Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

flat cells in the stratum corneum, which have lost nuclei, and lamellated lipids

A

corneocytes

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2
Q

corium

A

dermis

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3
Q

where the epidermal appendages, including nails, hair and glands, originate.

A

dermis

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4
Q

Three important aspects in skin history to seek out

A
  1. symptoms attributed to the skin lesion
  2. chronology of appearance, change, and disappearance of the lesions
  3. conditions of exposure, injury, or medication that may have induced or altered the disease
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5
Q

In the physical exam of the skin, three categories of observation should be made in sequence:

A
  1. anatomic distribution of the lesion 2. configuration of groups of lesions 3. the morphology of the individual lesions
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6
Q

Cardinal Features of skin lesions

A

Type Shape

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7
Q

Major Characteristics of skin lesions

A

Color Surface Consistency

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8
Q

First manifestations of the development of the disease

A

Primary Skin Eruptions

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9
Q

Develop from primary eruptions through transformation, inflammation, regression or healing

A

Secondary Skin Eruptions

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10
Q

Macule Patch Plaque Papule Nodule Vesicle Bullae Pustule Wheal

A

Primary Eruptions

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11
Q

Scale Crust Erosion Abrasion Crack Ulcer Scar Atrophy Lichenification

A

Secondary Eruptions

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12
Q

transitory or persistent change in skin coloration with no change in surface structure or consistency.

A

Macule

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13
Q

flat lesion greater than 1 cm in diameter

A

Patch

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14
Q

slightly raised lesion greater than 1 cm in diameter

A

Plaque

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15
Q

Solid elevations on the skin, up to 1 cm in size

A

Papule

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16
Q

solid elevations larger than one centimeter

A

Nodule

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17
Q

transient edema in the corium of light hue and lasting for only a few hours

A

Wheal

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18
Q

single chambered or multi chambered cavity filled with fluid up to 1 cm in size

A

Vesicle

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19
Q

fluid filled cavity greater than one centimeter in size

A

Bullae

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20
Q

eruption which contains a pus-filled cavity visible to the naked eye

A

Pustule

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21
Q

chronic rubbing leads to thickening of the skin with accentuation of the skin creases

A

Lichenification

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22
Q

independently scaling particles of corneal cells associated in groups

A

Scale

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23
Q

deposits which consist of dehydrated secretion, blood or necrotic tissue

A

Crust

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24
Q

sharply delimited, reddened weeping area from which serous secretion and punctiform hemorrhages are discharged

A

Excoriations

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25
Q

sharply delimited, reddened area due to a surface loss of epidermal tissue, which does not open a capillary. Heals without scarring

A

Erosion

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26
Q

fissural tear in the skin, occasionally bleeds

A

Crack

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27
Q

defect of a previously damaged skin extending to the epidermis or deeper, with poor tendency to heal and healing with scar formation

A

Ulcer

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28
Q

inferior replacement of a loss of substance with connective tissue

A

Scar

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29
Q

thinning and transparency of the epidermis or dermis or both

A

Atrophy

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30
Q

diascopy

A

press a transparent, firm object such as a glass slide against a lesion

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31
Q

If the lesion blanches or loses its erythematous color, this suggests that the erythema is due to ?

A

capillary dilation

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32
Q

If the lesion does not blanch or lose its red color, this suggests that the erythema is due to ?

A

extravasation of blood (this can result from vasculitis or destruction of the vessel wall).

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33
Q

the hard keratin cover of the dorsal portion of the distal phalanx

A

nail plate

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34
Q

The nail plate is generated by the ________ at the proximal portion of the nail bed

A

nail matrix

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35
Q

As the nail grows, the distal part of the matrix produces the deeper or superficial layers of the nail plate?

A

deeper while the proximal portion makes the superficial layers.

