Block 1 Flashcards Preview

Pathology > Block 1 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Block 1 Deck (230)
Loading flashcards...
1
Q

Disease occurrence and spread

Where and when

A

Epidemiology

2
Q

The underlying cause

- infectious, idiopathic, iatrogenic

A

Etiology

3
Q

Formal name to describe a pt’s disease

A

Diagnosis

4
Q

Made based on signs, symptoms and results of diagnostic tests

A

Diagnosis

5
Q

Unknown cause or source

A

Idiopathic

6
Q

Source of disease is medical professional or procedure

A

Iatrogenic

7
Q

Infectious disease that is acquired from a hospital-type setting

A

Nosocomial

8
Q

Referring to the disease process

A

Pathogenesis

9
Q

The study of disease, especially changes in cells/tissues/organs that cause or are caused by disease

A

Pathology

10
Q

Something that you measure

A

Sign

11
Q

Something the patient tells you

A

Symptom

12
Q

Bridges basic sciences and medicine

A

Pathology

13
Q

Etiological factors from the outside

A

Extrinsic

14
Q

Examples of extrinsic etiological factors

A

Biological
Chemical
Physical
Nutritional

15
Q

Etiological factors that come from within

A

Intrinsic factors

16
Q

Examples of intrinsic etiological factors

A

Genetic
Congenital
Immunological
Psychological

17
Q

Rapid onset and short duration

- no necessarily severe

A

Acute

18
Q

Disease that is lasting for >/= 3 months

A

Chronic

19
Q

Ill defined time between acute and chronic

A

Subacute

20
Q

How many diseases can be cured?

A

7 out of 10

21
Q

List in order the leading causes of death in Americans

A
Heart disease
Cancer
Stroke
Type 2 DM
Obesity
22
Q

What are the 4 phases of disease

A

Latency
Prodrome
Clinical symptoms
Recovery

23
Q

What is the latency period

A

Quiet phase

- no/few signs/symptoms

24
Q

What is prodrome

A

Symptoms start

- usually ‘flu-like’ are most common

25
Q

What are different outcomes of disease

A

Death
Recovery
- complete or incomplete recovery

26
Q

Deaths per 100,00

A

Mortality

27
Q

Illnesses per 100,000

A

Morbidity

28
Q

And abrupt and unexpected increase in the incidence of disease over endemic rates

A

Epidemic

29
Q

Has a relatively stable and expected incidence and prevalence within a geographic area

A

Endemic disease

30
Q

Spread of disease beyond continental boundaries

A

Pandemic

31
Q

Looks at new or newly diagnosed cases

A

Incidence

32
Q

Looks at all current cases alive

A

Prevalence

33
Q

Transmission to surrounding people/strangers

A

Horizontal

34
Q

Transmission to fetus or to baby through breast milk

A

Vertical

35
Q

What happens to incidence and prevalence if:

-new effective treatment ins initiated

A

Prevalence dec

Incidence constant

36
Q

What happens to incidence and prevalence if:

- new effective vaccine gains widespread used

A

Both incidence and prevalence dec

37
Q

What happens to incidence and prevalence if:

- number of deaths from the condition decline

A

Prevalence inc

Incidence constant

38
Q

What happens to incidence and prevalence if:

- recovery is more rapid than it was 1 year ago

A

Prevalence dec

Incidence constant

39
Q

Collects data from a population to assess frequency of disease at a particular point in time

A

Cross sectional study

40
Q

Study referring to “what’s happening”

A

Cross-sectional study

41
Q

Study that measures disease prevalence

A

Cross-sectional study

42
Q

Compares a group of people with disease to a group without disease
- looks for prior exposure or risk factor

A

Case-control study

43
Q

Refers to “what happened”

- from effect to cause

A

Case-control study

44
Q

Study that measures odds ratio

- starts with disease

A

Case-control study

45
Q

Compares a group with a given exposure or risk factor to a group without such exposure
- looks to see if exposure affects the likelihood of disease

A

Cohort study

46
Q

Refers to “who gets it”

- from cause to effect

A

Cohort study

47
Q

Study that measures relative risk

- starts with exposure

A

Cohort study

48
Q

Common measurements about the disease

A

Sensitivity or specificity

49
Q

Common measurements about the test

A

Positive predictive value and negative predictive value

50
Q

True positive rate

A

Sensitivity

51
Q

True negative rate

A

Specificity

52
Q

Likelihood that a positive test is found only in sick people

- true and false POSITIVES

A

Positive predictive value (PPV)

53
Q

Likelihood that a negative test is found only in non-sick people
- true and false NEGATIVE

