BK29 Flashcards

1
Q

How many chapters in book 29?

A

9

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2
Q

The original distribution of book 29 will include the binder index tabs, and how many chapters?

A

4

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3
Q

Ventilation is the “_________” removal of heat, smoke, and fire gases from a structure, and replacing it with cooler, clean, fresh air.

A

systematic

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4
Q

What four objectives will effective ventilation accomplish?

A
  1. Save lives
  2. Assist in firefighter access
  3. Control horizontal spread of fire
  4. Reduce possibility of flashover and backdraft
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5
Q

Ventilation will also reduce the chance of ___ burns to firefighters from their hose stream

A

steam

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6
Q

If the heat, smoke, and fire gases are not released, they will accumulate at the highest point of the structure and begin to bank down and spread laterally. This process is generally known as?

A

Mushrooming

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7
Q

What is a condition where all of the contents of a room are heated to their ignition temperature?

A

Flashover

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8
Q

Each year in the United States, there is an average of 100 deaths to firefighters in the fire service. On an average, ___ of those deaths are due to flashover, and the number is slowly rising each year.

A

85

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9
Q

With horizontal ventilation, there are two methods usually performed, which are what?

A

natural and positive pressure ventilation.

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10
Q

The key to safe and effective roof ventilation is the knowledge of what?

A

rafter type and rafter direction

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11
Q

There are basically only TWO types of ventilation holes. What are they?

A

Heat hole (Offensive) and Strip Ventilation (Defensive)

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12
Q

Center rafter cut is a technique used when cutting what?

A

plywood sheathing (4 cuts)

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13
Q

Which cut provides the largest hole possible with the minimum amount of cuts?

A

Center Rafter Cut

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14
Q

Plywood sheathing is installed so that the __’ dimension of the plywood crosses the rafters or joists and the __’ dimension parallels the rafters or joists.

A

8’, 4’

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15
Q

“H” clips are metal clips used to hold the butted ends of plywood together. “H” clips are common on what types of roofs?

A

pitched roofs

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16
Q

A head cut is used for what?

A

locate rafters

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17
Q

A head cut must be done on roofs covered with plywood and _________ sheathing.

A

diagonal

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18
Q

What motion brings the pulling tool under and up to the decking in a smooth, forceful motion that will separate the decking material from the rafters?

A

“J” hook

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19
Q

What is a single cut made through the roof decking, the same width as the chain saw blade?

A

Kerf Cut

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20
Q

For roof ventilation a minimum of how many ladders should be thrown to the involved structure?

A

two

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21
Q

When louvering, once all 4 cuts are complete, use a rubbish hook and push down on the ____ side (the side closest to your ladder)

A

near

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22
Q

Nailing blocks will usually be found every how many feet?

A

4

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23
Q

What is a cut through the roof decking made parallel to the roof rafters?

A

Parallel Cut

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24
Q

What is a small triangular piece of roof covering, which is removed from the roof to expose the roof sheathing?

A

Plug Cut

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25
Q

What is a plug cut used for?

A

Determine sheathing type and roof composition thickness

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26
Q

What does OSB stand for?

A

oriented strand board

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27
Q

What is a light cut of the roof covering, usually composition only?

A

Score Cut

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28
Q

What is a light cut made with chain saw, cutting through the roof covering and plywood sheathing?

A

Skim Cut

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29
Q

Skylights are usually constructed from what?

A

glass or plastic

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30
Q

What is a small triangular hole cut through the roof decking (sheathing and roof material) made with the chain saw or an axe?

A

smoke indicator hole

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31
Q

Smoke indicator holes should be placed along the path of access or egress how far apart?

A

every few yards

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32
Q

Why is a rubbish hook recommended and superior to pick-head axe as a sounding tool?

A

because of its weight and reach

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33
Q

A turbine-style ventilator is how much more effective when the turbine is spinning?

A

about 30%

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34
Q

What cut is a series of two cuts used to identify rafter direction “ONLY”

A

45-degree cut

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35
Q

45-degree cut. when you hit a rafter, “STOP”. Make a second cut __________________ to the exterior wall

A

parallel or perpendicular

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36
Q

What will a 45-degree inspection cut tell you?

A
  • rafter type
  • rafter direction
  • sheathing type
  • composition thickness
  • smoke indicator hole (when complete)
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37
Q

When doing a 45-degree inspection cut, when the saw makes contact with a rafter, roll over the rafter and continue cut for approximately how far?

A

6 to 10 inches

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38
Q

What are the three cutting techniques?

A

Dicing, center rafter louver, and panelized

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39
Q

When dicing, after the chain saw operator makes the ____ cut, the puller can start pulling boards.

A

third

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40
Q

What is all that needs to be known for dicing?

A

rafter type and direction

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41
Q

How long are dices?

A

determined by reach tool

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42
Q

Always leave a minimum of how many un-pulled section(s) between the cutter and the puller?

A

one

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43
Q

When making a center rafter louver you must determine the location of how many rafters?

A

3

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44
Q

Rafter type and direction is determined by the use of what diagnostic tools?

A

plug cut, 45 degree inspection cut, sounding, etc.

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45
Q

Center rafter louver, after cutting head cut, move back to the first “outside” rafter and cut a parallel cut approximately how far inside the rafter?

A

2 to 3 inches

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46
Q

Center rafter louver, make parallel cuts approximately how long?

A

3-1/2 feet

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47
Q

Drop method. Cut how far inside the purlins to avoid hitting metal hangers?

A

4 to 6 inches

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48
Q

What are different types of panelized cuts?

A
  • Drop (offensive)
  • Pullback (offensive)
  • Offensive louver (offensive)
  • Louver off a main (Defensive)
  • Louver off a purlin (Defensive)
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49
Q

When louvering off a main beam, reach out approximately how far?

A

3-1/2 feet

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50
Q

When louvering off a purlin, start a “skim cut”, reaching out as far as you comfortably can, approximately how far?

A

3-1/2 feet

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51
Q

Heavy timbers have been replaced by smaller dimension lumber, and ____________ based compounds have replaced conventional building materials, regardless of building size.

A

petrochemical

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52
Q

What is one of the most valuable factors we are losing as chemical composition of building materials change?

A

time

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53
Q

A working knowledge of building construction provides foundation for effective, timely, and safe operation in what areas?

A
  • ladder placement
  • forcible entry/search and rescue
  • ventilation feasibility
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54
Q

What is a mental evaluation that assists in determining a course of action and the methods necessary to accomplish a desired goal?

A

Size-up

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55
Q

What do conventional structural members depend on for their strength?

A

size

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56
Q

What do lightweight truss construction rely on for strength?

A

multiple members in tension and compression

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57
Q

A single lightweight truss structural member can span ___ feet and may be comprised of 2x4’s in compression and tension to form an integral unit.

A

70

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58
Q

Roof styles can be divided into what categories?

A
  1. Gable
  2. Hip
  3. Flat
  4. Bridge truss
  5. Arch
  6. Sawtooth
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59
Q

Conventional construction, gable rafters are usually how big?

A

2x6 inches or larger. 16 to 24 inches on center

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60
Q

Conventional gable ridge boards were comprised of what?

