four

In humans, the brain reaches adult size by a. adolescence. b. infancy. c. early childhood. d. middle childhood. e. old age.

a. adolescence.

Which of the following is an argument made by the text author regarding the use of animals by humans? a. Owning a pet requires permission from a veterinarian. b. Pet homes are regularly inspected by the government. c. More suffering occurs with pet owning than with research. d. More animals die in research projects than when used as pets. e. No animal research has been useful for understanding and treating human disease.

c. More suffering occurs with pet owning than with research.

Animal rights activists are most concerned with the a. issue of hunting and trapping of animals. b. eating of animals as food. c. use of animals as companions to humans. d. use of animals as a source of fur for human clothing. e. use of animals as subjects for research.

e. use of animals as subjects for research.

Which of the following statements would LEAST likely be made by an animal rights activist? a. Animal research is unethical. b. Animals have the same degree of rights as do humans. c. The use of animals in research can be justified by the benefits of such research. d. Animal research must be supervised by veterinarians. e. There should be limits to the types of studies that are done using animals.

c. The use of animals in research can be justified by the benefits of such research.

Your textbook author views ________ as an indispensable use of animals. a. research for the treatment of human disease b. use as a source of food c. use as companions to humans d. use as a source of fur e. value as entertainment

a. research for the treatment of human disease

A benefit of using animals for research purposes includes a. the ability of the researcher to mistreat the research animals. b. the ability to test hypotheses in a non-controlled environment. c. the ability to control the history of the animals. d. the ability to experimentally produce ailments in humans.

c. the ability to control the history of the animals.

Research with animals is a. highly regulated. b. largely unregulated because animals are not viewed as having rights. c. only partially regulated with chimpanzees having greatest protections. d. only partially regulated with marine life having greatest protections. e. only partially regulated with rodents having greatest protections.

a. highly regulated.

A stroke induces brain damage because of a. compression of glial cells. b. reduced blood flow to a region of the brain. c. increased cranial pressure. d. increased nutrient flow to brain tissue. e. increased blood flow to a region of the brain.

b. reduced blood flow to a region of the brain.

Research with monkeys in the 1990s indicated that damaged nerves could be regenerated over time. This finding supports which concept of brain? a. flexibility b. rigidity c. plasticity d. stasis e. transformability

c. plasticity

A friend of yours was asked to be a research participant for a study investigating the effect of a pain reliever on muscle tears. In order to test the effectiveness of the drug, your friend will need to engage in physical activity that results in small tears in the muscles of the forearm. You caution that all studies involving human subjects must include a. freedom from risks. b. monetary benefits for participants. c. informed consent. d. parental consent even if over the age of 18 years. e. freedom from benefits.

c. informed consent.

A statement in which the researcher informs any potential participant about the nature of the study, how the data will be collected and stored, and what the anticipated benefits and costs will be for participating is called a. right to withdraw. b. agreement. c. research agreement. d. informed consent. e. informed agreement.

d. informed consent.

You should not sign an informed consent if it is missing a. the researcher’s hypothesis. b. background literature about the study. c. risks and benefits. d. the researcher’s opinion about the literature.

c. risks and benefits.

The board of scientists and laypeople who review studies with human participants to determine if they protect human rights is called the a. Institutional Research Board. b. University Research Board. c. Institutional Review Board. d. Institutional Research Review Board. e. University Review Board.

c. Institutional Review Board.

Which of the following would have to undergo IRB review? a. recording whether or not men make remarks to a woman who is walking down the street b. watching people at the mall to see if they are friendly when passing each other c. providing depression medication to an experimental group d. unobtrusively timing how long it takes women to urinate e. observing whether individuals open the door for others

c. providing depression medication to an experimental group

In 2010, a case of vague informed consent led to legal and financial consequences for the research group who conducted the study. What was the case? a. Havasupai Tribe v. Arizona Board of Regents b. Havasupai Tribe v. Arizona Board of Researchers c. Havasupai Tribe v. University of Minnesota d. GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) v. Havasupai Tribe e. Havasupai Tribe v. Miami Children’s Hospital Research Institute

a. Havasupai Tribe v. Arizona Board of Regents

In a case of vague informed consent, Havasupai Tribe members gave blood samples for the purposes of research on ______________ but the blood samples were actually used for contested research involving factors related to _______________. a. diabetes; syphilis b. syphilis; diabetes c. diabetes; schizophrenia d. schizophrenia; diabetes e. syphilis; schizophrenia

c. diabetes; schizophrenia

An emerging interdisciplinary field, ______________, is devoted to better understanding the implications of and developing best practices in ethics for neuroscience. a. neuroscience ethics b. bioethics c. biology ethics d. neuroethics e. ethics for behavioral neuroscience

d. neuroethics

Neuroethics is concerned with a. ensuring that individuals over 18 years of age have parental consent to participate in research. b. privacy of brain imaging information. c. informed consent statements that include detailed background information on the study being conducted. d. ensuring that research participation does not last longer than 1 hour. e. ensuring that all studies include some form of imaging.

b. privacy of brain imaging information.

________ is the original name for the field that involves the study of the physiology of behavior. a. Behavioral neuroscience b. Biopsychology c. Psychobiology d. Physiological psychology e. Biological pseudoscience

d. Physiological psychology

________ is the common name used today for the area that involves the study the physiology of behavior. a. Behavioral neuroscience b. Biopsychology c. Psychobiology d. Physiological psychology e. Biological pseudoscience

a. Behavioral neuroscience

________ are physicians trained to diagnose and to treat central nervous system diseases. a. Psychologists b. Neurologists c. Anatomists d. Behavioral neuroscientists e. Experimental neuropsychologists

b. Neurologists

Being a neuroscientist typically requires a a. PhD degree. b. Master’s degree. c. technical degree. d. Bachelor’s degree. e. associate degree.

a. PhD degree.

Professionals in neuroscience can be from which background(s)? a. biology b. biology or psychology c. chemistry or psychology d. biology, psychology, or chemistry e. biology, psychology, chemistry, or computer science

e. biology, psychology, chemistry, or computer science

Individuals with a Ph.D., usually in psychology, who study the behavior of people whose brains have been damaged by natural causes are a. neurologists. b. neuroscientists. c. cognitive neuroscientists. d. behavioral researchers. e. physiological psychologists.

c. cognitive neuroscientists.

The primary symptom shown by Kathryn D. was a. severe nausea. b. inability to sleep. c. muscle weakness. d. distortions of memory. e. difficulty in recognizing facial displays of emotion

c. muscle weakness.

The official diagnosis that Kathryn D. received was a. lupus. b. multiple sclerosis. c. myasthenia gravis. d. muscular dystrophy. e. Lambert-Eaton syndrome.

c. myasthenia gravis.

_______ neurons gather information from the environment related to light, odors, and contact of our skin with objects. a. Sensory b. Motor c. Inter- d. Relay inter- e. Local inter-

a. Sensory

_______ neurons function to contract muscles. a. Sensory b. Motor c. Inter- d. Relay e. Local

b. Motor

_______ are located only within the central nervous system. a. Sensory b. Motor c. Relay interneurons d. Projection neurons e. Schwann cells

c. Relay interneurons

You reach out and touch a piece of cloth, feeling its texture. The cells that gather this sensory information are part of the __________ nervous system. a. central b. peripheral c. autonomic d. parasympathetic e. sympathetic

b. peripheral

Sally’s stomach begins to rumble, reminding her that she skipped breakfast this morning. This hunger signal is sent to the brain, which is part of the __________ nervous system. a. peripheral b. central c. enteric d. human e. local circuit

b. central

The _______ system is that portion of the nervous system that lies outside of the brain and spinal cord. a. extraspinal b. central nervous c. enteric nervous d. human nervous e. peripheral nervous

e. peripheral nervous

The nucleus of the nerve cell is located within the a. soma. b. axon. c. axon terminals. d. dendrites. e. mitochondria.

a. soma.

The portion of a neuron that carries information toward the cell body is the a. dendrite. b. axon terminal. c. presynaptic membrane. d. soma. e. glial membrane.

a. dendrite.

When an impulse enters a neuron, it is received by the _________ and passed to the next cell via the ____________. a. dendrite; axon b. axon; dendrite c. soma; axon d. soma; dendrite e. axon; soma

a. dendrite; axon

When substances are transported from the terminal buttons at the end of the axon back to the soma, this process is referred to as ____________. a. retrograde axoplasmic transport b. systemic axoplasmic transport c. anterograde axoplasmic transport d. peripheral axoplasmic transport e. anterograde somatoplasmic transport

a. retrograde axoplasmic transport

When substances are transported from the soma to the terminal buttons at the end of the axon, this process is referred to as ____________. a. retrograde axoplasmic transport b. systemic axoplasmic transport c. anterograde axoplasmic transport d. peripheral axoplasmic transport e. anterograde somatoplasmic transport

c. anterograde axoplasmic transport

In order to cross the synapse between two cells, a substance called ___________ is released from the first cell (pre-synapse) to activate or inhibit the second cell (post-synapse). a. a neurotransmitter b. protein c. kinesin d. dynein e. mitochondria

a. a neurotransmitter

The membrane of a nerve cell is comprised of a. protein molecules. b. vesicle remnants. c. a double layer of lipid molecules. d. cytoplasm. e. a single layer of lipid molecules interfaced with a layer of protein molecules.

c. a double layer of lipid molecules.

Neurotransmitter molecules are most commonly secreted from the a. glial cell. b. dendrite. c. axon terminal. d. dendritic apposition. e. soma.

c. axon terminal.

A key function of specialized lipid molecules located in the nerve cell is to a. detect the presence of hormones outside the cell. b. form the membrane. c. form channels to carry ions in and out of the cell. d. transport molecules into the cell. e. transport vesicles within the neuron.

b. form the membrane.

Match up the internal cell structure with the function most closely associated with that structure. a. nucleolus; production of cytoplasm b. ribosomes; production of DNA c. lipid bilayer; production of ribosomes d. nucleolus; production of ribosomes e. mRNA; production of cytoplasm

d. nucleolus; production of ribosomes

Which of the following structures is the site of production of proteins? a. vesicles b. ribosomes c. genes d. myeline e. the nucleolus

b. ribosomes

Which of the following represents a correct match between a neuronal organelle and its function? a. mitochondria; extraction of energy b. Golgi apparatus; extraction of energy c. endoplasmic reticulum; breakdown of proteins d. microtubules; transport of chemicals through the cell membrane e. mitochondria; formation of vesicles

a. mitochondria; extraction of energy

Match the correct function with the neuronal organelle. a. mitochondria; production of fat-like molecules b. mitochondria; formation of vesicles c. endoplasmic reticulum; breakdown of proteins d. microtubules; transport of molecules between the soma and the axon terminals e. Golgi apparatus; extraction of energy for cell use

d. microtubules; transport of molecules between the soma and the axon terminals

Proteins are produced within the neuron cytoplasm by a. mitochondria. b. ribosomes. c. lysosomes. d. the cytoskeleton. e. nucleoli.

b. ribosomes.

