Bipolar Disorder Flashcards

(141 cards)

1
Q

What is dysthymia?

A

persistent depressive disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is cyclothymia?

A

mood swings between short periods of mild depression and hypomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the bipolar I disorder?

A

a distinct period of at least one week of full manic episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is bipolar II disorder?

A

a current or past hypomanic episode AND a current or past major depressive episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T or F
a depressive episode is required for a bipolar I disorder diagnosis?

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are some risk factors for bipolar disorder?

A

drug or alcohol abuse
having a first degree relative
period of high stress
major life changes
medical conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what medical conditions can induce mania?

A

hyperthyroidism, hormonal changes, CNS disorders, endocrine dysregulation, CVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what drugs can induce mania?

A

alcohol
drug withdrawal states
antidepressants
DA-augmenting agents – stimulants, sympathomimetics
NE-augmenting agents
steroids
thyroid preparations
herbal products (St. John’s Wort)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the average age of onset of bipolar?

A

20-25 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what type of symptoms of bipolar do people typically develop before age 18?

A

depressive symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the consequences of early onset bipolar?

A

longer delay to treatment
greater depressive symptom severity
higher levels of comorbid anxiety/substance use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a mixed episode of bipolar?

A

depressive and hypomanic symptoms occurring at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the kindling theory of bipolar disorder?

A

abnormalities lead to more abnormalities
syndromal episodes increase vulnerability to more episodes
leads to neurodegeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

and is neurodegeneration?

A

persistent neurocognitive deficits, increasing impairment, delayed functional recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the best predictor of functioning in bipolar disorder?

A

medication adherence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what percentage of bipolar patients discontinue their medications?

A

50%
usually due to adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are some common comorbid conditions with bipolar disorder?

A

anxiety disorders (50-60%)
substance use disorder (60%)
ADHD 920%)
PTSD
medical comorbidities: diabetes, dyslipidemia, obesity, CVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the most commonly abused substance in BD?

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the leading cause of death in BD?

A

suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for mania?

A

persistently and abnormally elevated mood (irritable or expansive) and energy, with at least 3 of the following changes from unusual behaviour:
1. grandiosity
2. decreased need for sleep
3. racing thoughts
4. increased talking/pressured speech
5. distractibility
6. increased goal-directed or psychomotor agitation
7. excessive engagement in high risk behaviours
symptoms occur nearly every day for at least 1 week
leads to significant functional impairment OR includes psychotic features OR necessitates hospitalisation
episode is not due to physiological effects of a substance or another medical condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the symptoms of mania?

A

DIGFAST
D: distractibility
I: irritability or indiscretion
G: grandiosity
F: flight of ideas (racing thoughts)
A: activity (or energy) increased
S: sleep decreased
T: talkativeness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for a hypomanic episode?

A

same symptoms of a manic episode but only lasting up to 4 days
unequivocal change in functioning or mood that is uncharacteristic of the individual and/or observable by others
impairment in social or occupational functioning is not severe. hospitalisation not required. no psychosis
the episode is not due to physiological effects of a substances or another medical condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for a major depressive episode?

A

5+ symptoms must be present nearly every day during the same 2-week period and result in change in functioning (SIG E CAPS):
S: changes in sleep pattern
I: changes in interests or activity
G: feelings of guilt or increased worry
E: changes in energy
C: changes in concentration
A: changes in appetite
P: psychomotor disturbances
S: suicidal ideation
must include one or both of the following:
1. depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
2. diminished interest or pleasure in all or most activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does the MADRS measure?