A

1x6” or no ridge board and 2x6” rafters butted together

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61
Q

Rafter spacing can be up to how far on-center for steep pitched roofs?

A

36 inches

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62
Q

What is most common size of metal gusset plate connectors?

A

18 gauge steel plate with prongs that produce 3/8” penetration

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63
Q

Eighteen-gauge “roof truss clips” may be found nailed to the bottom chord of every how many trusses and top plate of interior walls?

A

every 3 to 5 trusses

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64
Q

What is common “on-center” spacing for truss rafters?

A

24 inches

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65
Q

Newer gable roofs will use what size plywood as decking instead of 1x4” or 1x6”

A

3/8” or 1/2”

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66
Q

Bridge truss roofs are found primarily constructed what years?

A

1930s and 1940s

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67
Q

Bridge trussWood truss members are build from what size lumber?

A

2x12”

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68
Q

Rafter size on bridge truss roof are usually what size?

A

2x6” or larger

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69
Q

What years were bowstring arch roofs constructed?

A

1930s, 1940s and 1950s

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70
Q

Arch trusses are usually constructed using what size lumber?

A

2x12” or 2x14”

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71
Q

What are rafter size on bowstring arch roof?

A

2x6” or larger

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72
Q

Lamella arch roof is constructed from what size lumber?

A

2x12”

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73
Q

With Lamella arch roofs, total roof collapse may occur if fire removes how much roof structure?

A

more than 20% (“the domino effect”)

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74
Q

What size are tie rods in tied truss arch roofs?

A

5/8th inch diameter with turnbuckles

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75
Q

What are rafter size on tied truss arch roof?

A

2x10” or larger

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76
Q

What size is top cord usually on tied truss arch roof?

A

2x12 or larger

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77
Q

Sawtooth roofs usually constructed with what size rafters?

A

2x8” or larger

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78
Q

Sheathing on sawtooth roof is usually 1x6 sheathing or ___ plywood in newer roofs

A

1/2”

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79
Q

Plywood sheathing on flat roofs may be what size?

A

3/8” to 5/8”

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80
Q

The stem on a wooden I Beam may be what size?

A

3/8” plywood or chip-board

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81
Q

Nailing blocks are placed perpendicular to the top chords and are spaced how far apart?

A

4’

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82
Q

The ability to accurately estimate the amount of time that a structure can be considered structurally strong is dependent of what factors?

A
  • Type of construction
  • How long fire has been burning
  • Fire intensity
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82
Q

The integrity of what must be evaluated for safe operations?

A

working surface (roof and floor decking)

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83
Q

Open web steel tube members are prefabricated from what size cold rolled steel tubing with ends pressed flat into semicircle with a hole punched through end?

A

one to two inch

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84
Q

Open web steel pins up to what size are driven through the chord members flattened ends?

A

up to one inch

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85
Q

Open web spans up to how long are possible using 2x4 or two 2x3’s as top and bottom chords.

A

70’

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86
Q

A single 2 x 4 up to 70 feet is made possible by joining different lengths in glued, mitered “__________.”

A

finger joints

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87
Q

Utilization of 2x4’s in metal gusset plate roofs can span up to how long?

A

80’

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88
Q

what size is decking usually on metal gusset plate roofs?

A

1/2

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89
Q

metal gusset plate dwellings will use what size plywood?

A

3/8 or 1/2 inch

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90
Q

what size are laminated beams in a panelized roof?

A

6x36”

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91
Q

Panelized beams are spaced how far apart?

A

12 and 40 feet

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92
Q

Panelized beams may be bolted together to provide lengths well in excess of what?

A

100’

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93
Q

Purlins are installed with metal hangers how far apart?

A

8’

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94
Q

Common size for purlin is what?

A

4x12”

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95
Q

what size are panelized rafters?

A

2x4, 24” OC

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96
Q

what size are panelized sheets of plywood?

A

1/2” 4’x8’

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97
Q

Strengths of a Panelized roof?

A
  • Beams
  • Purlins
  • Building Perimeter
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98
Q

Panelized beam span supports of ___ inch steel pipe may be found

A

4”

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99
Q

Open web bar joist, top and bottom chords are usually made from what size steel?

A

1/8”

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100
Q

Open web bar joist web supports are what size?

A

solid 5/8” steel bar

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101
Q

open web bar joist, large buildings may have bar-joists used as girders spaced up to how far?

A

45 feet

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102
Q

Open web bar Joists are spaced ____ feet apart to accept corrugated metal decking covered by alternating layers of tar and tar paper.

A

8’

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103
Q

Open web bar joist may also be found with what size plywood as decking?

A

1/2”

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104
Q

metal exposed to fire or sufficient heat, steel begins to lose its strength at what temperature?

A

1000F

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105
Q

A steel or wood sub-structure covered by corrugated metal is also known as what?

A

Robertson Decking

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106
Q

An air-entrained mixture of sand, cement and, occasionally, pea gravel is pumped on top of the corrugated metal decking and 4 x 4 inch or 6 x 6 inch wire mesh to a thickness of what?

A

three to four inches

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107
Q

What should you use to ventilate lightweight concrete roof?

A

rotary saw with a diamond blade or carbide tipped wood blade

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108
Q

What are types of metal construction methods?

A

corrugated and metal beam

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109
Q

When exposed to sufficient heat, metal beams can expand how far which can push out walls?

A

9” per 100’

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110
Q

Concrete tilt ups can be up to how high?

A

5 stories

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111
Q

Brick buildings constructed up until the 1930’s are commonly classified as?

A

unreinforced masonry buildings.

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112
Q

URM exterior walls are about how thick?

A

13”

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113
Q

Pre-33 URM, parapet walls can be ___ feet about the roof line, and ___ feet or more if used as a facade on the front of building

A

3, 5

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114
Q

How are pre-33 floor and roof rafters inserted into the inside of the exterior walls?

A

“let” (penetrated or resting in a cavity)

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115
Q

Pre-33 how are roof and floor joist cut so they would pull loose from the exterior walls?

A

“fire cut”

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116
Q

What earthquake occurred in 1933?

A

Long Beach

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117
Q

Post 33 walls are required to be how thick?

A

9”

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118
Q

Post 33 walls were reinforced with what?

A

rebar

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119
Q

Post 33 added what to mortar for strength?

A

cement

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120
Q

Post 33 how were all joists and rafters anchored to exterior walls?

A

Ledger board to masonry wall and attach with metal hangers

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121
Q

When was the Tehachapi earthquake?

A

1959

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122
Q

Post 1959, what size bond beam cap was laid on top of lowered parapet walls along public ways and exits?

A

4 to 6 inch

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123
Q

Post 1959, including bond beam cap, parapet walls should not be higher than what?

A

16 inches

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124
Q

Post 1959, Exterior walls drilled at the roof rafter level and a steel anchor bar/rod installed every _____ feet and attached to the existing roof rafter. This modification rendered the fire cut of the roof rafter ineffective. The steel anchor bar/rods are secured to the exterior of the building by a plate/nut combination that is known as “rafter tie plates.”