Surplus substances within the cytoplasm are degraded by a. mitochondria. b. ribosomes. c. lysosomes. d. the cytoskeleton. e. cytoskeletal proteins.

c. lysosomes.

A key function of lysosomes is to a. move vesicles from the soma to the axon terminal. b. produce proteins. c. degrade surplus cellular materials. d. provide energy to the neuron. e. transport vesicles within the neuron.

c. degrade surplus cellular materials.

Which of the following is correct regarding axoplasmic transport? a. The dynein molecule is involved in anterograde axoplasmic transport. b. Retrograde axoplasmic transport involves moving substances from the soma to the axon terminals. c. The kinesin molecule is involved in retrograde axoplasmic transport. d. Retrograde transport is half as fast as anterograde axoplasmic transport. e. Transport of materials occurs only in one direction.

d. Retrograde transport is half as fast as anterograde axoplasmic transport.

Which of the following is correct regarding axoplasmic transport? a. Dendrograde transport involves moving substances from the dendrites to the soma. b. Retrograde transport involves moving substances from the soma to the axon terminals. c. The kinesin molecule is involved in anterograde transport. d. Retrograde transport is twice as fast as anterograde transport. e. The dynein molecule is involved in anterograde transport.

c. The kinesin molecule is involved in anterograde transport.

Movement of cargo from one end of the axon to the other involves _______ along the _______. a. axoplasmic transport; myelin sheath b. facilitated diffusion; exterior of the cell membrane c. facilitated diffusion; neurofilaments d. protein synthesis; microtubules e. axoplasmic transport; microtubules

e. axoplasmic transport; microtubules

What is true about axons? a. They receive information from other neurons. b. Axons can only be two inches long. c. Axons house the Golgi apparatus. d. Axons generate the energy of the cell. e. The longest axon in a human stretches from the foot to a region located in the base of the brain.

e. The longest axon in a human stretches from the foot to a region located in the base of the brain.

Neurons of the central nervous system are provided nutrients, oxygen, and physical support by _______ cells. a. Schwann b. glial or neuroglial c. Golgi d. stem e. microtubule

b. glial or neuroglial

. ____________ are supporting cells that can provide myelination to multiple axons at once. a. Schwann b. Astrocytes c. Microglia d. Oligodendrocytes e. Microtubules

d. Oligodendrocytes

___________ are multi-function glial cells that participate in phagocytosis, provide lactate for cells, and structurally support neurons in the brain. a. Schwann b. Astrocytes c. Microglia d. Oligodendrocytes e. Microtubules

b. Astrocytes

Which of the following is a key a function of the glial cells? a. protection of the outer surface of the brain b. removal of physical debris from the brain c. secretion of CSF in the brain d. movement of vesicles along the axon e. the conduction of action potentials

b. removal of physical debris from the brain

Nerve cells are able to rapidly metabolize fuel because a. of their capacity to store glucose in the cytoplasm. b. neurons receive lactate from astrocytes. c. glial cells can transfer ATP into neurons. d. brain blood vessels can convert glucose into lactate for neuron use. e. glial cell mitochondria process fuel for the neuron.

b. neurons receive lactate from astrocytes.

The _______ are the key supply source of energy for neurons. a. phagocytes b. Schwann cells c. dendrocytes d. astrocytes e. microtubules

d. astrocytes

A drug that specifically killed the _______ cells would be expected to alter the physical and nutritional support of brain cells. a. phagocyte b. Schwann c. microglia d. astrocyte e. microtubule

d. astrocyte

The process of phagocytosis involves a. the removal of neuronal debris. b. the transfer of lactate from a glial cell to a neuron. c. the wrapping of fatty material around an axon membrane. d. structural support of a nerve cell. e. the degradation of transmitter molecules within the synapse.

a. the removal of neuronal debris.

The scar tissue generated in the brain by _______ cells acts to impede the regrowth of nerve cells. a. astrocytes b. microglia c. Schwann cells d. axon terminals e. phagocytes

a. astrocytes

Myelination of brain nerve axon membranes is accomplished by a. oligodendrocytes. b. microglia. c. astrocytes. d. neurocytes. e. Schwann cells.

a. oligodendrocytes.

A key feature for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis in Dr. C. was a. focal damage to a single brain region evident in a CT scan. b. diverse neurological symptoms that appeared at different times. c. the excess production of myelin in the nervous system. d. the occurrence of small strokes that impair brain function. e. an autoimmune disease that attacks the myelin found in the peripheral nervous system.

b. diverse neurological symptoms that appeared at different times.

The _______ mediates the inflammatory reaction that follows brain damage. a. Schwann cell b. phagocyte c. dendrocyte d. astrocyte e. microglia

e. microglia

Which of the following is true of Schwann cells? a. Schwann cells provide myelin for peripheral nerve cells. b. Schwann cells are found within the brain. c. A single Schwann cell wraps multiple segments around a peripheral nerve cell. d. A single Schwann cell can myelinate up to 50 segments of axon membrane. e. Schwann cells remove the cellular debris left by dead neurons in brain.

a. Schwann cells provide myelin for peripheral nerve cells.

Regrowth of a damaged axon can occur more readily in the peripheral nervous system than in the brain because a. Schwann cells form barriers to axon regrowth. b. Schwann cells form cylinders through which new axons can grow and reinnervate a target cell nerve cell. c. Schwann cells generate a chemical signal that instructs nerve cells to die. d. Astrocytes form cylinders through which new axons can grow and reinnervate a target cell nerve cell. e. Oligodendroglia form barriers to axon regrowth.

b. Schwann cells form cylinders through which new axons can grow and reinnervate a target cell nerve cell.

A scan shows that a particular substance has spread throughout the body via the bloodstream but has not entered the brain. This finding demonstrates the existence of a. the blood-brain barrier. b. blood efficacy. c. medicine effects. d. the lipid bilayer. e. the doctrine of specific nerve energies.

a. the blood-brain barrier

Which of the following is true of the blood-brain barrier? a. The barrier is uniform, protecting all brain structures. b. The barrier pumps glucose out of the brain into the bloodstream. c. The barrier functions to regulate the chemical composition of the extracellular fluid surrounding the brain cells. d. The barrier is formed by cells that line the capillaries of the brain. e. The ventricles have a blood-brain barrier.

c. The barrier functions to regulate the chemical composition of the extracellular fluid surrounding the brain cells.

Activation of cells within the _______ by a poison in the blood would be predicted to produce _______. a. nucleus accumbens; visual hallucinations b. hippocampus; locomotion c. hypothalamus; vomiting d. area postrema; vomiting e. hippocampus; vomiting

d. area postrema; vomiting

The normal order of activation during neuronal transmission is a. axon –> dendrite –> cell body –> axon terminals. b. axon terminals –> cell body –> axon –> dendrite. c. dendrite –> cell body –> axon –> terminal button. d. cell body –> axon –> dendrite –> axon terminal. e. dendrite –> axon terminal –> cell body –> axon.

c. dendrite –> cell body –> axon –> terminal button.

Susie takes a huge drink of her coffee, assuming that it is tolerable, and the heat sears her mouth. Although the pain is so great that her reflex is to spit out the coffee, she does not do so. The reflex to spit out the coffee is inhibited at the a. sensory neuron. b. interneuron. c. motor neuron. d. glial cell. e. astrocyte.

c. motor neuron.

As you study for your neuroscience exam, you feel a tickle on your arm. You look and see a large spider and you jerk your arm automatically. What might be the neural path for this action? a. sensory neuron –> interneuron –> motor neuron –> muscle b. interneuron –> sensory neuron –> motor neuron –> muscle c. motor neuron –> sensory neuron –> interneuron –> muscle d. sensory neuron –> motor neuron –> interneuron –> muscle e. motor neuron –> interneuron –> sensory neuron –> muscle

a. sensory neuron –> interneuron –> motor neuron –> muscle

A key function of the giant squid axon is the a. integration of sensory messages regarding the environment. b. planning of feeding-related movements. c. contraction of the squid mantle, which propels the squid away from danger. d. coordination of general sensory-motor function. e. contraction of the oral region to produce chewing movements.

c. contraction of the squid mantle, which propels the squid away from danger.

The function of a _______ in a giant squid physiology experiment is to _______. a. microelectrode; inject potassium ions into the axon b. voltmeter; stimulate the interior of the axon c. microelectrode; compare the electric charge of the interior with that of the exterior d. voltmeter; compare the electric charge of the interior with that of the exterior e. microelectrode; dampen the electric charge within the axon

d. voltmeter; compare the electric charge of the interior with that of the exterior

The interior of a neuron at rest a. has the same ionic concentrations as the outside. b. is at the same voltage potential as the outside. c. has a higher sodium concentration than outside. d. is negatively charged relative to the outside. e. has a lower potassium concentration than outside

d. is negatively charged relative to the outside.

The difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of the axon membrane is defined as the _______ potential. a. membrane b. local c. glial d. action e. axon

a. membrane

The _______ potential is defined as the difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of an undisturbed axon membrane. a. resting membrane b. local c. resting d. action e. axon

a. resting membrane

A change in the axon membrane potential from -70 mV to -90 mV would be termed a(n) a. depolarization. b. threshold potential. c. action potential. d. hyperpolarization. e. excitatory local potential.

d. hyperpolarization.

A neuron membrane potential moves from -90 mV to -80 mV in response to a brief stimulation. We would term this change in potential as a(n) a. depolarization. b. resting potential. c. action potential. d. hyperpolarization. e. inhibitory local potential.

a. depolarization.

If the inner voltage of a cell is -70 mV and application of stimulation results in a -95 mV charge, the stimulation had a ____________ effect. On the other hand, a resultant charge of +40 mV would be a ___________ effect. a. hyperpolarizing; depolarizing b. depolarizing; hyperpolarizing c. repolarizing; depolarizing d. repolarizing; hyperpolarizing e. hyperpolarizing; repolarizing

a. hyperpolarizing; depolarizing

A(n) _______ will be recorded from a nerve cell whose membrane potential rises above threshold. a. action potential b. local potential c. downward shift of the threshold of excitation d. upward shift of the membrane threshold e. long-term change in the membrane potential

a. action potential

The _______ is the voltage level at which an action potential is triggered in a patch of axon membrane. a. resting membrane potential b. hyperpolarization event c. threshold of excitation d. rate level e. refractory period

c. threshold of excitation

A cup of sugar is dumped into a gallon of hot water. After 30 minutes, we will expect that the process of _______ will ensure that the sugar molecules are evenly distributed throughout the water. a. retrograde transport b. diffusion c. anterograde transport d. electrostatic pressure e. salinity

b. diffusion

A substance that forms oppositely charged particles when dissolved into water would be termed a(n) a. ion. b. molecule. c. electrolyte. d. cation. e. anion.

c. electrolyte.