A

Negative predictive value (NPV)

54
Q

Formula for sensitivity

A

TP/(TP+FN)

55
Q

Formula for specificity

A

TN/(TN+FP)

56
Q

Formula for positive predictive value

A

TP/(TP+FP)

57
Q

Formula for negative predictive value

A

TN/(TN+FN)

58
Q

High prevalence does what to positive predictive value

A

Improves

59
Q

Low prevalence does what to positive predictive value

A

Harms

60
Q

Likelihood a sick person will test positive

A

Sensitivity

61
Q

Likelihood a positive test identifies a sick person

A

Positive predictive value

62
Q

What is the percentage of a normal population that is included in 1SD

A

68%

63
Q

What is the percentage of a normal population that is included in 2SD

A

95%

64
Q

3 things that affect normal reference ranges

A

Age
Geographical location
Gender

65
Q

What happens at a higher altitude

A

Lower oxygen

Higher RBC

66
Q

What must be low to be anemic

A

Hemoglobin AND hematocrit

67
Q

Normal fasting blood glucose (FBG) levels

A

60-100 mg/dL

68
Q

FBGL threshold

A

126 mg/dL

69
Q

HbA1c level indicating diabetes

A

> /= 6.5%

70
Q

Normal HbA1c value

A

<5.7%

71
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing diabetes

A

HbA1c of >/= 6.5%

72
Q

Reflects 2-3 month glucose average

A

HbA1c

73
Q

Found only 2 hours after meal

A

Fasting blood glucose level

74
Q

Liver tests dealing with INJURY/DAMAGE

A

ALT and AST

75
Q

Liver test dealing with FUNCTION

A

Bilirubin

76
Q

What levels are affected if there is a loss of liver function

A

HIGH bilirubin

77
Q

What comes first, liver damage or loss of liver function

A

Liver damage

78
Q

What levels help estimate GFR

A

BUN and creatinine

79
Q

Dialysis or transplant when at this level

A

GFR <15

80
Q

See nephrologist is GFR is at what level

A

<30

81
Q

Most specific biomarker for heart

A

Troponin

82
Q

Which cholesterol is the good one

A

HDL-C

83
Q

Which cholesterol is the bad one

A

LDL-C

84
Q

Goal for total cholesterol

A

<200

85
Q

Goal of HDL-C

A

> 40

86
Q

Goal for LDL-C

A

<100

87
Q

Goal for triglycerides

A

<150

88
Q

Transports cholesterol to liver

A

HDL-C

89
Q

Deposits cholesterol into vascular walls

A

LDL-C

90
Q

Which metabolic panel looks at liver function, CMP or BMP

A

CMP

91
Q

Which metabolic panel measures cardiac function, BMP or CMP

A

Neither

92
Q

3 most common lab tests

A

CMP
CDC
Urinalysis

93
Q

Levels of HGB and HCT in anemia

A

BOTH will be low

94
Q

What level is checked to determine the type of anemia

A

MCV (size of RBC)

95
Q

the primary indicators of inflammation

A

ESR and CRP

96
Q

High ESR suggests

A

Inflammation

97
Q

Vitamin K dependent factors

A

2, 7, 9 and 10

98
Q

Which is ULTRA vit K dependent

A

7

99
Q

Vitamin K antagonist

A

Coumadin

100
Q

Coumadin hits what factor mainly

A

7

101
Q

Coumadin is monitored with

A

PT/INR

102
Q

PT/INR measures which pathway

A

Tissue factor pathway

Extrinsic path

103
Q

Antithrombin activator

A

Heparin

104
Q

Targets 10 mainly and also 2

A

Heparin

105
Q

Heparin is monitored with

A

aPTT

106
Q

aPTT measures which path

A

Contact factor pathway

Intrinsic path

107
Q

Most common serious bleeding disorder

A

Hemophilia A

108
Q

Absence of factor 8

A

Hemophilia A

109
Q

Hemophilia A is monitored by

A

aPTT

110
Q

Neutrophilia may suggest

A

Bacterial source

111
Q

Lymphocytosis may suggest

A

Viral source

112
Q

Eosinophilia suggests

A

Allergies or worms

113
Q

How are the values of hematocrit and hemoglobin related

A

HGB x 3 = hematocrit

114
Q

Is RBC low in anemia? HGM and HCT?