A

4

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125
Q

what earthquake happened in 1971?

A

Sylmar earthquake

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126
Q

What earthquake caused a committee to form to evaluate URM buildings, which was instrumental in retroactive corrections (earthquake ordinance)

A

1971 Sylmar Earthquake

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127
Q

Post 1971, earthquake ordinance designed to prevent exterior walls from collapsing outward by stabilizing the building by?

A
  • Anchoring walls to floor and roof systems: add steel bracing from parapet walls to roof structural members.
  • Strengthening roof construction: Metal straps across the width of the roof and attached to opposing walls. The straps are usually 1/3 of the length of the building back from the front and rear walls. Remove the layers of composition and cover the sheathing with ½ inch plywood. This decking is then recovered with composition.
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128
Q

Brick identification, window frames are “set” to the inside of the wall, thereby exposing about ____ inches of brick return on the exterior of a building.

A

8

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129
Q

“king row” is row of bricks, one row will have been laid “on-end” how often?

A

In every four to seventh row

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130
Q

Earthquake Ordinance. Metal straps across the width of the roof and attached to opposing walls. The straps are usually ____ of the length of the building back from the front and rear walls.

A

1/3

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131
Q

Earthquake ordinance. Remove the layers of composition and cover the sheathing with ___ inch plywood.

A

1/2

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132
Q

When arch roofs (particularly the bowstring and tied truss) are modified as per the Earthquake Ordinance, the additional roof stability provided by plywood and metal straps can increase the potential for collapse of what?

A

front/rear walls

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133
Q

exterior walls may suddenly collapse (during fire conditions) outward a distance of what?

A

that is equal to at least the height of the wall.

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134
Q

Metal straps across the width of the building _______ feet from walls are hard on power saws.

A

three to four

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135
Q

A facade can be defined as an “identifiable style of construction on the exterior of a building that will conceal and spread the travel (extension) of fire.” To summarize, facades are external _______.

A

attics

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136
Q

Facades are used for what?

A

conceal equipment and machinery on flat roofs

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137
Q

With facades, the extension of fire will be affected by the presence or lack of what?

A

“fire stops”

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138
Q

Facades are usually _____ to the attic of a building.

A

open or common

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139
Q

If a facade is exposed to fire, expect the facade to collapse outward how far?

A

at least the distance of the overhang of the facade.

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140
Q

The structural stability of a facade will be enhanced if supported by what?

A

pillars, posts or other means that are often used for style of decoration.

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141
Q

Bungalow and balloon construction were constructed during when?

A

1920s, 1930s, 1940s

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142
Q

Bungalow and balloon construction primarily utilized in SFD and multi-story habitational occupancies up to how many stories?

A

4

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143
Q

Bungalow and balloon construction can be classified as what?

A

“old type” of lightweight construction

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144
Q

Bungalow and balloon construction utilized 2x3 or 2x4 inch rafters for room structural members and ridge that is comprised of what?

A

1x6

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145
Q

Knob and tube insulators were made of what?

A

ceramic

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146
Q

Depending on the particular method that is employed, “curtain” construction can be about ___% faster than conventional construction.

A

60

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147
Q

Curtain construction can be identified by pre fire planning or recognizing what look?

A

“cube” or “smooth”

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148
Q

What are three general time periods that can be used to classify buildings?

A
  • Pre-1933
    -1933 to Late 1950’s
    -1950’s to present
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149
Q

To ensure effective and safe fireground operations when it comes to lightweight construction, personnel must address what four areas?

A

-Identification
-Communication
-Time
-Operations

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150
Q

Smoke removal. The primary goal of effective ventilation operations is the reduction or removal of smoke, heat, and fire gases (contaminants) from a structure or enclosed area in a _________.

A

timely manner

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151
Q

Smoke removal. Plans for ventilation operations should begin by identifying what?

A

the direction (horizontal or vertical) contaminants must travel to exit the contaminated area

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152
Q

What are two basic methods utilized to pressurize a contaminated area to enhance or direct travel of contaminants to the exterior?

A

Natural and Mechanical positive pressure ventilation

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153
Q

Natural Ventilation is dependent on what factors?

A
  • Proximity of the ventilation opening to the contaminants to be removed.
  • Ability of the contaminants to travel unobstructed to a ventilation opening.
  • Number and size of ventilation openings.
  • Direction of wind.
  • Humidity.
  • Temperature differential between the interior and exterior of a building.
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154
Q

Effective ventilation DRAMATICALLY assists in what?

A

attack, control and extinguishment of a structure fire

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155
Q

Utilizing portable blowers, the natural ventilation process can be dramatically assisted or replaced by _________ the movement of contaminants to Exits through pre-selected and/or controlled openings.

A

Forcing

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156
Q

What are the current methods that are utilized to provide pressurized ventilation with portable blowers?

A

negative and positive pressure ventilation

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157
Q

Exterior blowers are efficient in removing contaminants where?

A

top, bottom and corners of a room or building

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158
Q

Compared to negative pressure ventilation, positive pressure ventilation is approximately _____ as effective at removing contaminants from a building.

A

twice

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159
Q

The effective implementation of positive pressure is dependent on the entrance opening, airflow between openings, exhaust opening, weather, training and ____________.

A

communication

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160
Q

The location of the exhaust opening is dependent on what?

A

the location of heat and smoke, and the prioritization of suppression operations.

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161
Q

Positive pressure is most efficient when the exhaust opening is what size?

A

between 3/4 to 1-3/4 the size of the entrance opening

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162
Q

If a gasoline powered blower is being utilized and an exhaust odor is noticeable inside the building or area to be ventilated, this is an indicator of what?

A

exhaust opening is not large enough

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163
Q

Temperature, humidity, and rain do or do not have any appreciable effect on positive pressure ventilation?

A

do not

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164
Q

As in any ventilation operation, maximum efficiency can be obtained by utilizing the prevailing wind direction to an advantage, which is what way?

A

windward to leeward

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165
Q

Positive pressure has proven effective against winds leeward to windward up to how many mph?

A

25

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166
Q

A single blower should be positioned so the cone of pressurized air _____ covers the entrance opening

A

JUST

167
Q

Optimum blower placement is dependent on what?

A

size of entrance opening and CFM of blower

168
Q

For standard entrance openings maximum effectiveness is achieved by placing two blowers how?

A

in series with each other

169
Q

In series blowers, blower closest to the door is about __ feet from the entrance opening, second blower is utilized to cover the entrance with pressured air and increases the closest blower by approximately what?

A

2, 10%

170
Q

In series, if two blowers of unequal CFM, place _____ blower 2 feet back from entrance and utilize the ____ blower behind to cover the entrance opening.

A

larger, smaller

171
Q

If the area in front of an entrance opening is limited, place the smaller blower in the entrance opening and the larger blower __________ feet back from the door. Use the larger cone of pressurized air to seal the entrance opening.

A

three to four

172
Q

For standard entrance openings, multiple blowers in a parallel (side-by-side) configuration are ____ effective than multiple blowers in a series configuration.

A

less

173
Q

Areas or locations that do not have an exhaust opening can be effectively ventilated by using what?