_______ are charged particles formed when an electrolyte dissolves in water. a. Ions b. Solvents c. Transmitters d. Electrons e. Solutes

a. Ions

A cation would be attracted to a. another cation. b. an anion. c. a sodium ion. d. a potassium ion. e. a calcium ion.

b. an anion.

_______ are negatively charged particles. a. Transmitters b. Solvents c. Electrolytes d. Cations e. Anions

e. Anions

The process by which similarly charged particles repel each other and are thus moved within a medium is termed a. diffusion. b. carrier-mediated transport. c. refraction. d. electrostatic pressure. e. diffraction.

d. electrostatic pressure.

Which of the following is true of ion distribution across the axon membrane? a. Chloride ions are more concentrated inside the axon membrane. b. Potassium ions are more concentrated outside the cell membrane. c. The action potential is the balance point between diffusion and electrostatic pressure. d. Sodium ions are more concentrated outside the axon membrane. e. Sodium ions are more concentrated inside the axon membrane.

d. Sodium ions are more concentrated outside the axon membrane.

Movement of _______ ions _______ the axon would be induced by the force of diffusion. a. chloride; out of b. sodium; into c. potassium; into d. organic; into e. sodium; out of

b. sodium; into

Sodium ions move out of the axon because of a. the opening of sodium channels. b. the opening of voltage-gated channels. c. kinesin. d. electrostatic pressure. e. the sodium-potassium transporter.

e. the sodium-potassium transporter.

As a consequence of the activity of the sodium-potassium transporters, a. extracellular sodium concentrations are kept low. b. intracellular sodium concentrations are kept very high. c. extracellular potassium concentrations are kept very high. d. intracellular sodium concentrations are kept low. e. very little energy is required to maintain ionic differences across the membrane.

d. intracellular sodium concentrations are kept low.

The Na+/K+ pump removes ______ Na+ ions and adds _______ K+ ions. a. 3; 2 b. 2; 3 c. 3; 4 d. 2; 4 e. 4; 3

a. 3; 2

When students enter a class, they tend to spread themselves out (provided there are enough desks to do so). In biological terms, this effect would be a. electrostatic pressure. b. ionic movement. c. diffusion. d. antisocialism. e. ionic static.

c. diffusion.

Which of the following is true regarding the action potential (AP)? a. The AP is conducted along the dendrite. b. The AP is conducted faster in unmyelinated nerve cells. c. The AP is an all-or-none electrical event. d. The AP amplitude is higher for an intense signal. e. The AP amplitude depends on its location along the axon.

c. The AP is an all-or-none electrical event.

The specialized protein molecules located in the axon membrane that can open or close are termed a. receptors. b. voltage transporters. c. autoreceptors. d. ion channels e. sodium-potassium transporters.

d. ion channels

Which of the following is true of the action potential? a. More sodium channels are opened at a lower voltage level than are the potassium channels. b. The action potential requires 10 msec for completion. c. The action potential requires the activity of the sodium-potassium transporters during the rising phase. d. More potassium channels are opened at a lower voltage than are sodium channels. e. The overshoot is due to a prolonged change in sodium conductance.

a. More sodium channels are opened at a lower voltage level than are the potassium channels.

Sodium ions will be pushed into a resting neuron by the forces of a. inactivation of potassium channels; diffusion. b. electrostatic pressure; sodium-potassium pump activation. c. sodium-potassium pump activation; diffusion. d. ion channel inactivation; diffusion. e. diffusion; electrostatic pressure.

e. diffusion; electrostatic pressure.

Match the ion channel action with its resulting change in membrane potential. a. entry of a negative ion; hyperpolarization b. entry of a positive ion; hyperpolarization c. exit of a positive ion; depolarization d. exit of a negative ion; hyperpolarization e. inactivation of sodium-potassium transporters; depolarization

a. entry of a negative ion; hyperpolarization

Which of the following events restores the membrane potential from the peak of the action potential back down to the resting level? a. Sodium ions move into the cell. b. Potassium ions move out of the cell. c. Potassium ions move into the cell. d. Chloride ions move into the cell. e. Protein anions move out of the cell.

b. Potassium ions move out of the cell.

Which of the following sets of terms do NOT belong together? a. saltatory conduction; faster conduction speeds in smaller neurons b. open sodium channels; membrane depolarization c. saltatory conduction; slower conduction speeds in smaller neurons d. open potassium channels; membrane repolarization e. sodium-potassium pump; restoration of the normal concentrations of these ions

c. saltatory conduction; slower conduction speeds in smaller neurons

Which of the following is consistent with the “all-or-none” law? a. The action potential will diminish to near 0 mV when transmitted down a long axon. b. The action potential fires at the same rate regardless of the inputs to the neuron. c. The action potential is conducted more rapidly down the axon as it reaches the axon terminal. d. The action potential is produced whenever the membrane potential reaches threshold. e. The action potential travels only in one direction.

d. The action potential is produced whenever the membrane potential reaches threshold.

The nervous system codes for variation in the intensity of incoming sensory stimuli by variations in the _______ of a neuron. a. repolarization rate b. resting membrane potential c. speed of conduction of action potentials d. total amplitude of the action potential e. firing rate

e. firing rate

If a bowling ball fell on your foot, the action potentials would differ from a feather falling on your foot. The action potentials for the bowling ball would be a. larger in size and faster in occurrence. b. the same size as for the feather but they would be slower in occurrence. c. the same size as for the feather but they would be faster in occurrence. d. larger in size and slower in occurrence. e. smaller in size and faster in occurrence.

c. the same size as for the feather but they would be faster in occurrence.

In a myelinated axon, ions can enter and leave the axonal membrane only at a. the terminal buttons. b. the soma. c. the nodes of Ranvier. d. the segment of membrane under the Schwann cell wrapping. e. every point along the axonal membrane.

c. the nodes of Ranvier.

Which of the following is an important advantage associated with saltatory conduction? a. More sodium ions have to be pumped out of the cell after an action potential. b. Myelin allows the nerve cell to recycle neurotransmitter molecules. c. Less transmitter is required to send a message across the next synapse. d. Myelin speeds up the velocity at which an axon can conduct an action potential. e. Myelin requires that nerve cell axons be larger in order to conduct a signal rapidly.

d. Myelin speeds up the velocity at which an axon can conduct an action potential.

Which of the following was suggested as an advantage associated with myelination? a. Myelin changes the height of the action potential. b. Myelin increases the energy requirements of the nerve cell. c. Myelin slows down conduction speed. d. Myelin reduces the threshold for induction of an action potential. e. Myelin speeds up axon conduction speed.

e. Myelin speeds up axon conduction speed.

Saltatory conduction is rapid because a. cable properties carry the signal under the myelin sheath. b. myelinated cells have more leakage through the membrane. c. myelinated axons are larger in diameter. d. myelinated cells have more ion channels per unit area than do non-myelinated cells. e. myelinated fibers have a lower threshold of activation.

a. cable properties carry the signal under the myelin sheath.

The term _______ is derived from the word meaning “little bladder.” a. vesicle b. neurite c. cisternae d. mitochondria e. storage pool

a. vesicle

Small synaptic vesicles contain ___________, whereas large synaptic vesicles contain __________. a. neurotransmitters; peptides b. peptides; neurotransmitters c. proteins; peptides d. peptides; proteins e. neurotransmitters; proteins

a. neurotransmitters; peptides

Signals are carried across the synapse by a. direct electrical connections between the two cells. b. the secretion of transmitter molecules into the synapse. c. the transfer of ions from one cell to another. d. carrier molecules. e. the sodium-potassium pump.

b. the secretion of transmitter molecules into the synapse.

Communication of neural signals across the synapse involves a. the opening of transmitter-gated channels in the axon terminal. b. voltage changes that open chloride channels in the presynaptic membrane. c. vesicles that take up transmitter molecules into the axon terminal. d. the binding of transmitter at postsynaptic receptors triggering membrane potentials. e. direct electrical contact of the pre- and post-synaptic membranes

d. the binding of transmitter at postsynaptic receptors triggering membrane potentials.

The largest number of small vesicles would be expected to be located within the _______ of a neuron. a. dendritic spines b. soma c. postsynaptic membrane d. release zone e. axon hillock

d. release zone

A large, dense-core vesicle found in the axon terminal is likely to contain a. peptide neurotransmitters b. neurotransmitter receptors. c. enzymes that degrade transmitter molecules. d. synthesis peptides. e. nonpeptide transmitter molecules.

a. peptide neurotransmitters

Synaptic vesicles are produced in the _______. a. neuron soma b. dendrites c. glial cells d. neuron lysosomes e. astrocytes

a. neuron soma

Ca++ enters the cell when an action potential is generated. Diffision and electrostatic pressures push Ca++ into the cell. Ca++ channels are a. passive. b. chemically-gated. c. voltage-gated. d. always open. e. chemically-gated and voltage-gated.

e. chemically-gated and voltage-gated.

Placing neurons and their synaptic contacts into a medium containing no calcium ions would be expected to a. decrease the time required to move sodium ions out of the axon terminal. b. enhance the voltage changes associated with the action potential. c. increase the number of transmitter molecules released from the axon terminal. d. prolong the refractory period of the action potential. e. prevent the release of neurotransmitter into the synapse.

e. prevent the release of neurotransmitter into the synapse.

If Ca++ was blocked, a. Na+ would be stuck inside of the cell. b. neurotransmitters could not be released from the cell. c. voltage-gated ion channels would remain closed. d. passive channels would close. e. passive channels would open.

b. neurotransmitters could not be released from the cell.

Which of the following is true of receptors? a. The effects of hormones do not involve receptor activation. b. Neurotransmitters act on binding sites on receptors to exert their effects. c. Receptors are insensitive to drugs. d. Neuromodulators are ligands that come from outside the body. e. Hormone receptors are found in all tissues except brain

b. Neurotransmitters act on binding sites on receptors to exert their effects.

In order to produce a depolarization or hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane, neurotransmitters a. diffuse widely in the brain to exert changes in metabolism. b. act through ionotropic receptors to activate a second-messenger. c. are released into the synapse from the cisternae. d. open ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane. e. alter ion channel activity for minutes.

d. open ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane.

After a vesicle fuses with the presynaptic membrane and releases its contents into the synaptic cleft, the membrane is a. destroyed by astrocytes. b. incorporated into the postsynaptic membrane. c. recycled to form new vesicles. d. degraded and the debris removed from the axon terminal. e. incorporated into the mitochondria.

c. recycled to form new vesicles.

Match up the correct receptor type and effect. a. metabotropic; direct opening of an ion channel b. ionotropic; more time required to open an ion channel c. metabotropic; G protein activation leads to activation of a second-messenger d. metabotropic; rapid opening of a single ion channel e. metabotropic; rapid short-lived effects on ion channels

c. metabotropic; G protein activation leads to activation of a second-messenger

In comparison to ionotropic receptors, metabotropic receptors a. have effects that occur quicker. b. have effects that occur slower. c. have effects that last an instant. d. have effects that last for a limited duration. e. act directly on ion channels.

b. have effects that occur slower.