A

Not always

HGM and HCT are always low

115
Q

HGB levels in women

A

<12 g/dL

116
Q

HGB levels in men

A

<13.5 g/dL

117
Q

If 7 g/dL or less, what needs to be done

A

Transfusion

118
Q

When transfusing, how do you determine how many units of blood to give

A

Enough to reach 10 g/dL

119
Q

MCV value in microcytic anemia

A

<80

120
Q

MCV value in normocytic anemia

A

80-100

121
Q

MCV value in macrocytic anemia

A

> 110

122
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

Microcytic anemia

123
Q

Recent blood loss or renal failure are related to which anemia

A

Normocytic anemia

124
Q

Vit B12 deficiency or Folic acid deficiency are related to which anemia

A

Macrocytic anemia

125
Q

Which anemia will have low RBC

A

Normocytic and macrocytic anemia

126
Q

Which anemia will have normal to high RBC

A

Microcytic anemia

127
Q

Most common cause of anemia

A

Iron deficiency

128
Q

Most common screening test for syphilis

A

RPR

129
Q

Is RPR specific and sensitive for syphilis

A

Sensitive but not specific

130
Q

What tests confirm syphilis

A

FTA-ABS or MHA-TP

131
Q

Can syphilis be seen on a gram stain

A

No

132
Q

How is lupus confirmed

A

Anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm

133
Q

How are autoimmune conditions screened

A

ANA

134
Q

Best indicator for UTI

A

Leukocyte esterase

135
Q

What will also likely be seen in UTI

A

Blood, protein and nitrite

136
Q

Least valuable test for imaging soft tissue

A

X-ray

137
Q

Penetrate soft tissue but not dense tissue

A

X-ray

138
Q

Multiple angle X-ray

- can image soft tissue

A

CT scan

139
Q

Uses magnetic fields/radio waves

- image areas where soft and tissues meet

A

MRI

140
Q

Uses sound waves to image various tissues

A

Ultrasound

141
Q

Uses radioactive material to produce image

A

Nuclear scan

142
Q

Indicates current or recent infection (acute)

A

IgM

143
Q

Indicated past infection (convalescent)

A

IgG

144
Q

Indicates allergy

A

IgE

145
Q

Antibody found in tears, sweat and breast milk

A

IgA

146
Q

2 test used to SCREEN for syphilis

A

RPR and VDRL

147
Q

When do providers become concerned with fatigue

A

When it becomes persistent

148
Q

When do providers tend to become concerned with weight loss

A

When the loss is unexplained/unintentional

149
Q

Top 2 proinflammatory cytokines

A

IL-1 and TNF-alpha

150
Q

Threshold for a high temperature in the morning

A

99 degree

151
Q

Threshold for a high temperature in the evening

A

100 degrees

152
Q

Low grade fever in kids and adults

A

= 101 degrees

153
Q

Moderate fever in kids and adults

A

102

154
Q

High grade fever in kids and adults

A

> /= 103 degrees

155
Q

High grade fever in newborns

A

99 degrees

156
Q

3 criteria for defining fever of unknown origin

A
  • illness of at least 3 weeks
  • temperature > 101 on several occasions
  • failure to diagnosis after 3 visits
157
Q

Top 3 causes of fever of unknown origin

A

Infection
Neoplasms
Autoimmune disorders

158
Q

Most common cause of FUO

A

Infection

159
Q

Headache warning signs indicating a serious etiology

A
  • Visual loss
  • disequilibrium
  • confusion/lethargy
  • new onset seizure
160
Q

Headache typically affecting young women

A

Migraine

161
Q

Headache typically affecting all ages and both genders

A

Tension

162
Q

Headache typically affecting middle aged men

A

Cluster

163
Q

Headache typically affecting patients over 60

A

Temporal arteritis/giant cell arteritis

164
Q

HA lasting 4-72 hours, throbbing, unilateral and aggravated by physical activity and light

A

Migraine

165
Q

HA late in the day, may precede a migraine, and has a BAND LIKE DISTRIBUTION

A

Tension

166
Q

HA that wakes people up, last less than an hour 1-2 times a day, in smoker/drinkers, orbital or temporal

A

Cluster

167
Q

“Killer HA”

A

Cluster

168
Q

HA presents with red eyes and or nasal stuffiness

A

Cluster

169
Q

HA may cause transient or permanent ipsilateral horner’s syndrome

A

Cluster

170
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A

Ptosis, miosis (small pupil), and anhydrosis

171
Q

If GCA (giant cell arteritis) is suspected, therapy with what should be immediately initiated

A

Prednisone (steroid)

172
Q

Acronym for stroke victims

A

FAST

173
Q

For stroke: f stands for

A

Face paralyzed?