A

multiple blowers

174
Q

Removing screens on windows prior to using openings for ventilation purposes will increase efficiency of openings by what?

A

50%

175
Q

Clearing a hallway and apartment is most effectively accomplished by opening a patio sliding glass door, large window, or using a room with?

A

the greatest number of windows as the initial exhaust opening.

176
Q

When using blowers opposing each other does size of the blowers matter?

A

blowers of unequal or equal ratings can be effective

177
Q

Water powered blowers will produce considerably more CFM than the same size gasoline blowers and should be considered for what?

A
  • Metro rail tunnels
  • High rise buildings
  • large underground parking structures
  • very large apartment buildings.
178
Q

Water powered blowers are _________ safe and can be used at hazmat incidents.

A

intrinsically

179
Q

Overhaul operations are conducted for what purpose?

A
  • Ensure fire is completely out
  • determine the probable cause
  • leave the owner or insurance adjuster some means of determining the loss
180
Q

Depending on the type of fire, concentrations of carbon monoxide within the range of _____ parts-per-million (ppm) to ______ ppm are easily obtainable during overhaul operations.

A

500 to 1200

181
Q

What amount of carbon monoxide can be inhaled for ONE hour without appreciable effects?

A

500 ppm

182
Q

What amount of carbon monoxide can be inhaled for ONE hour will cause some appreciable effects?

A

700 ppm

183
Q

What amount of carbon monoxide can be inhaled for ONE hour is dangerous?

A

1200 ppm

184
Q

Concentrations of what PPM of carbon monoxide is fatal in LESS than one hour?

A

4000 ppm

185
Q

Measurements during actual overhaul operations have indicated that positive pressure can easily reduce carbon monoxide concentrations of 1000 ppm to approximately what?.

A

130 ppm to 220 ppm

186
Q

A single 18” blower is adequate for an average single family dwelling of what size?

A

2000 sq ft

187
Q

A ____________ movement of air is sufficient to cause smoke, heat, and carbon monoxide within the overhaul area to move in the direction of an exhaust opening.

A

MODERATE

188
Q

If any fire does begin to accelerate or spread, it can easily be controlled by what?

A
  • extinguishing the fire
  • turning the blower 90 degrees away the opening
  • reduce the RPM of the blower
  • increase distance between overhaul area and the blower
  • shutting the blower off
189
Q

Positive pressure should never be utilized in place of a what?

A

SCBA, should ALWAYS be used when encounter hazardous atmospheres

190
Q

As the CFM of a blower is increased, so is the what?

A

effectiveness

191
Q

There are numerous (over ____) elevator manufacturers, each having produced a variety of elevators.

A

60

192
Q

Currently, there are two types of elevators. What are they?

A
  • Cable operated (sometimes referred to as an electric elevator)
  • Hydraulic operated
193
Q

Cable elevators can be what two types?

A

drum or traction

194
Q

The equipment room for drum type elevators may be located where?

A

in a basement or on the roof (requires more space than other types)

195
Q

Drum type elevators have limitations in length and diameter of the winding drum which restricts this type of elevator to what?

A

150’ lifts and slow speeds

196
Q

Which type of elevators are used for higher lifts and greater speeds?

A

traction type

197
Q

what are two types of traction equipment?

A

-high speed direct traction or gearless type traction, consist of slow speed DC motor coupled to traction sheave
-geared traction type uses a high speed motor geared to traction sheave through warm gears

198
Q

Less weight and room with traction type elevators, the equipment room is usually located where?

A

roof or above an elevator shaft in high-rise building

199
Q

Hydraulic elevators are limited to how many stories?

A

6

200
Q

In very old hydraulic installations, a car is raised or lowered by a ram powered by _____ pressure. Newer installations use oil pressure to power a ram.

A

water

201
Q

The equipment rooms for hydraulic elevators are normally located at the lower level of a building, but can be at any floor level or _________ feet away from the elevator shaft.

A

50 to 100

202
Q

Modern passenger elevators are completely automated and are under the control of an electronic computer which constantly evaluates the ______________ of the system.

A

needs and demands

203
Q

Larger than passenger elevators, freight elevators can be as large as __________ and have a carrying capacity of up to ____ tons.

A

12’x14’, 3

204
Q

Freight elevators are normally _____ than passenger elevators and more simple to operate and control.

A

slower

205
Q

Modern elevators utilize two sets of doors for operations. The door on the elevator car is referred to as what and travels with the car?

A

inner or car door

206
Q

Modern elevators utilize two sets of doors for operation. The door that is seen from each floor of a building is referred to as?

A

outer or hoistway door

207
Q

It is important to realize that the _____ door does all the work; the _______ door is a dependent.

A

car, hoistway

208
Q

There are ___ basic types of doors used on elevators. what are they?

A

4
- swing hall
- single slide
- two speed
- center opening

209
Q

Gib blocks are made of various plastic or phenolic materials. They are approximately ___ wide, ___ high, ___ thick and are installed every ___ inches across the underside of the door panel.

A

3”, 1”, 1/2’, 18

210
Q

Normal hoistway doors can be expected to utilize how many gib blocks?

A

two

211
Q

When a car travels in excess of ___% of top speed, the governor will activate a safety stop device.

A

20

212
Q

What are four elevator rescue procedures that can be used to free trapped passengers?

A
  • moving an elevator
  • adjacent car rescue
  • forcing doors
  • breaching elevator shafts
213
Q

Elevator rescue. Do not rescue passengers using forcible entry methods unless they are in need of what?

A

immediate medical attention

214
Q

If an elevator is stalled due to a malfunction, it is necessary for the Emergency Stop Button to be ______ before power will be returned to an inoperative elevator.

A

activated

215
Q

How much time is necessary to allow elevator relays to reset and clear any previous programming in the elevator computer?

A

at least 30 seconds.

216
Q

On hydraulic elevators and some cable elevators, the hoistway doors will open if the elevator is either ___ inches above or below the floor level

A

6”

217
Q

On cable some elevators, the hoistway doors will open if the elevator is either ___ inches above or below the floor level

A

18”

218
Q

What is the major difference in rescuing trapped passengers from hydraulic or cable elevators?

A

the method using to lower the elevator to floor level

219
Q

Most bleeder valves on hydraulic power units have a manual lowering screw built into the valve and are marked what?

A

ML, MAN, or MANUAL

220
Q

Prior to moving a cable elevator manually what can you do to mark the hub to show movement of the elevator car?

A

use chalk

221
Q

With cable elevators it is usually easier to move the car ______ because of the counterweights.

A

upward

222
Q

With both cable and hydraulic, secure the elevator by closing the car and hoistway doors. Shut off all power to the elevator and notify a responsible person that the elevator cannot be placed back in service until repaired by a?

A

qualified person

223
Q

When performing adjacent car rescue, Position an operational elevator adjacent to the inoperative elevator and __________ the Emergency Stop Button in both elevators

A

deactivate

224
Q

The top emergency exit panels are secured by ______ screws and are arranged so the cover can be opened from both the inside and outside of the elevator.