A

clinician rated severity of depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
what does the HAM-D measure?
clinician rated severity of depression
25
what does the YMRS rate?
clinician rated screening and assessing severity of mania
26
what does the MDQ measure?
patient rated screening for possible BD
27
what is a positive MDQ screen?
yes to 7/13 items in question 1 yes to question 2 moderate to severe in question 3
28
what are some challenges in BD diagnosis and treatment?
delay to diagnosis misdiagnosis limited clinical trials
29
what is the most common misdiagnosis of BD?
depression
30
what is the average delay to treatment of BD?
8-12 years
31
how long does it take for bipolar mania to respond to medication?
response: 1-2 weeks full clinical benefit: 3-4 week
32
how long does is take for bipolar depression take to respond to medication?
response: 2-4 weeks full clinical benefit: 6-12 weeks
33
T or F bipolar depression takes longer to respond to medication than bipolar mania
True
34
T or F bipolar depression responds to medication faster than unipolar depression
false
35
what is a WRAP?
wellness recovery action plan lists early warning signs tools they can use when the threat of a crisis starts to come what they have to do to stay well what they will do and who they will entrust to do things for them - help take care of them - when they are in crisis a list of people they can call when in a crisis what their triggers are post-crisis plan
36
what are the medical indications of lithium?
bipolar: - acute mania treatment - prophylaxis/maintenance schizoaffective disorder unipolar depression adjunct
37
T or F lithium is highly protein bound
false
38
what is the half life of lithium?
12-27 hours longer in elderly
39
how is lithium eliminated
95% renal 4% perspiration
40
what causes decreased clearance of lithium?
hyponatremia, dehydration, renal failure or dysfunction, decreased renal blood flow
41
what is chronokinetics?
varies with circadian rhythm
42
what are the lithium concentration therapeutic range for acute mania?
1.0 to 1.2 mmol/L
43
what are the lithium concentration therapeutic range in maintenance therapy?
0.6 to 1.0 mmol/L 0.6 to 0.8 mmol/L in elderly
44
when is time of sampling for lithium?
12 hours post dose level stat if toxicity or non-adherence is suspected
45
when should lithium levels be taken?
5-7 days after starting therapy or changing doses, then once weekly until at a stabilized dose for 2 weeks, then monthly for up to 3 months, then at least every 6 months during times of infection, debilitation, changes in diet, recurrences of symptoms, noncompliance, signs of toxicity
46
why is it best to give lithium once daily in maintenance therapy?
improves compliance decrease in urine volume and decrease in renal toxicity
47
what should be done when lithium toxicity is suspected?
hold dose repeat plasma level next day restart therapy when within target range
48
T or F lithium syrup contains lithium carbonate
False syrup contains lithium citrate; caps and XR tabs contain lithium carbonate
49
what are some factors that can decrease lithium levels?
pregnancy sodium supplementation hemodialysis peritoneal dialysis burns theophylline/aminophylline caffeine acetazolamide sodium bicarb
50
what are some factors than can increase lithium levels?
dehydration renal impairment sodium loss increased age strenuous exercise cirrhosis NSAIDs thiazide diuretics ACEi/ARBs SSRIs/SNRIs chronic lithium use
51
what is the interaction between lithium and NSAIDs?
decreased lithium clearance = increased lithium concentrations
52
what is the interaction between lithium and ACEi/ARBs?
angiotensin II and decreased aldosterone levels = sodium depletion/lithium retention vasoconstriction results in decreased renal perfusion, decrease lithium clearance = increased lithium level
53
what are some common AEs with lithium?
increased thirst and urinary frequency fine tremors to hands/arms headache, sedation, weakness GI upset skin changes alopecia weight gain
54
what is usually the first sign of lithium toxicity?
GI upset
55
what are some serious AEs of lithium?
hypothyroidism renal injury blood dyscrasias bradycardia or conduction abnormalities nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
56
what is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
cannot concentrate urine = polydipsia, polyuria
57
how can lithium cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