With regard to release of neurotransmitter in the brain, “kiss and run” refers to the situation in which the vesicle a. releases most of its contents into the cleft and the vesicle remains attached to the presynaptic membrane. b. closes before releasing any molecules and then moves to the cell interior. c. remains open until the next action potential. d. releases most of its contents into the cleft, after which the vesicle breaks away from the presynaptic membrane and is refilled. e. merges completely with the presynaptic membrane.

d. releases most of its contents into the cleft, after which the vesicle breaks away from the presynaptic membrane and is refilled.

Match up the correct receptor type and effect. a. ionotropic; direct opening of an ion channel b. ionotropic; more time required to open an ion channel c. ionotropic; G protein activation leads to activation of a second-messenger d. metabotropic; second-messenger effects are specific to neuronal communication e. metabotropic; rapid short-lived effects on ion channels

a. ionotropic; direct opening of an ion channel

Influx of ____ or _____ ions result in EPSPs. a. Na+; Ca++ b. Cl-; Na+ c. Ca++; Cl- d. Cl-; K+ e. A-; K+

a. Na+; Ca++

An IPSP will be produced when a ligand a. closes a sodium channel. b. opens a sodium channel. c. opens a potassium channel. d. closes a calcium channel. e. opens a calcium channel.

c. opens a potassium channel.

The postsynaptic potentials induced by most neurotransmitters are ended by a. disruption of the postsynaptic receptor. b. enzymatic degradation of the transmitter molecule. c. inhibition of transmitter synthesis. d. facilitation of transmitter release. e. reuptake of the molecule into the axon terminal.

e. reuptake of the molecule into the axon terminal.

The postsynaptic potentials induced by acetylcholine are ended via a. disruption of the nicotinic postsynaptic receptor. b. enzymatic degradation via acetylcholinesterase. c. inhibition of acetylcholine synthesis. d. facilitation of acetylcholine release. e. reuptake of acetylcholine.

b. enzymatic degradation via acetylcholinesterase.

Autoreceptors are located on the ___________. a. Golgi apparatus b. presynaptic membrane c. endoplasmic reticulum d. postsynaptic membrane e. mitochondria

b. presynaptic membrane

Action potentials are generated at the _______ and are conducted along the _______. a. axon hillock; axon b. axon; dendrite c. terminal buttons; dendrite d. dendrite; glial membrane e. axon button; glial membrane

a. axon hillock; axon

Neuromodulators are a. rarely of a peptide form. b. secreted from neurons, but dispersed widely in the brain. c. inevitably inhibitory. d. secreted from a neuron and only affect an adjacent neuron. e. typically secreted in very small amounts compared to neurotransmitters.

b. secreted from neurons, but dispersed widely in the brain.

Most _______ are secreted into the extracellular fluid from endocrine glands or tissues. a. neurotransmitters b. neuropeptides c. modulators d. hormones e. pheromones

d. hormones

In the opening vignette, Ryan B. undergoes neurosurgery to remove a portion of his _______ in order to treat his worsening epilepsy. a. cerebellum b. limbic system c. medial temporal lobe d. amygdala e. parietal lobe

c. medial temporal lobe

Early anatomists named observable brain features a. for the similarity of the structure to everyday objects. b. using a formal naming system. c. in honor of their parents. d. in honor of the early gods. e. using Greek numerals.

a. for the similarity of the structure to everyday objects.

The term “neuraxis” refers to a. the cross-sectional diameter of the spinal cord. b. a plane that divides the two hemispheres into right and left halves. c. an imaginary line drawn through the spinal cord up to the front of the brain. d. a plane that divides the brain into top and bottom halves. e. the frontal portions of the brain.

c. an imaginary line drawn through the spinal cord up to the front of the brain.

The term “rostral” means a. toward the tail. b. superior. c. toward the beak or snout. d. away from the midline. e. toward the midline.

c. toward the beak or snout.

The nose is ___________ whereas the back of the head is __________. a. rostral; caudal b. caudal; rostral c. dorsal; ventral d. ventral; dorsal e. medial; lateral

a. rostral; caudal

The parietal lobe would be considered ____________ to the temporal lobe. a. ventral b. dorsal c. anterior d. lateral e. posterior

b. dorsal

The term _______ refers to structures that are found on the same side of the body. a. contralateral b. contramedial c. ipsilateral d. bilateral e. parasagittal

c. ipsilateral

Which of the following terms means “above” when referring to the human brain? a. superior b. lateral c. medial d. contralateral e. inferior

a. superior

The right half of the brain controls the left half of the body. In order words, motor control is a. contralateral. b. transverse. c. ipsilateral. d. bilateral. e. parasagittal.

a. contralateral.

A brain region that is anterior and dorsal to the thalamus could also be described as _______ and _______ to the thalamus. a. caudal; inferior b. lateral; medial c. ipsilateral; contralateral d. rostral; superior e. caudal; superior

d. rostral; superior

Assume that electrical stimulation of the right motor cortex elicits limb movements on the left side of the body. In this instance, we would describe this as a(n) ___________ organization of motor cortex and the muscles of the body. a. contralateral b. contramedial c. ipsilateral d. bilateral e. contrasagittal

a. contralateral

Cross sections that resemble those of a slice of bread and are perpendicular to the neuraxis are produced by a _______ section of the human brain. a. transverse b. horizontal c. sagittal d. midsagittal e. parasagittal

a. transverse

In which view of the brain would one be able to note the presence of a specific structure in both hemispheres? a. cross-medial b. frontal c. sagittal d. parasagittal e. ipsilateral

b. frontal

A _______ section is made through the human brain and is parallel to the ground, and a _______ section through the spinal cord is parallel to the ground. a. transverse; horizontal b. horizontal; transverse c. sagittal; midsagittal d. frontal; coronal e. parasagittal; midsagittal

b. horizontal; transverse

A neuroscientist cuts a brain in half, along the division between the hemispheres. This cut is referred to as a _____________ cut. a. parasagittal b. horizontal c. midsagittal d. frontal e. transverse

c. midsagittal

The order of the meningeal layers from the surface of the brain outward are a. dura, pia, arachnoid. b. arachnoid, dura, pia. c. pia, dura, arachnoid. d. pia, arachnoid, dura. e. dura, arachnoid, pia.

d. pia, arachnoid, dura.

The ___________ layer(s) is/are missing from the meninges in the peripheral nervous system. a. pia b. dura c. arachnoid d. pia and arachnoid e. dura and arachnoid

c. arachnoid

The ___________ layer of the meninges is the most durable. a. dura mater b. pia mater c. dorsa mater d. subarachnoid membrane e. midsagittal sinus

a. dura mater

The _______ is a tough protective sheath that covers the brain and that lies closest to the skull. a. dura mater b. pia mater c. dorsa mater d. subarachnoid membrane e. midsagittal sinus

a. dura mater

The _______ is the middle layer of the brain meninges. a. dura mater b. pia mater c. dorsa mater d. arachnoid membrane e. midsagittal sinus

d. arachnoid membrane

In the peripheral nervous system, the _______ and the _______ fuse together to form a single sheath that protects the spinal and cranial nerves and the autonomic ganglia. a. dura mater; pia mater b. arachnoid layer; dura mater c. astrocytes; choroid plexus mater d. arachnoid membrane; pia mater e. glia; astrocytes

a. dura mater; pia mater

The brain floats within _______ fluid, which is contained within the _______. a. intracellular; pia mater b. cerebrospinal; subarachnoid space c. cerebrospinal; blood vessels d. interstitial; subarachnoid space e. extracellular; dura mater

b. cerebrospinal; subarachnoid space

The four hollow and interconnected spaces within the brain form the a. choroid plexi. b. supra-arachnoid spaces. c. ventricles. d. meninges. e. spinal aqueducts.

c. ventricles.

Which of the following is true of CSF? a. CSF is produced within the venous sinuses. b. CSF flows from the lateral ventricles toward the fourth ventricle. c. CSF is produced in the fourth ventricle and flows toward the fifth ventricle. d. CSF is a by-product of nerve cell activity. e. CSF production is sped up during a seizure.

b. CSF flows from the lateral ventricles toward the fourth ventricle.

Brain CSF is secreted by the a. choroid plexus. b. subarachnoid villi. c. neurons of the hypothalamus. d. meninges. e. spinal aqueducts.

a. choroid plexus.

CSF flows from third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via the a. choroid plexi. b. subarachnoid spaces. c. massa intermedia. d. arachnoid granulations. e. cerebral aqueduct.

e. cerebral aqueduct.

CSF is reabsorbed into the blood supply via the a. arachnoid granulations. b. choroid plexus. c. foramen of Magendie. d. nodes of Ranvier. e. dura mater.

a. arachnoid granulations.

Which of the following is correct regarding CSF? a. CSF is produced by the arachnoid granulations. b. The total brain volume of CSF is about 1250 ml. c. CSF carries nutrients to neurons. d. More than 12 hours are required to replace half of the CSF volume in a human brain. e. Drainage of CSF would result in compression of brain tissue onto the ventral skull surface.

e. Drainage of CSF would result in compression of brain tissue onto the ventral skull surface.

CSF is produced within the ____________ and reabsorbed into the blood by the _______. a. subarachnoid villi; choroid plexus b. blood-brain barrier; choroid plexus c. gut; ventricles d. ventricles; arachnoid granulations e. arachnoid granulations; lateral ventricles

d. ventricles; arachnoid granulations

Interruption of the flow of CSF through the brain ventricles results in a. anencephalus. b. ischemic stroke. c. Parkinson’s disease. d. myasthenia gravis. e. hydrocephalus.

e. hydrocephalus.

Hydrocephalus is treated by a. stimulant drugs. b. anti-serotonin drugs. c. blocking the flow of CSF through the ventricles. d. removing the choroid plexus. e. draining CSF from the ventricles using a shunt.

e. draining CSF from the ventricles using a shunt.

The rostral end of the neural tube at 28 days will eventually form 3 interconnected channels known as the a. telencephalon. b. cerebral cortex. c. mesencephalon. d. myelencephalon. e. ventricles.

e. ventricles.

Which of the terms below means “endbrain”? a. telencephalon b. diencephalon c. mesencephalon d. myelencephalon e. metencephalon

a. telencephalon

The beginnings of the nervous system develop _____ days after conception. a. 7 b. 10 c. 18 d. 21 e. 28

c. 18

On the 28th day of embryonic development, the human brain resembles a a. hollow tube. b. shallow plate. c. series of ridges. d. series of increasingly larger rectangles. e. round balloon.

a. hollow tube.

The center of the neural tube becomes ___________, whereas the outside tissue becomes ___________. a. the ventricles; the brain tissue b. the brain tissue; the ventricles c. the forebrain; the hindbrain d. the hindbrain; the forebrain e. the ventricles; the forebrain

a. the ventricles; the brain tissue

Which of the following is true of embryonic neuron formation? a. New neurons are formed near the pia mater. b. A progenitor cell forms four founder cells during symmetrical division. c. A progenitor cell forms a neuron and another founder cell during asymmetrical division. d. Progenitor cells produce new glial cells. e. The cerebral cortex develops from the outside in.

c. A progenitor cell forms a neuron and another founder cell during asymmetrical division.