A

thumb

225
Q

The cover will open ________ and the space above the cover is unobstructed by elevator equipment. Frequently, a rope or chain ladder is provided in a metal box on top of the elevator.

A

outward

226
Q

Elevator emergency side exits are usually at least what size?

A

16” wide and 5’ high

227
Q

Elevator emergency side exits are located so there is free access to the side exit of an adjacent car, will open ______, and are either hinged or removable.

A

inward

228
Q

The removable emergency side exit panel is held in place by at least ______ fasteners, so arranged that they can be operated by hand from both the inside and outside of an elevator.

A

four

229
Q

The hinged emergency exit panel is provided with a lock arrangement so that such lock can be operated from the _______ of an elevator by means of a removable key (the key is kept on the premises by the person responsible for the maintenance and operation of the elevator), and from the ______ by means of a non-removable handle.

A

inside, outside

230
Q

Air bags can be used to force open what kind of doors when a patient is not stable?

A

center opening

231
Q

Forcing doors, Insert a hayward, crow bar, or other similar tool at the top portion of the doors and force the two doors apart until a _____ air bag can be inserted.

A

small

232
Q

When can the technique of removing gib blocks not be utilized?

A

when inoperative elevator is located at the top floor of a building

233
Q

Cutting gib blocks is easily accomplished by using tools such as a _______ saw, hacksaw, reciprocating saw, air chisel, etc. If the gap between the bottom of the hoistway door and floor is insufficient, the door can easily be pried upward to provide the necessary clearance.

A

plumbers

234
Q

Elevators of more sophisticated design have access panels from blind floors. These panels may be every ______ floors or ____-feet apart. Shaft panels are on the side of the elevator shaft that the car door is located on.

A

three, 80

235
Q

Consider use of heavy rescue for wall breaching. Their jackhammers will go anywhere a ____ hose line will go.

A

1”

236
Q

Consider use of a ____________ for any type of rope rescue with elevators.

A

USAR Task Force

237
Q

When a fire occurs in an elevator equipment room, the probable seat of the fire will be the what?.

A

driving motor

238
Q

If the fire is under the car, the car should be brought to the _________ landing possible to reduce the spread of smoke.

A

lowest

239
Q

As a result of the earthquake in Sylmar, California in 1971 and the Northridge, California earthquake in 1994, over _______ elevators were put out of service due to the initial shock and aftershocks.

A

1000

240
Q

During the _____ East Coast power outage, thousands of elevators were stalled.

A

1965

241
Q

An escalator traveling between 90 to 120 feet per minute can carry as many as ______ passengers per hour.

A

5000

242
Q

By clearing the escalator of all passengers, the treads can be moved backwards by _____ pressure. Some older installations may require the use of a crowbar or other similar tool to push the treads backwards.

A

hand

243
Q

What is part of an elevator shaft that for 3 or more consecutive floors has no hoistway doors to access the floors?

A

Blind section

244
Q

What are other names for elevator cars?

A

Car, Cab, or Cage

245
Q

Override switch on photo electric light beam for closing the car doors. This switch can be used to close the doors when smoke from a fire keeps the doors from closing.

A

Emergency switch (push in case of fire)

246
Q

What is an elevator car that has no hoistway doors to access 3 or more consecutive floors?

A

Express elevators

247
Q

Governor, A mechanical device on cable elevators. If a car is traveling _______ too fast, it automatically activates a mechanism on the car and causes the safeties to grip the guide rails and stop the car. If a car is traveling _______ too fast, it will cause the electric motor to be shut off and slow the movement of the car and set the brakes on the motor, stopping the car.

A

downward, upward

248
Q

Pick-up Arm Clutch, Vane, Cam, or Bayonet: located on the hoistway door of an elevator and actuates the door roller that operates the door latch. It is generally, ___ inches long on hydraulic elevators, and ___ inches long on cable elevators.

A

14, 36

249
Q

Water covers about how much of earths surface?

A

2/3

250
Q

The supply systems supply water to the distribution systems. Supply systems are what?

A

gravity or pump or combination of both

251
Q

A height of 100 feet will create a pressure of ___ psi

A

43

252
Q

The city of Los Angeles uses a combination system to supply an average of ____ million gallons of water per day to 4 million people

A

600

253
Q

Trunk lines carry water from a primary source to mains within a distribution system. Truck lines can vary from ___ inches to ___ feet in size, and are constructed from iron or concrete

A

36” to 10’

254
Q

Mains normally run beneath a street and parallel to a curb, can vary from ___ to ___ inches in size, and are constructed from iron pipe

A

2” to 72”

255
Q

Water is delivered to individual structures by a combination of service and customer lines. ______ lines run between a main and a water meter, can vary from ___ inch to ___ inches, and are constructed from iron, copper, or galvanized pipe.

A

service, 1/2” to 12”

256
Q

Water is delivered to individual structures by a combination of service and customer lines. ________ lines run between a water meter and a structure, can vary from ___ inch to ___ inches, and are constructed from iron, copper, galvanized, or plastic pipe.

A

Customer, 1/2” to 12”

257
Q

Water utility companies are normally responsible for maintenance and repair of shut off valves on ____ side of a water metering device

A

either. (building owner responsible to plumbing from the shutoff to rest of structure)

258
Q

A meter box, vault, or manhole often has a centerpiece or lid with a hole that canbe utilized to remove the cover. The centerpiece or lid normally identifies the type of utility with the word(s) “WATER,” “DWP,” “L.A Water,” “LA DWP WATER,” or “CITY WATER METER,” and are often marked with ______ paint.

A

blue

259
Q

Shut-off valves (service or curb valves, etc) provide a means for controlling the flow of water through service and customer lines. Two types of shut-off valves are what?

A

non-indicating valves and indicating type valves

260
Q

A gate valve is a ____-rising stem valve that has a square valve-nut attachment at the top of the valve stem.

A

non

261
Q

Water meters and detector check valves. Water meter is used to calculate water usage for domestic water service. Water meters are normally directly adjacent to shut-off valves and vary in size from ___ to ___ inches

A

1/2’’ to 10”

262
Q

Water meters and detector check valves. Compound Meter is used to calculate water usage for domestic water services that can use low and high water flows by opening check valves to allow large flows separately. Compound meters are ___ inches or larger and normally found adjacent to shut off valves

A

4

263
Q

Water meters and detector check valves. Detector Check Valve with By-Pass Meter. Detector check valves can vary is size from __ to __ inches

A

2” to 10”

264
Q

Pressure reducing valves are normally used in domestic services to reduce high water pressures to an acceptable level inside a structure. Dwellings commonly use __ to __ psi.

A

40 to 80

265
Q

Pressure reducing valves. Domestic water services will normally consist of a __ to __ inches single water meter with shut off valve on one or both sides of a meter

A

1/2” to 2”

266
Q

SFD. Water service for a domestic sprinkler system will normally be a __ inch detector check valve that is located in a separate vault.

A

2

267
Q

Hotels. Domestic water and fire protection services are provided by a combination water service that provides domestic water with a 4 to 6 inch water meter and water for fire protection with a __ to __ inch detector check valve.