lithium accumulation in collecting tubule lithium interferes with antidiuretic hormone volume depletion = lithium reabsorption = toxicity
58
what are the signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity?
mild: ataxia, fine tremors of the limbs, GI disturbances, muscle weakness, fatigue moderate: sedation, lethargy, ataxia, dysarthria, headaches, increased reflexes, hyperthermia, coarse tremors, impaired sensorium, nystagmus severe: coarse tremors, delirium, seizures, coma, respiratory complications, death
59
what concentration of lithium is toxic?
1.5 mmol/L + toxicity can occur at doses close to therapeutic levels
60
what are the monitoring parameters for lithium?
manic symptoms depressive symptoms CBC with differential weight electrolytes thyroid function renal function ECG plasma lithium concentrations lithium adherence lithium side effects suicide risk
61
T or F lithium is safe in pregnancy
false causes heart anomallys
62
what are the clinical indications of valproic acid?
seizures: generalised tonic clonic (grand mal), partial-onset, absense bipolar disorder - acute mania treatment - maintenance
63
T or F Vaproic acid is highly protein bound
TRUE
64
how is valproic acid eliminated?
>95% hepatic metabolism via glucuronidation, B-oxidation, alpha-hydroxylation major metabolism via UDGT-catalysed glucuronidation and B-oxidation
65
which metabolite of vaproic acid can cause liver toxicity?
4-ene-valproic acid
66
what is the half life of valproic acid?
12-18 hours
67
what is the therapeutic level of valproic acid?
350-700 umol/L (total valproate levles)
68
what is the time of sampling of valproic acid?
trough
69
when are valproic acid levels taken?
steady state trough level -- 3-4 days after initial therapy seizure activity suspected signs and symptoms of valproic acid toxicity addition or withdrawal of other enzyme inducing drugs suspected non-adherence
70
does lithium need to be adjusted for hepatic or renal impairment?
hepatic: no renal: yes
71
does valproic acid need to be dose adjusted for hepatic or renal impairment?
hepatic: yes renal: no
72
which enzymes are key to valproic acid drug interactions?
CYP2C9 epoxide hydroxylase UDPGT
73
which drugs can increase valproate levels?
macrolides topiramate isoniazid ASA/salicylates
74
which drugs can decrease valproate levels
carbapenems anticonvulsants: carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital rifampin
75
which drugs are increased by valproate?
anticonvulsants: carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, lamotrigine warfarin TCAs
76
what is the interaction between valproate and lamotrigine?
valproate increases lamotrigine levels by 50% enhances AEs of lamotrigine labeling recommends 50% dose reduction when used with valproate
77
what are the AEs of valproate?
dose related - GI: N/V/D/C, anorexia - CNS: tremor, sedation, ataxia, dizziness idiosyncratic - increased transaminases and LDH - hepatotoxicity - hyperammonemia - leukopenia - skin rash (SJS, TENS, DRESS) - hyponatremia chronic - weight pain - menstrual disturbances, polycystic ovaries - alopecia
78
is valproic acid safe in pregnancy?
no causes neural tube defects
79
what are the monitoring parameters of valproic acid?
sedation CBC with diff and platelets LFTs ammonia rash valproate levels
80
what are the clinical indications of lamotrigine?
seizures: partial onset (Adj), absence seizures, generalised tonic-clonic bipolar disorder - acute bipolar depression - maintenance
81
what is the MOA of lamotrigine?
alters signal transduction via: - binding to the open channel conformation of the voltage gated sodium channels - reducing release of glutamate weak 5-HT3 receptor inhibitory effects
82
what is the half life of lamotrigine?
25-33 hours
83
how is lamotrigine metabolised?
hepatic and renal metabolised by glucuronidation and UGT enzymes
84
why is a slow titration so important with lamotrigine?
risk of SJS
85
what are the AEs of lamotrigine?
common: sedation, headache, N, dizziness less common: dyspepsia, anxiety or emotional lability, chest pain, peripheral edema, dysmenorrhea, ataxia, rash (non serious) rare/serious: risk of SJS, aseptic meningitis, blood dyscrasias, hepatotoxicity
86
what monitoring parameters are there for lamotrigine?
baseline: hepatic and renal function ongoing: rash no serum levels or lab monitoring required
87
what are the important DIs of lamotrigine?