The _______ is the origin of the cells that form the central nervous system. a. basal plate b. ventricular zone c. cerebral cortex d. mesoderm e. arachnoid layer

b. ventricular zone

______________ allow(s) newly formed neurons to migrate from the ventricular zone to their final resting place. a. Dura mater cells b. Progenitor cells c. Radial glia d. Astrocytes e. Stem cells

c. Radial glia

A key function of apoptosis is to a. form new neurons. b. guide new neurons to their final position in the brain. c. spur the growth of dendritic branches. d. terminate the formation of new neurons within the developing brain. e. mold an adult nerve cell.

d. terminate the formation of new neurons within the developing brain.

If the axon of a newly developed neuron is unable to find a vacant postsynaptic cell, it will experience a. apoptosis. b. a life-sustaining signal. c. synaptic contacts with radial glial cells. d. an opportunity to reroute. e. cell division.

a. apoptosis.

Radial glial cells involved in new neuron formation eventually are transformed into a. progenitor cells. b. oligodendroglia. c. microglial cells. d. visual sensory neurons. e. astrocytes.

e. astrocytes.

Which of the following supports the notion that brain development can be modified by experiences? a. The motor cortex of a blind person is enlarged relative to that of a sighted person. b. The somatosensory cortex in the cortical regions devoted to control of the fingers is smaller in expert guitar players relative to novice players. c. The visual cortex is larger in blind persons. d. Apoptosis trims the number of dendritic branches in the brain. e. The development of the neural circuits for depth perception requires input from both eyes during a critical period.

e. The development of the neural circuits for depth perception requires input from both eyes during a critical period.

Human brains are about three times larger than chimpanzee brains when corrected for a. birth order. b. age. c. body size. d. number of nerve cells. e. gender.

c. body size.

During symmetrical division, _______________ are produced. a. two new progenitor cells b. a progenitor cells and a brain cell c. three new progenitor cells d. two progenitor cells and a brain cell e. two progenitor cells and two brain cells

a. two new progenitor cells

Which of the following is true of the evolution of the human brain? a. The human brain is smaller than that of any other primate. b. Comparisons of brain size within the primate family require an adjustment for body size. c. The size of primate brains has shrunk over the course of evolutionary history. d. Primate brain size increases depended on the elimination of duplicate master genes. e. Inactivation of the ghrelin gene likely makes chimpanzee brains larger than human brains.

b. Comparisons of brain size within the primate family require an adjustment for body size.

Which type of brain development occurs into adulthood? a. myelination b. synapse formation c. neural tube development d. neural migration e. neural proliferation

a. myelination

If a cat is raised in an environment consisting of vertical lines, its brain will develop unable to process horizontal lines. This development shows the role of a. genetics. b. individuation. c. experience. d. mutagenesis. e. neurogenesis.

c. experience.

The process of _______ refers to the production of new neurons. a. apoptosis b. neurogenesis c. mitogenesis d. mutagenesis e. killer gene activation

b. neurogenesis

Neurogenesis in the adult hippocampus is stimulated by a. the experience of behavioral depression. b. a learning experience. c. the experience of prolonged stress. d. the ingestion of drugs that induce stress. e. the blockade of glutamate receptors.

b. a learning experience.

Research has shown that neurogenesis a. occurs only in the adult brain. b. occurs only in the prenatal brain. c. occurs in the hippocampus of the adult brain. d. occurs in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb of the adult brain. e. never occurs.

d. occurs in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb of the adult brain.

A _______ is a large groove found in the surface of the human cortex. a. fissure b. gyrus c. cerebral aqueduct d. ventricle e. sulcus

a. fissure

A _______ refers to a bulge of tissue located between the adjacent grooves in the surface of the human cortex. a. fissure b. gyrus c. foramen d. ventricle e. sulcus

b. gyrus

A _______ refers to a small groove on the surface of the human cortex. a. fissure b. gyrus c. foramen d. ventricle e. sulcus

e. sulcus

The cerebral cortex has a grayish-tan appearance because a. the cortex contains many axons. b. of the large amount of myelin contained in the cortex. c. nerve membrane is uniformly gray in appearance. d. many Schwann cells are located in the cortex. e. the cortex contains many cell bodies.

e. the cortex contains many cell bodies.

The surface of human cortex a. is smooth in a human brain. b. is convoluted by grooves and bulges. c. contains cell bodies that give rise to a whitish appearance. d. is about 250 square feet in area. e. is about 30 mm in thickness.

b. is convoluted by grooves and bulges.

Which of the following is a subcortical structure? a. spinal cord b. lateral fissure c. limbic system d. dura mater e. parietal cortex

c. limbic system

Which of the following do NOT belong together? a. occipital lobe; visual function b. frontal lobe; motor function c. frontal lobe; auditory function d. insular cortex; taste function e. temporal lobe; auditory function

c. frontal lobe; auditory function

The _______ lobe of the cortex contains primary auditory cortex. a. occipital b. frontal c. temporal d. insular e. parietal

c. temporal

Which of the following would be expected following damage to the cortex that lies just in front of the central sulcus? a. intense hypersexuality b. visual hallucinations c. inability to discriminate tones as low intensities d. difficulty in reading and writing e. difficulty in controlling the muscles of the body

e. difficulty in controlling the muscles of the body

The thalamus and hypothalamus belong to the a. telencephalon. b. diencephalon. c. metencephalon. d. mesencephalon. e. myelencephalon.

b. diencephalon.

Regions of the cortex that are NOT primarily concerned with sensation or movement are termed the _______ cortex. a. projection b. association c. nonspecific d. homuncular e. undifferentiated

b. association

In which sensory system does sensory information from the left side of the body travel to the left hemisphere? a. vision b. audition c. pain d. olfaction e. somatosensation

d. olfaction

The _______ region of cortex lies buried within a fissure between the _______ and the _______ lobes. a. calcarine; temporal; frontal b. insular; parietal; frontal c. calcarine; insular; occipital d. insular; frontal; temporal e. parietal; frontal; calcarine

d. insular; frontal; temporal

Which of the following would be expected as a result of damage to the somatosensory association cortex? a. an inability to recognize a familiar odor b. difficulty in playing a tune on a guitar c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see) d. problems in naming a song the person knew before sustaining brain damage e. problems in recognizing an object by sight

c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see)

Damage to the visual association cortex would be expected to produce a. problems in recognizing an object by sight. b. difficulty in playing a tune on a piano. c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see). d. problems in naming a song the person knew before sustaining brain damage. e. an inability to recognize a familiar odor.

a. problems in recognizing an object by sight.

The most likely consequence of damage positioned at the junction of the visual, auditory, and somatosensory association cortexes would be a. problems in recognizing an object by sight. b. an inability to recognize a familiar odor. c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see). d. problems in reading or writing. e. difficulty in playing a tune on a piano.

d. problems in reading or writing.

“Autotopagnosia” involves _______ and is produced by damage to the _______. a. problems in naming one’s own body parts; left parietal lobe b. a problem in remembering the names of body parts; right frontal lobe c. an inability to pronounce the names of major body parts; right occipital lobe d. a problem in speech perception; right parietal lobe e. problems in naming one’s own body parts; right parietal lobe

a. problems in naming one’s own body parts; left parietal lobe

Damage to left parietal lobe would be expected to produce a persistent difficulty in a. controlling the left arm and leg. b. producing speech. c. repeating words. d. understanding speech. e. knowing the position of the person’s body parts.

e. knowing the position of the person’s body parts.

The planning and execution of movements is a function performed by the association cortex within the _______ cortical lobe. a. occipital b. frontal c. parietal d. insular e. temporal

b. frontal

The motor association cortex is located a. just caudal to visual association cortex. b. just rostral to primary motor cortex. c. just below the auditory association cortex. d. within a fissure between the two hemispheres. e. caudal to primary somatosensory cortex.

b. just rostral to primary motor cortex.

Which of the following is true regarding the functions performed by the left and right hemispheres? a. The left hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information. b. The right hemisphere is adept at the serial analysis of information. c. The right hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information. d. The left hemisphere is adept in the synthesis of information. e. The two hemispheres perform identical functions.

a. The left hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.

The association regions of the left and right hemispheres are interconnected via axons that travel within the a. stria terminalis. b. cingulate projections. c. corpus callosum. d. medial commissure. e. fornix.

c. corpus callosum.

Which of the following most accurately describes the general functions performed by the left and right hemispheres? a. The left hemisphere is adept at the synthesis of information. b. The right hemisphere is adept at the serial analysis of information. c. The right hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information. d. The right hemisphere is adept at the synthesis of information. e. The two hemispheres perform identical functions.

d. The right hemisphere is adept at the synthesis of information.

The limbic system is comprised of a. the hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, and mammillary bodies. b. the hypothalamus, thalamus, fornix, and mammillary bodies. c. the hippocampus, thalamus, fornix, and mammillary bodies. d. the cerebral cortex, thalamus, fornix, and mammillary bodies. e. the hippocampus and fornix.

a. the hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, and mammillary bodies.

Damage to the amygdala would be expected to alter a. emotion. b. language acquisition. c. long-term memory. d. planning of motor behavior. e. hearing of loud sounds.

a. emotion.

Which of the following terms and shapes are NOT a correct match? a. limbic cortex; border b. fornix; “breast-shaped” c. “sea horse”; hippocampus d. amygdala; “almond” e. thalamus; “inner chamber”

b. fornix; “breast-shaped”

The telencephalon is ____________ to the diencephalon. a. caudal b. dorsal c. posterior d. inferior e. rostral

b. dorsal

Damage to the basal ganglia would be expected to produce difficulties in a. recognizing emotion in the facial expressions of other people. b. naming the parts of one’s own body. c. understanding social rules. d. motor movements. e. forming emotional memories.

d. motor movements.

The _______ is the key structure of the basal ganglia. a. hippocampus b. cerebellum c. caudate nucleus d. amygdala e. hypothalamus

c. caudate nucleus

Which of the following represents the correct pairing of a thalamic nucleus with its projection to the cortex? a. medial geniculate nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex b. ventrolateral nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex c. lateral geniculate nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex d. ventrolateral nucleus; projects to primary somatosensory cortex e. lateral geniculate nucleus; projects to primary motor cortex

c. lateral geniculate nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex

_______ is controlled, at least in part, by the hypothalamus. a. Pain reactivity b. Drug addiction c. Feeding d. Memory e. Language

c. Feeding

Damage to the hypothalamus would be expected to produce a. difficulty in the planning of motor movements. b. changes in eating. c. difficulties in understanding speech. d. Parkinson-like motor symptoms. e. problems in the recognition of emotion.

b. changes in eating.