A

4 to 8

268
Q

Apartments. Domestic water service will normally consist of __ to __ inch customer lines and a single 1 to 3 inch water meter with a shut-off valve on one or both sides of a meter.

A

1 to 3

269
Q

If a structure has Dorothy Mae Sprinklers, a separate __ inch fire service vault is used

A

2

270
Q

Commercials. Water services to these types of structures are not primarily based on the ____ of a structure but will depend on the water requirements of a structure.

A

size

271
Q

A commercial occupancy with multiple occupancies (such as mini-malls), can be serviced with water for a domestic water service by a single water meter for an entire building or, by multiple, 1 to 2 inch water meters in separate vaults, which can supply each individual occupancy, referred to as what?

A

A Battery

272
Q

High Rise. Domestic water and fire protection service is provided by a combination water service that consists of a 4 to 10 inch water meter for domestic water and 4 to ___ inch detector check valves for fire protection in the same vault.

A

12

273
Q

Deluge System. Sprinklers may be open or closed and are supplied with water by a ______ actuated valve.

A

heat

274
Q

Wet Standpipe. Designed for occupant use and consists of 100’ of 1½” unlined singled jacketed hose with a __” straight tip with no shut-off.

A

½

275
Q

Domestic services. When closing a ball, cone, or gate valves that are ___ inches or larger, it may be necessary to exercise a valve to completely eliminate the flow of water as valves can become encrusted with rust and scale.

A

3

276
Q

To eliminate the flow of water to a shut-off valve (ball or cone valve) turn these valves ___ degrees

A

90

277
Q

Commercial toilets and urinals. Leaks can be eliminated by removing cap over the relief valve and using a _____________ to turn the relief valve screw OUTWARD.

A

slot-headed screwdriver

278
Q

4 inch and larger service” Post-indicator valve, turn the valve ________ to close the valve. The valve will visually indicate the position of the valve by an arrow or display which states “OPEN” or “_____”

A

clockwise, SHUT

279
Q

The fire hydrant gate valve is normally found in direct line with the fire hydrant and perpendicular to the curb. Some gate valve locations are indicated by ______ etched on the adjacent curb.

A

arrows

280
Q

Fire hydrant gate valves may require __ to __ full turns to complete a shutdown

A

18 to 26

281
Q

Two members applying ________ pressure to the gate key should be adequate when closing the hydrant valve

A

moderate

282
Q

Although approximately __% of all fire hydrant gate valves close in a clockwise direction, a member must recognize those instances when a counterclockwise rotation is necessary to close the valve.

A

98

283
Q

After shutting down a hydrant, the sheared off hydrant should be secured where?

A

in a safe location

284
Q

When notifying OCDS of a sheared off fire hydrant, include what?

A
  • Fire hydrant location
  • State if fire hydrant has been shut-off
  • The number of valves operated
285
Q

Natural gas is considered safe, due to its _________ window of flammability.

A

relatively small

286
Q

Pure natural gas is completely odorless. For the purpose of leak detection, odorant is added so that as little as ____ percent of natural gas in the air can be detected.

A

one

287
Q

The common odorant is a _______________ mix, which is used in solution of one ____ per million cubic feet of gas

A

Mercapitan/Thiophane, pint

288
Q

Natural gas is ______ than air.

A

lighter

289
Q

Natural gas has an ignition temperature of ________ degrees, and a flammable range between __ and __ percent.

A

1100, 4 to 14%

290
Q

Transmission lines maintain pressures up to _____ psi and use pressure booster compressor stations to maintain appropriate flow and pressures.

A

1000

291
Q

Transmission lines bring natural gas into the SoCal area and vary in diameter from ___ to ___ inches.

A

12” to 36”

292
Q

Gas is carried by service lines, as ______ pressure, which normally does not exceed ___ psi.

A

medium, 60

293
Q

At the service meter (Meter Set Assembly), the presure is reduced to a low pressure, approximately ____ psi

A

1/3

294
Q

Natural gas Distribution mains are generally made of __________ and account for a high percentage of the mains in use today.

A

polyethylene

295
Q

Polyethylene mains are color coded to identify the pipe as transporting natural gas. What is the national color code for newer installations?

A

Yellow

296
Q

Polyethylene mains are color coded to identify the pipe as transporting natural gas. Older installations of plastic pipe can be what color?

A

pink (salmon beige) or orange in color

297
Q

Polyethylene pipes will have what running the length of the pipe, for locating plastic gas lines, below ground?

A

a wire

298
Q

MSA’s can be found in what locations?

A
  • Outside Sets
  • Underneath Sets
  • Curb meter box
  • Cabinet Set
299
Q

Tracing the riser up from the ground, the first fitting is the shut- off valve called a?

A

stopcock or service cock.

300
Q

What does a ring on the stopcock valve indicate?

A

Branch service

301
Q

What does a flat washer on the stopcock valve indicate?

A

service line is a plastic pipe inserted inside an older metal pipe

302
Q

A band on the stopcock valve indicates what?

A

the service line is plastic

303
Q

After stopcock, up the riser, is a flat circular device called a “_________” that reduces medium gas pressure (up to 60 psi) to a relatively low level of approximately 1/3 psi.

A

regulator

304
Q

Look for a “G” that is either chiseled or painted on the curb, required by ________, marks the location where the service line passes beneath the curb and indicates which side of the building the MSA is located.

A

Cal-OSHA

305
Q

Some MSA’s may be equipped with an emergency vibration-sensitive shut off device known as an earthquake valve. Turning a reset button, ______ turn, completes reset of this device.

A

1/4

306
Q

Industrial shut-off valves, known as _________ valves, are used for high pressure applications. They are larger than standard shut-off valves, and may require more effect and larger tools to shut off the flow of gas. Some industrial installations have gate valves with wheel handles that may be turned clockwise to close.

A

Nordstrom

307
Q

The occupancy that is further from the supply main is a standard service, and the other occupancies are branch services. All MSA’s that are served from the branch main will be identified by a ____ at the stopcock.

A

ring

308
Q

To turn off the flow of gas, turn the tang, ________, to the flow of gas/the pipe.

A

crosswise

309
Q

The tang on some stopcocks can be what shape?

A

square

310
Q

If tang appears stuck, in emergency conditions only, Use two wrenches, one on the tang and the other on the backing nut. Holding the tang steady, loosen the backing nut ____ turn only! If the backing nut is loosened too far, the core can fly out, leaking medium pressure gas, _______ psi. Tap with non-metallic hammer, turn 1/4 turn and tighten backing nut.

A

1/4, 40 to 60

311
Q

Also referred to as an Emergency Shutoff Valve. These valves can be installed in addition to stopcocks at public assembly occupancies such as schools, hospitals, churches, etc. (2’ to 3’ underground). This valve is an ordinary gate valve with a “______” type handle. Turn the handle CLOCKWISE to stop the flow of gas.

A

faucet

312
Q

For faint gas odors, always check the condition of ________ as a first action.

A

pilot lights

313
Q

Previously, The Gas Company used to teach a technique, known as the bend-back method, for controlling the flow of gas in ______ diameter pipes. no longer used due to there is an extremely high potential for creating a static charge.