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36
Q

The nail is bound proximally by the ?and distally by the distal nail fold (defined by the separation created by the anterior ligament between the distal nail bed and the nail plate;

A

eponychium (the skin just proximal to the cuticle)

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37
Q

The nail is bound laterally by the?

A

nail folds

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38
Q

The nail is bound distally by the?

A

distal nail fold (defined by the separation created by the anterior ligament between the distal nail bed and the nail plate;

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39
Q

3 different layers of the nail:

A

The nail plate (the nail). The nail bed (ventral matrix, sterile matrix). The eponychium (cuticle).

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40
Q

This is the keratinized structure, which grows throughout life

A

nail plate (the nail)

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41
Q

This is the vascular bed that is responsible for nail growth and support. It lies protected between the lunula (the “half moon” seen through the nail) and the hyponychium (the posterior part of the nail bed epithelium)

A

nail bed (ventral matrix, sterile matrix)

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42
Q

The epidermal layer between the proximal nail fold and the dorsal aspect of the nail plate.

A

eponychium (cuticle).

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43
Q

Fingernails grow ?

A

2 -3 mm a month or 0.1 – 0.15 mm a day

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44
Q

Toenails grow ?

A

1 mm a month

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45
Q

Growth rate

A

(about 6 months from cuticle to free edge)

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46
Q

Loss of normal Lovibond angle Increase in nail fold density Pulmonary and CVs diseases GI Hyperthyroidism <1%

A

Clubbing

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47
Q

Spoon shaped concave nails, normal in children resolves with aging

A

Koilonychia

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48
Q

Cause of Koilonychia?

A

Fe deficiency, diabetes mellitus, protein def, exposure to petroleum based solvents, SLE and Raynaud’s disease

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49
Q

Transverse depression across the nail plate

A

Beau’s lines

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50
Q

Occurs when growth at the nail root (matrix) is interrupted by trauma OR any severe acute illness e.g. heart attack, measles, pneumonia, or fever.

A

Beau’s lines

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51
Q

These lines emerge from under the nail folds weeks later, and allow us to estimate when the patient was sick.

A

Beau’s lines

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52
Q

Probable underlying disease when Beau’s lines are present?

A

Severe infection, MI, hypotension, shock, hypocalcemia, surgery

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53
Q

Punctate depressions in the nail plate caused by defective layering of the nail plate

A

Nail Pitting

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54
Q

Usually associated with psoriasis, affecting 10 to 50 % of patients

A

Nail Pitting

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55
Q

Causes of Nail Pitting?

A

Also caused by systemic diseases, including Reiter’s syndrome and other CTDs, sarcoidosis, pemphigus, alopecia areata, lichen planus and incontinentia pigmenti. Any localized dermatitis (atopic or chemical dermatitis) that disrupts orderly growth in proximal nail fold also can cause pitting.

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56
Q

Presence of longitudinal striations or ridges, can be due to advanced age or: Rheumatoid arthritis; Peripheral vascular disease; Lichen planus; and Darier’s disease (striations are red/white

A

Onychorrhexis

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57
Q

Central ridging in Onychorrhexis can be due to ?

A

protein, folic or Fe deficiency

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58
Q

Median Nail Dystrophy

A

Central Nail Canal

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59
Q

Causes of Central Nail Canal?

A

Severe arterial disease (Heller’s fir tree deformity) – peripheral vascular artery disease Severe malnutrition and repetitive trauma

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60
Q

Longitudinal hemorrhagic streaks involving the nail bed.

A

Splinter hemorrhage

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61
Q

Causes of Splinter hemorrhage?

A

Trauma (most common), Derm disease (psoriasis), Idiopathic, and Systemic disease (subacute bacterial endocarditis )

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62
Q

If multiple nails are involved simultaneously in splinter hemorrhage and they occur near the lunula think of?

A

systemic disease.

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63
Q

If one or a few nails are involved in splinter hemorrhage and they occur near the end of the nail plate think of ?