Which of the following belong together? a. vasopressin; induction of uterine contractions during childbirth b. oxytocin; regulation of urine output c. vasopressin; release of ACTH from the posterior pituitary d. oxytocin; stimulation of milk ejection from the breast e. vasopressin; overeating

d. oxytocin; stimulation of milk ejection from the breast

The _______ is considered to be the body’s “master gland.” a. pineal gland b. amygdala c. posterior hypothalamus d. anterior pituitary e. hippocampus

d. anterior pituitary

The division of the brain that surrounds the cerebral aqueduct is the a. mesencephalon. b. telencephalon. c. myelencephalon. d. diencephalon. e. metencephalon.

a. mesencephalon.

Which of the following terms belong together? a. substantia nigra; sensory processing b. hypothalamus; sleep and arousal c. periaqueductal gray matter; pain reactivity d. red nucleus; Parkinson’s disease e. reticular formation; language

c. periaqueductal gray matter; pain reactivity

Damage to the substantia nigra would be expected to produce a. difficulty in color perception. b. changes in appetite leading to anorexia. c. difficulties in visual tasks. d. Parkinson-like motor symptoms. e. problems in speech perception.

d. Parkinson-like motor symptoms.

After a motor vehicle accident, Alex has difficulty walking. He feels unbalanced and his movements are poorly coordinated. He likely sustained damage to a. the pons. b. the hypothalamus. c. the reticular formation. d. the medulla oblongata. e. the cerebellum.

e. the cerebellum.

The metencephalon is comprised of the a. thalamus and hypothalamus. b. tectum and tegmentum. c. superior colliculus and inferior colliculus. d. dorsal horn and ventral horn. e. pons and cerebellum.

e. pons and cerebellum.

The pons is located a. immediately ventral to the cerebellum. b. beneath the hypothalamus. c. caudal to the medulla. d. rostral to the frontal cortex. e. rostral to the hypothalamus.

a. immediately ventral to the cerebellum.

The _______ is the most caudal portion of the brain stem. a. spinal cord b. pons c. cerebellum d. medulla oblongata e. metencephalon

d. medulla oblongata

Cessation of respiration would be expected following damage to the a. superior colliculi. b. cerebellum. c. reticular formation. d. medulla oblongata. e. caudate nucleus.

d. medulla oblongata.

The spinal cord’s primary function is to a. collect somatosensory information. b. collect motor information. c. collect visual information. d. process somatosensory information. e. process visual information.

a. collect somatosensory information.

An anesthetic drug injected adjacent to the dura sac surrounding axons of the cauda equina would be expected to deaden pain sensation in the a. tongue. b. fingers. c. pelvic region. d. forehead. e. neck and upper chest.

c. pelvic region.

The white matter in the spinal cord is located _______, whereas that of the brain is located _______. a. outside the dura mater; inside the dura mater b. outside the gray matter; inside the gray matter c. ventrally; dorsally d. inside the gray matter; outside the gray matter e. medially; laterally

b. outside the gray matter; inside the gray matter

The _______ system is the only sensory system for which the cell bodies of the incoming axons are located inside the CNS. a. visual b. auditory c. pain d. kinesthestic e. taste

a. visual

Which of the following is true of the spinal nerves? a. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord gray matter. b. Incoming sensory signals arrive via the ventral roots of the spinal cord. c. Outgoing motor signals travel via the dorsal roots of the spinal cord. d. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord white matter. e. The cell bodies of outgoing motor neurons reside in the dorsal root ganglia.

a. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord gray matter.

_______ axons conduct sensory information toward the brain. a. Afferent b. Efferent c. Projection d. Somatic e. Callosal

a. Afferent

_______ axons “bear away from” the brain. a. Afferent b. Efferent c. Projection d. Somatic e. Dorsal root

b. Efferent

The _______ nerve is named for its wandering course in the thoracic and abdominal body cavities. a. trigeminal b. facial c. trochlear d. vagus e. hypoglossal

d. vagus

Taking notes in class is regulated by the _____________ nervous system. a. autonomic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. somatic e. enteric

d. somatic

A key function of the autonomic nervous system includes the control of a. the striatal muscle. b. the pituitary gland. c. the primary visual cortex. d. “vegetative” processes. e. emotion and motor planning.

d. “vegetative” processes.

Salivation, secretion of digestive juices, and blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract are governed by the ___________ nervous system. a. autonomic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. somatic e. enteric

c. parasympathetic

The motor neurons of the sympathetic nervous system project from the _______ to the _______. a. gray matter of the sacral spinal cord; sympathetic ganglia b. gray matter of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord; sympathetic ganglia c. gray matter of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord; final target organ d. 10th cranial nerve; muscles of the face e. cervical regions of the spinal cord; final target organs

b. gray matter of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord; sympathetic ganglia

The transmitter _______ is secreted by the terminal buttons of preganglionic sympathetic fibers, whereas most postganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete _______. a. norepinephrine; acetylcholine b. glutamate; acetylcholine c. serotonin; norepinephrine d. acetylcholine; acetylcholine e. acetylcholine; norepinephrine

e. acetylcholine; norepinephrine

The key function(s) of the parasympathetic division of the ANS relate to a. the control of the somatic nervous system. b. the inhibition of digestive function during a fight. c. activities that increase stored energy within the body. d. the acceleration of heart rate and increased blood flow to the muscles. e. the inhibition of sweating and salivation.

c. activities that increase stored energy within the body.

________ refers to the study of the effects of drugs on the nervous system and behavior. a. Pseudopharmacology b. Neuropharmacology c. Psychoimmunology d. Neurochemistry e. Psychopharmacology

e. Psychopharmacology

Where a drug acts in the cell would be a a. site of action. b. drug effect. c. exogenous substance. d. endogenous substance. e. drug.

a. site of action.

The __________ of codeine, morphine, and other opiates include decreased sensitivity to pain, slowing of the digestive system, sedation, muscular relaxation, constriction of the pupils, and at high doses, euphoria. a. sites of action b. drug effects c. exogenous substances d. endogenous substances e. drugs

a. sites of action

________ refers to the process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed within the body, metabolized, and then excreted from the body. a. Pharmacotherapy b. Pharmacokinetics c. Drug metabolism d. Pharmacodynamics e. Neurobotany

b. Pharmacokinetics

Dr. Jackson is doing research in which she examines whether a drug effect is different depending on whether the drug is given orally or rectally. We might say that she is doing a study involving a. neurotherapy. b. neurochemistry. c. behavioral neuroscience. d. pharmacokinetics. e. neuropharmacology.

d. pharmacokinetics.

Kathy receives a Depo Provera shot in her buttocks every 3 months to prevent pregnancy. This injection would be a. oral. b. topical. c. intravenous. d. intramuscular. e. intraperitoneal.

d. intramuscular.

An important drawback to the ________ route is the high likelihood of accidental overdose. a. oral b. topical c. intravenous d. intramuscular e. intraperitoneal

c. intravenous

The ________ route of drug administration is commonly used for small laboratory animals such as the rat. a. intraperitoneal b. oral c. intravascular d. topical e. intranasal

a. intraperitoneal

The ________ route of drug administration is most commonly used for humans. a. intraperitoneal b. oral c. intravascular d. topical e. intranasal

b. oral

James snorts a small amount of cocaine into his nose using a rolled up dollar bill. The formal term for this route of cocaine administration would be a. inhalation. b. insufflation. c. intravenous. d. intrarectal. e. sublingual.

b. insufflation.

The blood-brain barrier is a barrier against a. cocaine. b. heroin. c. L-DOPA. d. glucose. e. alcohol.

d. glucose.

Neil has accidentally ingested a toxic chemical, which has made him unconscious and will soon kill him. Which route of administration would emergency physicians most likely use to administer an antidote for the toxin? a. intravenous b. oral c. topical d. rectal e. nasal

a. intravenous

The ________ route of drug administration has the advantage of bypassing the blood-brain barrier. a. intraperitoneal b. oral c. intravascular d. topical e. intracerebroventricular