A

small

314
Q

Crimping plastic gas pipe is acceptable as long as all tools used to work on plastic pipe are?

A

grounded

315
Q

Do redwood plugs work with polyethylene pipe to control natural gas leaks?

A

No

316
Q

The Gas Company states that its product is ___ percent free from impurities.

A

97

317
Q

Fog down the plastic pipe with a wetting agent such as ________ to prevent ignition from static electricity. Water alone tends to bead up and run off of polyethylene pipe.

A

wet water

318
Q

The Air Rescue Cushion employed by the Los Angeles City Fire Department is similar to air cushions used where?

A

in the movie industry.

319
Q

The air cushion comes with two (_____ horsepower) electric blowers.

A

1/2

320
Q

What sources of electricity can be supplied to the blowers for air cushion?

A
  • Truck onboard generator
  • Portable generator(s)
  • 110 supply (house current)
321
Q

Air cushion is an inflatable cushion composed of a larger _____ cell and a smaller ______ cell.

A

upper, lower

322
Q

Department has 24 Air rescue cushions, ___ rated at 100’ and ___ rated at 70’

A

6, 18

323
Q

Department has 24 Air rescue cushions, ___ rated at 100’ and ___ rated at 70’

A

6, 18

324
Q

The 24 Air Rescue Cushions have replaced the __ life nets carried by Truck Companies.

A

47

325
Q

The air cushion rating reflects the height of a “______.”

A

jumper

326
Q

What does a “jumper” assignment consists of?

A
  • (1) BC
  • (1) TF
  • (1) RA
    (closest TF with an air cushion will be added)
327
Q

Every attempt must be made by the rescuers to break through the “________” and gain the cooperation of the victim.

A

fear barrier

328
Q

When dealing with potential suicide “jumper”, The Fire Department will work under the direction of the ____________ to mitigate the emergency.

A

Police Department

329
Q

Air can pass from the ______ (smaller) cell to the _____ (larger) cell by way of a small vent between the two.

A

lower, upper

330
Q

Which air cushion cell absorbs most of the energy generated by an impact?

A

upper

331
Q

The lower cell does not have a breather port; consequently, very little air is released on impact. This provides the lower cell with _____ the energy-absorbing capability of the upper cell.

A

twice

332
Q

The air rescue cushion is able to absorb and dissipate the energy of impact how fast?

A

1/6 of a second

333
Q

The air cushion is constructed of vinyl-reinforced fabric, which is fire retardant and waterproof. The tear strength of this material is over ___ pounds psi.

A

50

334
Q

The air cushion rating is based on how many factors?

A

2

  1. Max floor level from which a person may fall, based on 10’ per floor, landing on buttocks or back with a cushioning effect that is safely below the human tolerance level (as per the US Air Force in “human tolerance to shock”)
  2. The ability for the person falling to properly hit the target.
335
Q

If the on-board generator or other 110 AC power source is not available, ___ portable generators will be required to deploy the Air Rescue Cushion.

A

two

336
Q

What are two negatives to using gas-powered blowers to inflate rescue air cushion?

A
  • increased noise level
  • CO causes long term degenerated effect on bag
337
Q

Air Rescue Cushion will fully inflate how fast?

A

in less than 60 seconds

338
Q

Attach a drop bag cord to the eye at each corner of the cushion. A pre-cut, ___-foot length of drop cord works well.

A

6

339
Q

If two people must fall into air cushion at the same time, they should ______________ from the moment they jump until impact.

A

hug each other tightly

340
Q

Air rescue cushion takes how long to reinflate after use?

A

20 seconds

341
Q

Can the rescue air cushion be stored wet?

A

never

342
Q

Who controls the timing of the jumper in regards to using air cushion?

A

task force commander

343
Q

Who is responsible for primary and secondary power sources for blowers, deploys lights at night?

A

AO

344
Q

Who polices target area for hazards that can damage the air cushion (i.e. sprinkler heads, broken glass, etc.)

A

Engine captain

345
Q

Who sets up blowers with air cushion?

A

engineers (“200” engineer moves (2) 18” gas blowers to target areas, as back up only in the event of power failure)

346
Q

Inspect air cushion after each use and ______

A

monthly

347
Q

Size of Air cushion Model 70A and 100A?

A

70 - 15’ x 20’ x 8’
100 - 20’ x 50’ x 9’
Vol3 states 100’ - 18’x25’x9’

348
Q

Weight of Air cushion Model 70A and 100A?

A

70 - 190lbs
100 - 360lbs

349
Q

Blowers size used for Air cushion Model 70A and 100A?

A

70 - (2) 20”, 1/2HP, 60Hz
100 - (1) 20” (1) 24”, 1/2HP, 60Hz

350
Q

The two line rope system is made up of the following?

A
  • One 300 foot low stretch 1/2 inch static kernmantle lifeline, white in color, with blue or red stripes running through it, stored in a red nylon bag (Main Line)
  • One 200 foot low stretch 1/2 inch static kernmantle rope, orange in color, stored in an orange nylon bag (Safety / Belay Line)
  • Two class III full body rescue harnesses size large (Engine Company)
  • Three class III full body rescue harnesses size one small / medium, two large (Truck Companies)
  • Two 8-mm accessory cords 20 feet in length to build two load releasing hitches(LRH)
  • Two stainless steel brake bar racks, with six aluminum bars
  • Eight steel “D” shaped carabiners
  • Two 8-mm x 6 foot accessory cord (long prusik)
  • Two 8-mm x 5 foot accessory cord (short prusik)
  • Two pieces of blue 1 inch tubular webbing 5 feet in length
  • Two pieces of yellow 1 inch tubular webbing 12 feet in length
  • Two pieces of red 1 inch tubular webbing 20 feet in length
  • Two inspection record sheets, one for each rope
  • One 2 inch x 7 foot anchor strap with “D” rings at both ends
  • Two pieces of yellow multi-loop webbing 3 foot in length
351
Q

Lifeline. The high strength core (Kern) can carry up to __% of the load with the cover (Mantle) designed primarily for protection against abrasion.

A

90

352
Q

The lifeline rope is rated at ______ pounds and weighs __ pounds per 100 ft.

A

10,000, 7

353
Q

What is NFPA standard for one and two person rescues?

A

NFPA 1995

354
Q

The KM-III static kernmantle rope has a melting point of what?

A

450F

355
Q

Where does the kernmantle rope get marked?

A

midpoint and ends. (1) for ODD (2) FOR EVEN

356
Q

What are only approved markers for marking ropes?

A

Carter MARKS-A-LOT, Stanford Sharpie, Binney-Smith Magic Marker

357
Q

Log the rope as soon as you receive it, log all training, emergency incidents and monthly checks on what form?

A

F975

358
Q

There are various widths for webbing ranging from ___ up to ___ inches. Webbing used by LAFD is 1 inch rated at what?

A

1/2” to 2”, 4000

359
Q

LAFD webbing comes in what lengths?

A

Blue 5 ft
Yellow 12ft
Red 20ft

360
Q

Accessory cord is 8mm nylon cord, 20’ long, rated at what?

A

3,630lbs

361
Q

Carabiners are “D” shaped, rated at?