A

trauma

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64
Q

Red lunula

A

Cardiovascular disease, collagen vascular disease or hematologic malignancy

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65
Q

Pale blue lunula suggests ?

A

diabetes mellitus

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66
Q

Proximal portion is white (edema and anemia) and distal portion is red, pink or brown

A

Lindsay’s half & half nails

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67
Q

Lindsay’s half & half nails could be a sign of?

A

Renal or liver disease

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68
Q

Clinical: Proximal white nail with narrow distal pink or brown band (0.5 to 3mm)

A

Terry’s nails

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69
Q

The nail looks opaque and white, but the nail tip has a dark pink to brown band.

A

Terry’s nails

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70
Q

Causes of Terry’s nails

A

cirrhosis, CHF, DM, cancer, hyperthyroidism, malnutrition, ageing

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71
Q

Confined to the nail bed. Will disappear when distal digit is squeezed.

A

Muehrcke’s Lines

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72
Q

Clinical: Double white transverse lines affecting numerous nails.

A

Muehrcke’s Lines

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73
Q

Causes of Muehrcke’s Lines ?

A

Chemotherapy and Hypoalbuminemia secondary to nephrotic syndrome, liver disease, or glomerulonephritis.

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74
Q

Transverse type of true leukonychia caused by systemic disease.

A

Mee’s lines

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75
Q

Clinical: Single or multiple transverse lines that involve multiple nails.

A

Mee’s lines

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76
Q

The pigment is in the nail plate.

A

Mee’s lines

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77
Q

Causes of Mee’s lines

A

Arsenic poisoning, Hodgkin’s disease, CHF, leprosy, malaria, chemotherapy, carbon monoxide poisoning, other systemic insults

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78
Q

Red brown discoloration of the nail bed

A

oil spot sign, salmon patch

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79
Q

Very common in Psoriasis

A

oil spot sign, salmon patch

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80
Q

Distal separation of nail plate from nail bed

A

Onycholysis

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81
Q

Causes of Onycholysis

A

Thyrotoxicosis, psoriasis, trauma, contact dermatitis, tetracycline, eczema, fungal or bacterial infections

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82
Q

Longitudinal Pigmented Bands (LPB)

A

Melanonychia

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83
Q

Pigmented band appearing in the distal matrix and extending to the tip of the nail.

A

Melanonychia

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84
Q

Be suspicious if: Develops in a single digit in adult life especially in 6th decade or later Develops abruptly in previously normal nail Becomes suddenly darker or wider

A

Melanonychia

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85
Q

the number of hairs on the head

A

120,000–150,000

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86
Q

number of hairs/cm2

A

250

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87
Q

the total surface area of a head of hair 20 cm long

A

6 m2

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88
Q

rate of growth of hair

A

1 cm/month

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89
Q

strands of hair we naturally lose each day

A

100 – 120

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90
Q

weight a single hair can withstand

A

100 gms

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91
Q

not greasy or dry, not permed or colored, holds style well, looks healthy

A

Normal

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92
Q

limp, looks flat lacks volume, soon gets greasy after shampoo

A

Fine/Greasy hair

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93
Q

looks dull, feels dry and rough, tangles easily, treated chemically, dry and frizzy, may have split ends

A

Dry

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94
Q

Alternating light and dark bands The light bands are areas on the shaft with vacuoles May be autosomal dominant

A

Pili annulati

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95
Q

Beaded appearance due to periodic narrowing of the hair shaft Autosomal dominant Fragile hair and dystrophic alopecia

A

Monilethrix

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96
Q

Bamboo hair

A

Trichorrhexis invaginata

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97
Q

Netherton’s syndrome, autosomal recessive

A

Trichorrhexis invaginata

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98
Q

Regularly spaced nodules along the shaft caused by intermittent fractures with invagination of the distal hair into the proximal portion