e. intracerebroventricular

``` The ________ route is the fastest way for a drug to reach the brain. oral topical intravenous intramuscular intraperitoneal ```

intravenous

An increase in ________ for a drug would cause that drug to more rapidly reach the brain. a. metabolism of the drug via the liver b. lipid solubility c. water solubility d. depot binding of the drug in blood, bone and fat e. kidney excretion

b. lipid solubility

The primary route of excretion of drugs from the body is via the a. liver. b. lung. c. mucosa. d. kidneys. e. skin.

d. kidneys.

The primary organ that metabolizes drugs is the a. liver. b. lungs. c. mucosa. d. kidneys. e. skin.

a. liver.

Which of the following is true of drug effects? a. Drugs vary widely in their effectiveness. b. Drugs continue to show increases of effect even with super-large doses. c. Heavier animals usually require lower drug doses than do lighter animals. d. A drug has only one effect. e. For a given animal weight, twice as much drug always has twice the effect.

a. Drugs vary widely in their effectiveness.

If the therapeutic index of Drug X is low, physicians a. should take more care in prescribing it due to an increased chance of risks. b. can take less care in prescribing it due to a decreased chance of risks. c. should not prescribe it because it is too dangerous. d. should not prescribe it because it is not effective. e. should prescribe it because it is the most effective drug of its type.

a. should take more care in prescribing it due to an increased chance of risks.

Dose response curves a. indicate whether a physician should prescribe the drug. b. indicate the therapeutic index of the drug. c. demonstrate the effect of a particular dose until the maximum effect is reached. d. show the level of withdrawal an individual may experience when stopping a drug. e. show the level of tolerance an individual may experience when taking a drug.

c. demonstrate the effect of a particular dose until the maximum effect is reached.

Differences in effectiveness between two drugs that share the same site of action would be expected to result from their different a. adverse effects. b. sensitization profiles. c. dynamic capacities. d. affinities for the site of action. e. binding capacities within blood.

d. affinities for the site of action.

Which of the following drugs has the largest therapeutic index? a. heroin b. Valium c. alcohol d. barbiturates e. a mixture of barbiturates and alcohol

b. Valium

Which of the following is true of the therapeutic index? a. The index is a ratio between LD75 and ED75 values. b. More caution is required for a drug with a low therapeutic index. c. More caution is required for a drug with a high therapeutic index. d. Less caution is required for a drug with a low therapeutic index. e. The index is a ratio between the LD25 and LD75 values.

b. More caution is required for a drug with a low therapeutic index.

With repeated drug administration, the body begins to compensate for drug use by causing symptoms opposite of what the drug causes. This phenomenon is called a. withdrawal. b. sensitization. c. inactivation. d. tolerance. e. binding capacity.

a. withdrawal.

________ refers to an increased behavioral effect of a drug noted with repeated administration. a. Dynamic capacity b. Sensitization c. Inactivation d. Tolerance e. Binding capacity

b. Sensitization

After two years, Sam needs to smoke more cigarettes to achieve the same feelings as he had when he first started smoking. This need to increase dosage is due to a. dynamic capacity. b. sensitization. c. inactivation. d. tolerance. e. binding capacity.

d. tolerance.

One mechanism for the tolerance produced by repeated drug administration is a(n) a. decreased metabolism of the drug. b. increased plasma level of the drug. c. increased number of receptors in the brain. d. a reduced number of receptors for the drug. e. increased number of ion channel openings in response to receptor activation.

d. reduced number of receptors for the drug.

Which of the following is true of drug sensitization? a. Drug sensitization involves a progressive decrease in behavioral actions of a drug over time. b. Drug sensitization is more common than is drug tolerance. c. Drug sensitization is less common than is drug tolerance. d. Drug sensitization involves a decrease in the number of drug receptors. e. Most drugs exhibit some form of sensitization.

c. Drug sensitization is less common than is drug tolerance.

An example of a withdrawal symptom for a heroin addict would be a. eating. b. constipation. c. euphoria. d. dysphoria. e. craving for alcohol.

d. dysphoria.

A researcher asks individuals to participate in an experiment that causes arm muscle strain. The participants are instructed to use a provided muscle rub after the activity. One group gets a rub with active ingredients to reduce pain, whereas the other group gets a ____________ without active ingredients. a. placebo b. pseudotransmitter c. drug d. agonist e. ligand

a. placebo

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a. protagonists. b. ligands. c. synergists. d. antagonists. e. agonists.

e. agonists.

An antagonistic effect on neurotransmitter synthesis includes a. blocking a precursor. b. promoting a precursor. c. blocking NT release. d. promoting NT release. e. blocking the autoreceptor.

a. blocking a precursor.

Administering a molecule that is a precursor for the synthesis of a synaptic neurotransmitter would be expected to a. reduce the availability of that neurotransmitter. b. increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter. c. alter the number of postsynaptic receptors. d. act as an antagonist at autoreceptors. e. dampen the activity of the synapse.

b. increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter.

We would classify a drug as a(n) ________ if that drug acted to block the capacity of vesicles to be filled with neurotransmitter molecules. a. agonist b. facilitator c. antagonist d. autoreceptor agonist e. indirect agonist

c. antagonist

A drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor, but does not open ion channels, would be termed a(n) a. direct agonist. b. ligand. c. direct synergist. d. direct antagonist. e. indirect antagonist

d. direct antagonist.

A drug that binds at a postsynaptic site different from that of the neurotransmitter and facilitates the opening of ion channels would be termed a(n) a. indirect antagonist. b. ligand. c. direct synergist. d. indirect agonist. e. inducer.

d. indirect agonist.

PCP binds to an alternate binding site for the NMDA glutamate receptor, causing less neurotransmitter action. This binding action makes PCP a(n) a. indirect antagonist. b. ligand. c. direct synergist. d. direct antagonist. e. neurohormone.

a. indirect antagonist.

A drug that activates a presynaptic autoreceptor will usually a. reduce the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. b. alter the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal. c. block the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane. d. increase the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. e. be expected to act as an agonist for this synapse.

a. reduce the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.

Activation of dendritic autoreceptors produce ________; a drug that is an agonist at these autoreceptors would be classified as an ________ for the synapse. a. depolarizations; antagonist b. hyperpolarizations; agonist c. hyperpolarizations; indirect agonist d. hyperpolarizations; antagonist e. action potentials; agonist

d. hyperpolarizations; antagonist

A drug that blocks a presynaptic autoreceptor most likely a. will induce the presynaptic cell to refire. b. alters the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal. c. blocks the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane. d. increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. e. would be expected to act as an antagonist for this synapse.

d. increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.

Activation of a presynaptic autoreceptor on dendrites can produce a hyperpolarization that a. releases more transmitter. b. increases synthesis of transmitter. c. increases reuptake of the transmitter. d. reduces transmitter release by reducing the axon firing rate. e. increases the number of receptors at the synapse.

d. reduces transmitter release by reducing the axon firing rate.

Inactivation of a transporter in the presynaptic membrane would be expected to a. increase the levels of the transmitter in the synapse. b. increase synthesis of the transmitter. c. increase reuptake of the transmitter. d. provide negative feedback on synthesis or release of transmitter. e. increase the transmitter synthesis.

a. increase the levels of the transmitter in the synapse.

Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to a. increase synthesis of the neurotransmitter molecule. b. enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule. c. blocks transport of the neurotransmitter molecule through the axon membrane. d. increase the number of postsynaptic receptors. e. increase release of the neurotransmitter.

b. enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule.

The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is a(n) ____________ called _______________. a. amino acid; acetylcholine b. amino acid; glutamate c. monamine; serotonin d. monoamine; dopamine e. amino acid; dopamine

b. amino acid; glutamate

Which of the following is an incorrect match between a neurotransmitter and its effects? a. glutamate; generally excitatory in the brain b. acetylcholine; activates the cortex and facilitates learning c. glycine; generally inhibitory in the brain d. glutamate; released by all sensory neurons e. acetylcholine; subject to reuptake by the axon terminals

e. acetylcholine; subject to reuptake by the axon terminals

Which pair of transmitters are the primary excitatory and inhibitory (respectively) transmitters in the brain? a. glutamate; acetylcholine b. GABA; glycine c. glycine; acetylcholine d. glutamate; GABA e. acetylcholine; dopamine

d. glutamate; GABA

Which of the following is a reason that is it is difficult to prove that amino acids can function as neurotransmitters? a. Amino acids can be released from nerve terminals. b. Postsynaptic receptor activation by application of amino acids can excite or inhibit neurons. c. Amino acids are found within glial cells. d. Amino acids play a role in protein synthesis for all nerve cells. e. Amino acids are found within few cells of the brain.

d. Amino acids play a role in protein synthesis for all nerve cells.

Glutamate, GABA, and glycine are important because these are a. the major excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS. b. known to be solely inhibitory in the brain. c. the predominant neuromodulators in the spinal cord. d. the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS. e. involved in Parkinson’s disease.

d. the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS.

Which of the following is true of NMDA receptors? a. Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions to flow into the nerve cell. b. NMDA receptors are metabotropic. c. NMDA receptors are the most common glutamate receptor. d. The activity of the NMDA receptor is not dependent on magnesium ions. e. The NMDA receptor produces IPSPs.

a. Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions to flow into the nerve cell.

Alcohol withdrawal can lead to seizures because of the effect of alcohol on a. blocking AMPA receptors. b. stimulating 5-HT receptors. c. displacing magnesium ions from the GABA receptors. d. blocking NMDA receptors. e. blocking 5-HT receptors.

d. blocking NMDA receptors.

The hallucinatory drug PCP (phencyclidine) a. is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. b. facilitates the binding of glutamate to the AMPA receptor. c. releases serotonin from neurons in the raphe nuclei. d. inhibits the dendrites of dopamine neurons in the ventral tegmental area. e. acts via the blockade of serotonin receptors.

a. is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor.

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is produced from a. polyamines. b. butyric acid. c. glutamic acid. d. glycine. e. lysergic acid.

c. glutamic acid.

Which of the following is true of GABA in the brain? a. GABA is involved in Parkinson’s disease. b. GABA has a general excitatory effect. c. An excess of GABA may result in epilepsy. d. Drugs that antagonize GABA function reduce anxiety. e. The inhibitory effects of GABA act to stabilize the electrical activity of the brain.

e. The inhibitory effects of GABA act to stabilize the electrical activity of the brain.

The GABAA receptor is ________ and controls a ________ channel. a. ionotropic; chloride b. ionotropic; potassium c. metabotropic; chloride d. metabotropic; potassium e. ionotropic; sodium

a. ionotropic; chloride

Which of the following is a correct match between a drug and its effect on GABA function? a. muscimol; agonist at the GABAB receptor b. picrotoxin; indirect antagonist of the GABAA receptor c. diazepam; reduces the activity of GABAA receptors d. baclofen; antagonist at the GABAA receptor e. nicotine; agonist at the GABAA receptor

b. picrotoxin; indirect antagonist of the GABAA receptor

The GABAA antagonist ________ can induce motor convulsions. a. muscimol b. glutamate c. diazepam d. baclofen e. picrotoxin

e. picrotoxin

Someone with epilepsy might be prescribed a medicine to increase __________ action. a. glutamate b. GABA c. glycine d. serotonin e. dopamine

b. GABA

________ is the primary neurotransmitter secreted by motor axons of the CNS. a. Dopamine b. Norepinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Serotonin e. GABA

c. Acetylcholine

Which transmitter below induces muscle movement and is the primary transmitter secreted by efferent axons of the central nervous system? a. acetylcholine b. GABA c. serotonin d. glycine e. glutamate

a. acetylcholine

Match up the transmitter substance below with the appropriate behavioral role or action of that transmitter. a. acetylcholine; facilitation of perceptual learning b. dopamine; suppresses certain species-typical behaviors c. norepinephrine; facilitation of learning d. serotonin; increases vigilance e. GABA; generally activates voluntary movements