VPA/DVP: increase lamotrigine 2-fold carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarb, topiramate oral contraceptives: decrease lamotrigine levels by 50%
88
what are the clinical indications of carbamazepine?
seizures: generalised tonic-clonic, partial onset bipolar disorder - acute mania treatment - maintenance neuropathic pain trigeminal neuralgia
89
what is the MOA of carbamazepine?
signal transduction modulation (decrease repetitive action potential firing) and anti-kindling properties stimulates the release of ADH and potentiates its action in promoting reabsorption of water
90
how is carbamazepine eliminated?
>99% hepatic metabolism via CYP enzymes
91
what is the major metabolite of carbamazepine and is it active?
carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide active and has therapeutic and toxic effects
92
what is unique about carbamazepines metabolism?
it induces its own metabolism via the epoxide-diol pathway (autoinduction)
93
why is carbamazepines clearance and half life variable depending on dosing?
due to autoinduction
94
what is the therapeutic range of carbamazepine?
17-51 umol/L
95
what is the time of sampling of carbamazepine?
trough within 1 hour prior to dose
96
when is carbamazepine levels taken?
until stabilised at target dose - during autoinduction (every 1-2 weeks until on stable regimen) - steady state through (after 5 weeks) routine monitoring - suspected non-adherence - suspected s/sx of carbamazepine toxicity - potential DIs or altered PK - conversion between carbamazepine dosage forms - to establish what concentration resulted in mood stability
97
how long does autoinduction of carbamazepine last?
around 5 weeks
98
is dosing adjustments of carbamazepine needed in renal or hepatic impairment?
renal: no hepatic: yes - not recommended in pts with decompensated liver disease
99
T or F there is an IV formulation of carbamazepine
False
100
what is the primary mechanism of DIs in carbamazepine?
CYP3A4 inhibitors and inducers CYP450 isoenzymes
101
which drugs increase carbamazepine levels?
macrolides anticonvulsants: valproate acid, lamotrigine antidepressants: fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, trazodone - MAOIs: CI within 2 weeks of use azoles - voriconazole: CI isoniazid calcium channel blockers (esp. non-DHP) cimetidine grapefruit juice propoxyphene quinine
102
which drugs decrease carbamazepine levels?
anticonvulsants: phenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone rifampin theophylline isotretinoin
103
which drugs are decreased by carbamazepine?
doxycycline anticoagulants - warfarin: monitor INR - DOACs: use not recommended anticonvulsants: phenytoin, valproic acid, lamotrigine, topiramate antipsychotics - lurasidone: CI antiretroviral -- NNRTIs: CI estrogen OR progesterone contraceptives methadone
104
what are the AEs of carbamazepine?
dose related - GI: N/V, anorexia, dry mouth, constipation - CNS: lethargy, dizziness, sedation, headache, incoordination, ataxia, blurred vision, diplopia, tremor - CV: tachycardia, hypotension, cardiac conduction abnormalities (rare) idiosyncratic - SIADH/hyponatremia - blood dyscrasias - hepatic: increased GGT, hepatitis - abnormal thyroid function tests: decreases free T3/T4 - diplopia, nystagmus - menstrual disturbances - weight gain - photosensitivity - rash (10% morbiliform) and hypersensitivity reactions chronic: osteomalacia, vitD deficiency
105
what level of WBC warrants d/c of carbamazepine?
< 2x10^9/L
106
which genetic test should be done in Asian individuals before carbamazepine use and why?
HLA-B*1502 if positive at increased risk for SJS
107
what are the CI of carbamazepine?
hx of hepatic disease, CVD, blood dyscrasias, bone marrow depletion concurrent use with clozapine
108
what are the monitoring parameters of carbamazepine?
sedation, tremor, cognitive changes ocular exams ECG CBC with diff and platelets electrolytes LFTs renal function TSH, free T3/T4 BMD rash baseline pregnancy or allele testing if applicable
109
which contraception method is preferred with carbamazepine?
copper IUD, condoms (non hormonal) decreases efficacy of hormonal methods of contraception
110
what is the primary mode of action of antipsychotics?
DA blockade
111
which antipsychotics are used in BD?
atypicals
112
which symptoms of antipsychotics are pts with BD at an increased risk of?
EPS
113
what are some AEs of antipsychotics?