A

Trichorrhexis invaginata

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99
Q

Hair is twisted along the long axis Maybe congenital or acquired

A

Pili torti

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100
Q

Results from a disturbance of the follicle from a scarring inflammatory process, mechanical stress or cicatricial alopecia

A

Pili torti

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101
Q

Brittle hair shaft with breaks at varying lengths

A

Pili torti

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102
Q

Present in Menke’s, Bjornstad, Crandall syndromes

A

Pili torti

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103
Q

Abnormal fragility

A

Trichorrhexis nodosa

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104
Q

Congenital – Menke’s syndrome, Trichodystrophy, arginosuccinic aciduria

A

Trichorrhexis nodosa

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105
Q

May be accompanied by mental retardation, motor defect, ichthyosis, seizure disorders, growth abnormalities

A

Trichorrhexis nodosa

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106
Q

Acquired – excessive hair styling

A

Trichorrhexis nodosa

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107
Q

Split ends

A

Trichoptilosis

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108
Q

Most common complaint about hair

A

Hair loss

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109
Q

Most common hair problems

A

Telogen effluvium Male Pattern Baldness Female Pattern Baldness Trichotillomania Alopecia areata

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110
Q

Skilled interviewing techniques

A
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111
Q

The skin accounts for how many percent of the adult body weight?

A

6% (Dr. Montero)

16% (Bates)

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112
Q

Thin avascular keratinized, epithelium

A

Epidermis

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113
Q

Outer Layer of epidermis

A
stratum corneum (dead
keratinized cells)
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114
Q

Inner Layer of the epidermis

A

stratum basale

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115
Q

(malphigian layer);site
where melanin and keratin are formed

A

Stratum spinosum

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116
Q

Migration from inner to outer layer is about?

A

1 month

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117
Q

dense layer of interconnecting collagen and
elastic fibers containing sebaceous and sweat
gland, hair follicles, and terminals of the
cutaneous nerves.

A

dermis

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118
Q

consists of spongy connective tissue with
energy-storing adipocytes (fat cells).

A

SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE

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119
Q

Melanocytes are freely distributed along?

A

cytoplasm

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120
Q

protects DNA mutation caused by ultraviolet rays

A

melanin

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121
Q

brown pigment

A

Eumelanin

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122
Q

black pigment

A

Pheomelanin

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123
Q

ORIGINAL LESION

A

Exact site
 Duration
 Appearance
 Distribution
 Progression

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124
Q

SYMPTOMS

A

 Pruritus
 Pain
 Burning

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125
Q

SETTING AND TIMING OF ATTACKS

A

 Occupation
 Topical agents
 Drug history
 Season of year
 Environment

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126
Q

Distribution of Lesions:

Acne Vulgaris

A

face, chest, back

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127
Q

Distribution of Lesions:

Atopic Dermatitis

A

Body folds

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128
Q

Distribution of Lesions:

Photosensitive Eruptions

A

sun exposed area

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129
Q

Distribution of Lesions:

Pityriasis Rosea

A

90% sun covered area

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130
Q

Distribution of Lesions:

Psoriais

A

Predisposed to trauma

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131
Q

Distribution of Lesions:

Seborrheic dermatitis

A

Sebaceous in origin

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132
Q

These lesions are small
and itchy at first.
It can be due to
cutaneous larva
migrants of dog
or cat hookworm

A

Serpiginous
lesions

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133
Q

•Surface Features

A
  • Normal or smooth
  • Scaly
  • Keratinous
  • Crust
  • Warty, papillomatous
  • Umbilicated
  • Lichenified
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134
Q

Shape of Lesions

A

 Round
 Oval
 Irregular
 Pedunculated

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135
Q

Yellow

A

 Cholesterol deposits
 Solar elastosis
 Carotenemia
 Xanthomas
→ Xanthalesma
→ Eruptive
 Xanthogranulomas
 Adnexal tumors and hyperplasias with
sebaceous differentiation
 Necrobiosis lipoidica
 Capillaries [Yellow-Brown Background]
 Drugs/Deposits
→ Tophi
→ Quinacrine