A

9,000

362
Q

Basic parts of a carabiner includes what?

A

spine, hinge, gate, latch

363
Q

Brake bar rack comes with __ aluminum bars and welded eye is rated at what?

A

6, 10,000lbs

364
Q

For a single person load, start with ___ bars. For a two person load, start with __ bars. Minimum never less than what?

A

4, 5, 3

365
Q

Tying off the brake bar. Wrap the rope __ over the yoke and through the brake bar rack pulling the bars together. Tie the rope off with ___________ in front of the brake bar rack.

A

twice, two half-hitches

366
Q

Figure eight plates come how?

A

with or without ears

367
Q

Rappelling or lowering operations over ___ feet a brake bar rack should be used, due to the twisting of the rope

A

75’

368
Q

The strength of the rope is restored fully when placed over a turn of a pulley that is at least what size?

A

at least 4x the diameter of the rope

369
Q

LAFD carries two types of pulleys: The ____ inch aluminum prusik minding, and the ___ inch stainless steel.

A

2-1/2”, 4”

370
Q

What kind of harness does LAFD carry?

A

Class III full body harness

371
Q

During first step to donning class III harness, Set the ____ strap off to the side and step into the leg harness with both feet (with both “D” rings facing forward), pull the harness up to your waist, and tighten both waist straps.

A

chest

372
Q

Make sure the ends of all harness straps are secured by the keepers. One-way to avoid keepers breaking off is to wrap the keeper with electrical tape, however if it does break off or there are any loose ends, then tie it off with a what?

A

overhand knot

373
Q

If you do not have a carabiner for harness, you can use a figure eight follow through, or a bowline backed up with a?

A

double overhand knot

374
Q

What is knot efficiency?

A

The percentage of rope strength that remains after a knot is tied in the rope

Per vol 3. A knot placed in a line decreases its working capacity. The amount of decrease expressed as a percentage must be subtracted from original working capacity.

375
Q

Knot efficiency Figure eight stopper knot?

A

75%

376
Q

Knot efficiency Figure Eight follow through?

A

80%

377
Q

Knot efficiency Figure Eight on a bight?

A

80%

378
Q

Knot efficiency Figure Eight bend?

A

80%

379
Q

Knot efficiency Double Figure Eight on a bight?

A

80%

380
Q

Knot efficiency double overhand bend or “double fisherman”?

A

80%

381
Q

When accessory cord is tied into prusik loops, the cord used should not be less than ___ inch, or more than ___ the diameter of the rope it is to be tied on.

A

1/2, 2/3

382
Q

What is a double overhand bend also used for besides pussik?

A

attaching two equal or unequal diameter ropes together. Also used to back up bowline

383
Q

Knot efficiency of water knot/overhand bend?

A

65%

384
Q

Tensionless hitch/no knot, there should be at least how many wraps and which direction?

A

minimum of 3, If the anchor is above the load, the rope should be wrapped up with standing end at the top.

385
Q

Knott efficiency of bowline?

A

65%

386
Q

Knott efficiency of butterfly knot?

A

75%

387
Q

When building an LRH, there should be a 4 to 5 inch space between the carabiners before wrapping how many times?

A

3 to 6

388
Q

When making a chest harness with one inch webbing, what size is best to use?

A

Approx 10’ to 14’ in length

389
Q

What size are cliff pickets and how are they inserted into ground?

A

3’ long x 1” diameter. Inserted 2’ into ground at 15 degree angle away from object

390
Q

What are cliff picket ratings and how were they developed?

A

Developed by US army for loading picket anchor systems in “average” loamy soil.
1 - 700
1-1 - 1400
1-1-1 - 1800
2-1 - 2000
3-2-1 - 4000

391
Q

When passing knots, pass the main line through the break bar rack until the knot is about ___ inches from the bottom of the break bar rack?

A

6

392
Q

When passing knot in the belay system, pass the belay line though the tandem prusik belay until the knot is about ___ inches from the tandem prusik.

A

6 to 10

393
Q

What is the minimum number of members needed for a rope rescue operation?

A

4
- rescuer
- main line tender
- belay line tender
- safety member (TSO)

394
Q

When repelling start with how many bars on break bar rack?

A

4

395
Q

Never get closer than how far from the edge without being tied off?

A

5 feet

396
Q

When tying off a rubbish hook for swift water operation, tie a clove hitch on the fiberglass handle under the _______ of the hook and a half hitch around the hook itself

A

shoulder

397
Q

The crossfire portable monitor is manufactured by who?

A

task force tips TFT

398
Q

What are the components of the portable monitor?

A

Crossfire upper assembly, stow-a-way 800 base, built in shut off valve, master stream 1000 selectable volume spray tip and tie down strap

399
Q

When setting up portable monitor, securely tie off the monitor to an object capable of withstanding how much force?

A

900 lbs

400
Q

Combined what is the total weight of the portable monitor?

A

approximately 61 lbs

401
Q

An automatic drain empties water from a low point in the monitor piping and designed to close automatically when the pressure exceeds what?

A

approximately 5 psi

402
Q

The stow-a-way 800 base is intended to flow how much gpm?

A

800, however TFT allows LAFD to flow 1000gpm as long as it is attached to a loop of loaded 4” supply hose

403
Q

How long is the nylon webbing tie down strap for the portable monitor?

A

8’

404
Q

side-to-side rotation lock, on portable monitor, is in the lock position when the lever is where?

A

down position

405
Q

When the portable monitor nozzle is at an angel of 45 degrees, the force acting sideways is equal to the force acting downward on the base. At an angle of 35 degrees, approximately ___% of the nozzle reaction force is acting sideways on the base.

A

82

406
Q

What angle is the elevation safety stop on the portable monitor?

A

35 degrees

407
Q

The crossfire portable monitor has how many tungsten carbide tipped spikes on the legs and the base to resist sliding?

A

5 or 6

408
Q

Set the portable monitor on an even surface so that all ___ spikes contact the ground

A

3

409
Q

Tungsten carbide tipped spikes on the portable monitor must be sharp to provide resistance to sliding. Replace any spike if the tip diameter exceeds what?

A

1/16 inch

410
Q

If the portable monitor tie down strap is too short to reach a suitable anchor, it may be extended with what?

A

Strong rope or chain

411
Q

Because of the arched trajectory of a fire stream, it is recommended that a ______ be used to accurately direct the stream from the portable monitor

A

spotter

412
Q

When using the hose loop as an anchor, place the first female coupling alongside the 4” hose approximately ____ back from the male coupling and strap the coupling to the hose at that point using a ladder strap.

A

10’

413
Q

Per book 29, what. do you pump to the portable monitor?

A

350 - 105
500 - 115
750 - 110
1000 - 125

414
Q

Can you use any other tips with the portable monitor ?

A

NO, Master stream 1000 selectable volume spray tip is the ONLY nozzle that is to be used with this appliance

415
Q

How do you lube the portable monitor worm gear?

A

turn the elevation hand wheel to the highest elevation and pump grease (medium viscosity automotive) into the fitting/zerk in the worm gear until excess grease appears. Remove excess grease