a. acetylcholine; facilitation of perceptual learning

Cholinergic neurons within the ________ are thought to ________. a. basal forebrain; control the electrical activity of the thalamus b. dorsolateral pons; facilitate learning c. medial septum; elicit most of the aspects of REM sleep d. cerebellum; elicit motor movements e. dorsolateral pons; elicit most of the aspects of REM sleep

e. dorsolateral pons; elicit most of the aspects of REM sleep

Match up the cholinergic fiber system with the correct role of that system in the control of behavior. a. Most CNS circuits that use ACh are inhibitory for learning. b. Cholinergic neurons in the dorsolateral pons are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus. c. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus. d. Cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are involved in the control of REM sleep. e. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum facilitate learning.

c. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.

Damage to the ________ cholinergic system would be expected to impair learning. a. dorsolateral pons b. hypothalamocortical c. basal forebrain d. medial septal e. corticospinal

c. basal forebrain

Muscle contractions often need to happen quickly so they are controlled via _____________ receptors. a. ionotropic b. metabotropic c. serotonergic d. dopaminergic e. synthetic

a. ionotropic

Hemicholnium-3 blocks the choline transporter, preventing recycling of choline. This drug is a(n) a. agonist. b. promotor. c. villain. d. antagonist. e. precursor.

d. antagonist.

Which pair of drugs below is known to facilitate and inhibit (respectively) the release of acetylcholine? a. fluoxetine; nicotine b. botulinum toxin; muscarine c. botulinum toxin; black widow spider venom d. black widow spider venom; botulinum toxin e. black widow spider venom; fluoxetine

d. black widow spider venom; botulinum toxin

It is possible to contract botulism by a. eating black olives that were improperly canned. b. using eye drops containing atropine. c. being bitten by a black widow spider. d. eating mayonnaise straight from the jar. e. over-exercise following a large meal.

a. eating black olives that were improperly canned.

An ionotropic cholinergic receptor produces a postsynaptic potential that is a. slow to develop but short in duration. b. rapid but of long duration. c. not related to the opening of an ion channel. d. rapid and short in duration. e. slow to develop and long in duration.

d. rapid and short in duration.

The disease process of myasthenia gravis produces muscle weakness by a. overproducing ACh receptors on muscles. b. reducing ACh function in the basal forebrain. c. reducing the number of ACh receptors on muscles. d. reducing ACh function in the dorsolateral pons. e. enhancing the release of glycine onto spinal cord motoneurons.

c. reducing the number of ACh receptors on muscles.

A drug that blocks acetylcholinesterase in brain would be expected to a. permanently damage brain cholinergic neurons. b. decrease the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse. c. increase the synaptic levels of acetylcholine. d. alter the activity of the cholinergic autoreceptors. e. reduce the rate of reuptake of acetylcholine into glial cells.

c. increase the synaptic levels of acetylcholine.

The postsynaptic action of acetylcholine is terminated by a. reuptake of choline into the presynaptic terminal. b. reuptake of acetylcholine into the presynaptic terminal. c. enzymatic destruction via acetylcholinesterase. d. diffusion away from the synapse. e. reduced synthesis of acetylcholine.

c. enzymatic destruction via acetylcholinesterase.

Which of the following is true of the cholinergic systems? a. Hemicholium blocks the release of acetylcholine from peripheral neurons. b. Acetylcholinesterase blocks the reuptake of choline into the presynaptic terminal. c. The drug atropine is used to treat myasthenia gravis. d. Muscarinic receptors are more numerous than nicotinic receptors in the brain. e. Black widow spider venom prevents the release of acetylcholine.

d. Muscarinic receptors are more numerous than nicotinic receptors in the brain.

Nicotinic receptors are found in ________ in the periphery and in ________ in the brain. a. cardiac fibers; glial cells b. muscle fibers; axoaxonic synapses c. the pupils; axoaxonic synapses d. cardiac fibers; axodendritic synapses e. the lungs; axodendritic synapses

b. muscle fibers; axoaxonic synapses

Which pair below represents the receptor subtypes for acetylcholine? a. cholinergic; adrenergic b. muscarinic; adrenergic c. alpha-cholinergic; beta-cholinergic d. nicotinic; muscarinic e. beta-cholinergic; delta-cholinergic

d. nicotinic; muscarinic

Which pair of drugs below are antagonists for the muscarinic and nicotinic (respectively) receptors? a. atropine; curare b. hemicholium; atropine c. curare; atropine d. muscarine; nicotine e. acetylcholinesterase; choline acetyltransferase

a. atropine; curare

Since curare blocks nicotinic receptors, it stands to reason that this drug is often used to a. tighten wrinkled skin. b. block pain reactivity during tooth extractions. c. minimize muscle weakness in persons suffering from myasthenia gravis. d. dilate the pupils of the eyes. e. induce relaxation during surgery.

e. induce relaxation during surgery.

The drug ________ causes pupil dilation by blocking ________ receptors. a. cocaine; dopaminergic b. atropine; muscarinic c. curare; muscarinic d. belladona; adrenergic e. muscarine; nicotinic

b. atropine; muscarinic

Monoaminergic neurons include a. GABAergic neurons. b. glutamatergic neurons. c. acetyl cholinergic neurons. d. serotonergic neurons. e. glycinergic neurons.

d. serotonergic neurons.

Which of the following is classified as an indolamine? a. glycine b. serotonin c. dopamine d. acetylcholine e. norepinephrine

b. serotonin

Tyrosine is the precursor for the synthesis of a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. glutamate. d. acetylcholine. e. glycine.

b. dopamine.

Degeneration of neurons within the ________ dopamine system leads to Parkinson’s disease. a. nigrostriatal b. mesocortical c. hypothalamocortical d. mesolimbic e. retinal-suprachiasmatic

a. nigrostriatal

L-DOPA is given to a patient with Parkinson’s Disease because a. dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. b. serotonin cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. c. L-DOPA is converted to norepinephrine. d. L-DOPA is converted to epinephrine. e. dopamine is too effective when it crosses the blood-brain barrier, resulting in schizophrenia-like symptoms.

a. dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

Damage to the ________ dopaminergic system would be expected to impair movement. a. nigrostriatal b. hypothalamocortical c. mesocortical d. mesolimbic e. corticospinal

a. nigrostriatal

The neostriatum consists of the a. putamen and the hippocampus. b. ventral tegmental area and the overlying pons. c. cerebellum and the nucleus accumbens. d. caudate nucleus and the putamen. e. amygdala and the hippocampus.

d. caudate nucleus and the putamen.

The ________ dopamine system plays a key role in the control of ________. a. nigrostriatal; planning and problem solving b. mesolimbic; movement c. mesocortical; movement d. mesospinal; reinforcing effects of drugs such as cocaine e. mesocortical; planning and problem solving

e. mesocortical; planning and problem solving

Low doses of the drug apomorphine a. are toxic in the same way as is curare. b. increase synthesis of epinephrine. c. reduce sensitivity to pain. d. stimulate nicotinic receptors as well as D1 receptors. e. inhibit the synthesis and release of dopamine

e. inhibit the synthesis and release of dopamine

The drug reserpine a. was used medically to treat high blood pressure. b. is used to treat myasthenia gravis. c. blocks the storage of monoamines in vesicles. d. can produce Parkinson’s disease in some persons. e. interferes with the synthesis of dopamine.

c. blocks the storage of monoamines in vesicles.

Dopamine belongs to the __________ class of monoamines. a. indolamine b. ethylamine c. catecholamine d. amino acid e. neuropeptide

c. catecholamine

A drug that causes the transporters for dopamine to run in reverse would a. increase the synthesis of dopamine. b. increase the reuptake of dopamine. c. antagonize the postsynaptic receptors for dopamine. d. spill dopamine into the synaptic cleft. e. more rapidly clear dopamine out of the synaptic cleft.

d. spill dopamine into the synaptic cleft.

Drugs that inactivate monoamine oxidase B would be expected to a. also block D2 receptors. b. increase the release of dopamine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons. c. make the dopamine transporter run in reverse. d. cause the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft. e. increase the release of acetylcholine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons.

b. increase the release of dopamine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons.

Abnormal brain levels of dopamine are associated with a. mania and bipolar disorder. b. schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease. c. Alzheimer’s disease and schizophrenia. d. Klüver-Bucy syndrome and Huntington’s chorea. e. mood disorder and depression.

b. schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease.

Catecholamines are removed from the cleft via a. degradation. b. enzymes. c. transporters. d. recycling. e. They are not removed.

c. transporters.

The final synthesis step for norepinephrine occurs in the ________ and requires the presence of ________. a. vesicle; epinephrine and dopamine beta hydroxylase (DBH) b. axon terminal; dopamine and DBH c. soma; dopamine d. vesicle; dopamine and DBH e. soma; DBH and nicotine

d. vesicle; dopamine and DBH

Which of the pairs below are synonymous? a. epinephrine and adrenaline b. nicotine and glycine c. noradrenaline and GABA d. serotonin and drug abuse e. glutamate and glycine

a. epinephrine and adrenaline

The unique aspect of norepinephrine (NE) release is that a. axonal varicosities release NE. b. NE release does not require the entry of calcium ions. c. black widow spider venom can block NE release. d. amphetamine does not modify NE release. e. NE can be released from glial cells.

a. axonal varicosities release NE.

Drugs that block MAO-A are ________ agonists, whereas MAO-B blockers are ________. a. nicotinic receptor; muscarinic receptor antagonists b. glutamatinergic; glycine receptor agonists c. dopamine; norepinephrine antagonists d. presynaptic; postsynaptic antagonists e. norepinephrine; dopamine agonists

e. norepinephrine; dopamine agonists

Norepinephrine is removed from the synaptic cleft via a. enzymes. b. degradation. c. transporters. d. synthesizers. e. diffusion.

c. transporters.

Serotonin is synthesized from a. tyrosine. b. tyramine. c. tryptophan. d. blood platelets. e. glutamate.

c. tryptophan.

Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or that cause the release of serotonin are used therapeutically to treat a. anorexia nervosa. b. depression. c. mania. d. psychosis. e. bipolar disorder.

b. depression.

The ________ serotonin receptor subtype is classified as an ionotropic receptor. a. 5-HT1 b. 5-HT5 c. 5-HT3 d. 5-HT9 e. All serotonin receptors are ionotropic.

c. 5-HT3

Cell bodies of serotonin neurons are located within the a. substantia nigra. b. basal forebrain. c. ventral tegmental area. d. spinal cord. e. raphe nuclei.

e. raphe nuclei.

Drugs that block histamine receptors produce a. Parkinsonism. b. delusions. c. drowsiness. d. REM sleep. e. arousal.

c. drowsiness.

Peptides, unlike neurotransmitters, are always a. destroyed by enzymes. b. taken back up into the presynaptic cell via transporters. c. recycled and reused. d. allowed to remain in the cleft indefinitely. e. not recycled.

a. destroyed by enzymes.

All peptides studied so far are produced from a. enzymes. b. polypeptides. c. vesicles. d. precursor molecules. e. postcursor molecules.

d. precursor molecules.

Neuropeptides are distinctive in that these transmitters a. are secreted from all parts of a terminal button. b. are secreted only from the active zone of an axon terminal. c. do not act via receptors. d. are not synthesized in the neuron soma. e. are not packaged within vesicles.

a. are secreted from all parts of a terminal button.

The term “opioid” refers to ________, while the term “opiates” refers to ________. a. postsynaptic receptors; endogenous chemicals b. exogenous drugs; endogenous chemicals c. presynaptic receptors; postsynaptic receptors d. analgesic chemicals released from glial cells; autoreceptors e. endogenous chemicals; exogenous drugs

e. endogenous chemicals; exogenous drugs

Which of the following is true of opioid effects in brain? a. Heroin is an example of an opioid receptor antagonist. b. Opioids can induce euphoria and reward. c. Opioids act to increase pain. d. Naloxone is an example of an opioid receptor agonist. e. Opioids do not induce dysphoria.

b. Opioids can induce euphoria and reward.

Drugs such as morphine and heroin are classified as a. opioid molecules. b. narcotic antagonists. c. endogenous opioids. d. opiate drugs. e. enkephalins.

d. opiate drugs.

Activation of cannabinoid receptors by THC a. stimulates appetite. b. occurs when a person smokes marijuana. c. results in analgesia. d. reduces nausea and vomiting. e. produces nausea and vomiting.

b. occurs when a person smokes marijuana.

Which of the following is true of CB1 receptors? a. Memory impairment results from the effects of THC on hippocampal CB1 receptors. b. These receptors are found in high levels within the brainstem. c. CB1 receptors are postsynaptic. d. CB1 receptors control a chloride channel. e. The reinforcing action of cocaine is blocked by a targeted mutation of CB1 receptors.

a. Memory impairment results from the effects of THC on hippocampal CB1 receptors.

Biopsych Chapters 1-4 Flashcards

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