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136
Q

Red

A

Vasodilation

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137
Q

Gray

A

 Post inflammatory hyperpigmentation [Dermal]
→ Erythema dyschromicum perstans
 Drugs/Deposits
→ Argyria
→ Chrysiasis
→ Mercury deposits
→ Combined melanocytic nevus
→ Traumatic tattoos

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138
Q

Green

A

 Pseudomonas infection
→ Characterized with a “fruity smell”
 Tattoo
 Chloroma
 Green hair due to copper deposits

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139
Q

Blue

A

 Ceruloderma
 Dermal melanocytosis
→ Mongolian spot
→ Nevus of Ota
 Dermal melanocytomas
→ Blue nevi
 Cyanosis
 Ecchymoses
 Venous congestion
→ Venous malformations
 Drugs/Deposits
→ Minocycline
→ Traumatic tattoos

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140
Q

Brown

A

 Pigmented lesion
→ Lentigines
→ Seborrheic keratosis
→ Junctional, compound and congenital
melanocytic nevi
→ Café-au-lait spot
→ Dermatofibromas
→ Melanoma
→ Pigmented actinic keratosis, Bowen’s disease
 Post inflammatory hyperpigmentation
[Epidermal]
 Melasma
 Phytophotodermititis
 Drug-induced hyperpigmentation
→ Cyclophosphamide
 Metabolic
→ Addison’s disease

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141
Q

Black

A

 Necrosis of the skin
→ Vasculitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis)
→ Thrombosis (DIC, monoclonal
cryoglobulinemia)
→ Emboli (Ecythma gangrenosum)

→ Vasospasm (Severe Reynaud’s phenomenom)
→ Vascular compromise (Atherosclerosis,
calciphylaxis)
→ Eschar (Anthrax)
 Cutaneous melanoma
 Traumatic tattoos

142
Q

Hyperpigmentation of the proximal nail fold of
the finger

A

HUTCHINSON’S
SIGN IN
MELANOMA

143
Q

T/F

Hair is dead and can not be nourished, hair
products can only provide temporary benefits to
the look and feel of hair

A

T

144
Q

T/F

All organic or all natural shampoos can not
really clean hair

A

T

145
Q

T/F

With modern shampoos hair can be washed as
often as necessary

A

T

146
Q

T/F

Shampoos do not interfere with hair growth

A

T

147
Q

T/F

Amount of lather in a shampoo does not affect
its cleaning ability

A

T

148
Q

T/F

More expensive shampoos do not necessarily
outperform inexpensive ones

A

T

149
Q

T/F

Shampoos do not build up on hair but
conditioning agents and styling products do

A

T

150
Q

T/F

Hair is weaker when wet

A

T

151
Q

responsible for the color
of the hair

A

Melanin granules

152
Q


Caused by exogenous re infection of a previously sensitized
individual

Usuallly occurs on the hands or feet

Starts as a small asymptomatic papule or pustule

The become hyperkeratotic, slowly increasing in size

May discharge pus

A

TB
verrucosa curtis

153
Q


Persistent and progressive form of cutaneous TB

Small sharply defined red brown lesions, with a scaly or friable
surface.

Gyrate shapes may be observed due to involution in one area with
expansion on another

Diascopy reveals an apple jelly color

Usually found over the head and neck area

May lead to disfigurement

A

Lupus vulgaris

154
Q


Direct extension of tubercle bacilli from an
underlying infected lymph node or bone to the
skin

Common sites:
Side of the neck, supraclavicular fossae & axillae

There is fluctuant swelling which suppurates &
ulcerates

Heals on Tx but leaves considerable scarring

A

Scrofuloderma

155
Q


Chronic granulomatous infection, involving primarily the skin and the
nerves

Diverse manifestation depending on the type of leprosy the patient
has

Indeterminate, Tuberculoid , borderline tuberculoid , Lepromatous

A

Mycobacterium
leprae

156
Q


Systemic infection caused by Treponema pallidum

Passes through 4 distinct clinical phases: 1 0 chancre, Secondary stage
(skin eruption), latent period, Tertiary stage (Neuro, CVS Sy )