174
Q

For stroke: A stands for

A

Arms - can they be held out

175
Q

For stroke: S stands for

A

Speech slurred?

176
Q

For stroke: T stands for

A

Time is critical - get to hospital quickly

177
Q

4 mechanisms of cell injury

A
  • free radical formation
  • hypoxia and ATP depletion (<5-10% normal ATP levels)
  • disruption of intracellular Ca homeostasis
  • membrane damage
178
Q

How is free radical injury a key to multiple diabetes-related complications

A

Oxidative modification of proteins

- forming protein-protein cross linkages

179
Q

How does free radical injury cause a BP disruption

A

Damage nuclei acid

180
Q

5 mechanisms that can cause membrane damage

A
  • inc cytosolic Ca
  • loss of membrane phospholipids
  • cytoskeleton damage
  • reactive oxygen species
  • lipid breakdown products
181
Q

Indicator of significant body damage

A

Lactic acid

182
Q

Fat soluble vitamins

A

D
A
K
E

183
Q

Most toxic fat soluble vitamin

A

A

- polar bear liver

184
Q

Smaller cell size

A

Atrophy

185
Q

Bigger cell size

A

Hypertrophy

186
Q

Increase in number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

187
Q

Change in cell TYPE

- One mature cell type is replaced by another mature cell type

A

Metaplasia

188
Q

Abnormal cell growth that vary in size, shape and organization

A

Dysphasia

189
Q

Atrophy is most often due to

A

Lack of use
Aging
Pressure
Lack of blood

190
Q

Physiological example of hypertrophy

A
  • Bodybuilder

- breasts in prego ladies

191
Q

Pathological example of hypertrophy

A

Hypertension or faulty valves in heart

192
Q

Caused by increased functional demand or specific hormonal stimulation

A

Hypertrophy

193
Q

Physiology example of hyperplasia

A

Uterine and breast growth during pregnancy

194
Q

Pathologic example of hyperplasia

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

195
Q

Metaplasia is common in who

A

Smokers

196
Q

Precursor of cancer

A

Dypslasia

197
Q

tests to test liver FUNCTION

A

Bilirubin, PT/INR, fibrinogen, and albumin

198
Q

Liver inflammation

A

Hepatitis

199
Q

Bilirubin levels in hepatitis

A

Increased

200
Q

What is often seen in all body tissues due to hepatitis

A

Jaundice

201
Q

Hepatitis can be induced by

A

Acetaminophen

202
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

Copper deposits in descemets mem

203
Q

Key sign in Wilson’s disease

A

Kayser-fleischer rings

204
Q

How to treat Wilson’s disease

A

Zinc

205
Q

What happens to protein production in hepatitis

A

It STOPS

206
Q

Prolonged infection of silver salts

- blue discoloration

A

Argyria

207
Q

Intracellular accumulations of normal substances in abnormal amounts

A

Endogenous products

208
Q

Is bilirubin accumulation endo or exogenous

A

Endogenous

209
Q

Is silver accumulation endo or exogenous

A

Exogenous

210
Q

Intracellular accumulations of environmental agents and pigments

A

Exogenous products

211
Q

Messy lysis of dead cells

A

Necrosis

212
Q

Programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

213
Q

Which has inflammation, necrosis or apoptosis

A

Necrosis

214
Q

Is there membrane damage in necrosis

A

Yes

215
Q

What happens to cell and organelles in necrosis

A

They swell

216
Q

What happens to the cell in apoptosis

A

It shrinks

217
Q

If there are high protein levels in fluid

A

Exudates

218
Q

If there are low protein levels in fluid

A

Transudate

219
Q

Cloudy/pus

A

Exudates

220
Q

Clear fluid

A

Transudate

221
Q

Cells in acute inflammation

A

Neutrophils

222
Q

Cells in chronic inflammation

A

Lymphocytes and macrophages

223
Q

Sign of chronic inflammation

A

Granulomas

- macrophages and dead material surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes

224
Q

Produced when inflamed vessels leak fluid and cells

A

Exudates

225
Q

Produced when fluid is pushed through capillary due to high pressure

A

Transudate

226
Q

Biological clock is associated with what structure

A

Telomere shortening

227
Q

Cellular mechanisms of aging

A
  • cross-linked DNA and proteins
  • accumulation of toxic byproducts
  • aging genes
  • loss of repairing
  • telomere shortening
228
Q

Process of deterioration with age

- los of cells power of division and growth

A

Senescence

229
Q

Werner’s syn

A

Pangeria

230
Q

Premature aging after puberty with short stature

- Benjamin button

A

Pangeria