EPS hyperprolactinemia, sexual dysfunction metabolic disturbances (weight gain, dyslipidemia, DM, CVD) anticholinergic: sedation, constipation, dry mouth, blurred vision, confusion antihistaminergic: sedation alpha1 blockade: hypotension, reflex tachycardia, dizziness, sedation QT prolongation seizures
114
what are the monitoring parameters for antipsychotics?
BMI, vitals A1C/FBG, lipids ECG liver function, renal function, electrolytes, CBC prolactin
115
what was the objective of the STEP-BD study?
to determine if adjunctive antidepressant therapy reduces symptoms of bipolar depression without increasing risk of mania
116
what is the consensus with antidepressants in bipolar?
avoid AD monotherapy without an antimanic agent use with caution in people with a hx of AD-induced mania, mixed features or rapid cycling d/c use during acute manic episode consider tapering off once depression symptoms eliminated for 3-4 mo.
117
which antidepressants seem to be the safest in BD?
bupropion > sertraline, then fluoxetine and other SSRIs (NOT paroxetine)
118
which antidepressants have the highest risk of switch in bipolar depression?
TCAs >> SNRIs paroxetine also not recommended
119
what is the first line treatment for acute mania?
monotherapy: - lithium - quetiapine - divalproex - aripiprazole - paliperidone (>6mg) - risperidone combination: lithium or divalproex + quetiapine, risperidone or asenapine
120
when is it recommended to start acute mania treatment off as combination therapy over monotherapy?
a response is needed faster, history of partial acute or prophylactic response to monotherapy or in those with more severe manic episodes
121
when is lithium preferred over divalproex?
in individuals who display classical euphoric grandiose mania, few prior episodes of illness, a mania-depression-euthymia course, and/or those with a family history of BD, especially with a family hx of lithium response
122
when is divalproex recommended?
those with multiple prior episodes, predominant irritable or dysphoric mood and/or comorbid SUD or those with a hx of head trauma
123
which medication regimens are recommended in BD with mixed features?
DVP or APs, especially AP + DVP
124
when should an add on or switch strategy be considered in acute mania treatment?
if not response within 2 weeks of starting a first line agent
125
what is second line treatment of acute mania?
2nd line monotherapy: - olanzapine - carbamazepine - ziprasidone - haloperidol 2nd line combination: olanzapine + lithium or divalproex ECT
126
which agents are NOT recommended for acute mania?
gabapentin lamotrigine omega 3 fatty acids topiramate
127
what is first line treatment of BD I depression?
quetiapine lurasidone + Li/DVP lithium lamotrigine monotherapy or adj lurasidone
128
what is the 2nd line treatment of bipolar I depression?
2nd line monotherapy: divalproex 2nd line add on therapy - adj SSRI or bupropion (added to Li/DVP or AAP) - olanzapine-fluoxetine ECT
129
when is ECT considered in bipolar I depression?
refractory pts and if rapid response in needed (imminent suicide risk, catatonia, psychotic depression, medical stabilization)
130
which agents are not recommended in bipolar I depression?
antidepressant monotherapy aripiprazole monotherapy ziprasidone mono/adjunctive therapy lamotrigine with folic acid mifepristone adj
131
why is it important for maintenance treatment early in disorder?
- reverse cognitive impairment - preserve brain plasticity - may lead to improved prognosis and minimisation of illness progression
132
what are some risk factors for recurrence of episodes?
younger age at onset psychotic features rapid cycling more previous episodes comorbid anxiety comorbid SUD
133
which psychosocial treatment is 1st line in bipolar I maintenance?
psychoeducation
134
what are the first line agents for BDI maintenance therapy?
lithium quetiapine divalproex lamotrigine asenapine or aripiprazole quetiapine or aripiprazole + Li/DVP
135
what is 2nd line therapy for BDI maintenance therapy?
2nd line monotherapy - olanzapine - risperidone injectable - carbamazepine - paliperidone injectable 2nd line add on therapy: risperidone injectable adj
136
which agents are not recommended for BDI maintenance?
perphenazine TCAs
137
which bipolar agents should be absolutely avoided in pregnancy?
DVP/VPA, CBZ
138
which agent has the least risk in pregnancy?
lamotrigine
139
which bipolar agent has evidence that it reduces suicide risk?
lithium
140