A

Syphilis

157
Q

Skin findings in Lupus Erythematosus

A


Malar rash

Discoid Lupus

Photosensitivity

Oral ulcers

158
Q

Systemic findings in Lupus Erythematosus

A


Arthritis

Serositis

Renal disorder

Hematologic disorder

Neurologic disorder

Positive anti nuclear
antibody

Anti dsDNA or anti
Smith
antibody

159
Q


Exemplified by development of bilateral malar erythema, transient,
follow sun exposure

Erythema may be accompanied by telangiectasias , erosions,
dyspigmentations and epidermal atrophy

A

Acute Cutaneous LE

160
Q


Photosensitive

Lesions confined to sun exposed areas

Annular in configuration, raised borders and central clearing

Maybe present in patients receiving hydrochlorthiazide , terbinafine,
Ca channel blockers, NSAIDs, anti His, griseofulvin

A

Subacute Cutaneous LE

161
Q


Most common skin manifestation of lupus

Erythematous, violaceous plaques, some scaling, atrophic changes,
follicular plugging, and dyspigmentation maybe observed

A

Discoid Lupus

162
Q


Cutaneous fibrosis excessive accumulation of collagen

Unknown cause

Types:

Localized

Morphea

Generalized

Linear

Systemic cutaneous and internal organ fibrosis

A

Scleroderma

163
Q


Symmetrical, thickening, tightening and
induration of the skin

Initially involves the digits and may later spread
to involve the entire extremity, face and torso

A

Systemic Sclerosis
Scleroderma

164
Q

Furrows
radiate from the
mouth which
becomes shrunken.

A

Scleroderma.

165
Q

Matt like
telangiectasia may
occur in what
syndrome?

A

CREST syndrome

166
Q


Female preponderance approx 2:1, peak incidence 5 th to 6 th decade

Proximal, symmetric muscle weakness

Elevated serum levels of muscle derived enzymes

Abnormal electromyogram

Abnormal muscle biopsy

Cutaneous disease compatible w Dermatomyositis

18 to 32% may develop a malignancy

Arthralgia , dysphagia , myocarditis , pericarditis , calcinosis in the skin
or muscle (40% of affected children)

A

Dermatomyositis

167
Q

symmetriclal
violaceous to dusky
erythematous
eruption over the
periorbital area

A

Heliotrope Sign

168
Q


Heterogenous group of CTD characterized by easy bruisability , joint
hypermobility , cutaneous hyperextensibility

11 subtypes

Abnormalities in the collagen structure irregularities in the
diameter of the fibrils, irregular collagen shapes

Mitral valve prolapse , aortic dilatation with insufficiency, arterial
rupture

A

Ehlers
Danlos Syndrome

169
Q

firm, non-tender, movable subcutaneous masses

A

Rheumatoid nodules

170
Q


Autosomal dominant

1 in 3000 live births, de novo mutations in 30 50% of cases, 90% of
these mutations occur in the paternally derived chromosome

Café au lait spots –> 6

Axillary freckling Crowe’s sign

Lisch nodules

Neurofibromas

Abnormal expression of a tumor suppressor gene neurofibromin

CNS tumors in 3 10%, occ visceral tumors, cong pulmonary stenosis ,
idiopathic interstitial pulmonary fibrosis, renal artery stenosis and
hypertension

A

Classic
Neufibromatosis

171
Q


Autosomal Dominant, 1 in 10000 live births

Epilepsy

Adenoma sebaceum angiofibromas

Mental retardation (50%)

CNS cerebral tumors

Eye retinal gliomas

Kidney renal cysts, angiomyolipomas

CVS rhabdomyomas

Defect in the gene code for hamartin and tuberin , proteins
which are probably tumor suppressors

A

Tuberous sclerosis
Bourneville’s Disease

172
Q

Intradermal
or
subcutaneous
nodules
Occur over
avascular areas
May discharge a
chalky material

A

Tophi

173
Q

Cutaneous complications of diabetes

A

Image

174
Q


Small, brown, well demarcated, shallow depressions with atrophic
appearance

Less than 1 cm in diameter

Bilaterally located on the pretibial area, asymmetric

Most common cutaneous manifestation of DM

May herald the microvascular complications of DM

A

Diabetic
dermopathy

175
Q

Well circumscribed yellow brown patches with epidermal atrophy
commonly found over the shins

A

Necrobiosis
Lipoidica

176
Q


Rapid onset painless,
tense blisters on
hands and feet

Trauma and
microvascular disease
may play a role

Spontaneous healing
in 2 5 weeks

A

Diabetic bullae

177
Q


Peripheral neuropathy leads to unnoticed trauma

Vascular complications may lead to ulcers and
complicate ulcer healing

Risk of amputation goes up 8x once these develop

A

Diabetic Neurotropic Ulcers

178
Q


African Americans and Hispanics > Caucasians

Associated with obesity, insulin resistance

Hyperpigmented velvety plaques of the flexures

Genetic sensitivity of the skin to hyperinsulinemia

Malignant form a/w gastric ACA

A

Acanthosis
nigricans

179
Q


Deposition of lipids in the skin & elsewhere

Results from hyperlipidemia caused by a primary genetic defect or
secondary to defective metabolism

A

Lipid disorders

180
Q
A
181
Q

Xanthomas consists of?

A

foam cells

182
Q

Tissue macrophages which have
phagocytosed the lipid part of lipoproteins deposited in tissues

A

Foam cells

183
Q

flat, yellow plaques around the eyes

A

Xanthelasma

184
Q


sudden appearance of myriad of yellow
papules/nodules over the buttocks, thighs,
arms, forearms, back & chest

Often found in chylomicronemia

A

Eruptive xanthoma

185
Q


Reddish yellow nodules usually localized over the extensor surfaces
of the elbows, knuckles, knees and buttocks

Common in familial dysbetalipoprotenemia

A

Tuberous xanthoma

186
Q

Xanthoma
Planum

A

Familial
dysbetalipoprotenemi
a

187
Q

Xanthoma
tendinosum

A

Familial
hypercholesterolemi
a

188
Q

Clinical presentations of xanthomas

A

pic

189
Q

Secondary causes of hyperlipidemia

A

pic

190
Q

Thyroid dermopathy (pretibial

Symmetric, non pitting yellow brown waxy papules/plaques

Due to increased hyaluronic acids in dermis

Rare usually associated with Graves disease

A

Thyroid disorders

191
Q


red,soft , moist and hot

addisonian hyperpigmentation i.e. not affect the mucous
membranes.

Diffuse thinning of scalp hair

Rapid nail growth and onycholysis

Generalised pruritus and urticaria

Palmar erythema and facial flushing.

Hyperhidrosis or increased sweating.

A

Hyperthyroidism

192
Q


Dry, cool skin

Generalized myxedema

Yellow hue from carotenemia

Purpura from delayed wound healing

Alopecia, madarosis

A

Hypothyroidism

193
Q

Associated with zinc deficiency
Inherited as AR
Triad:
circumorificial
/ acral dermatitis
alopecia
diarrhea
Inadequate Zn intake:
anorexia nervosa
vegetarian diet
parenteral
alimentation

A

Acrodermatitis Enteropathica

194
Q

Reduced zinc absorption in Acrodermatitis
enteropathica is due to:

A

coeliac disease
pancreatic insufficiency
cystic fibrosis
severe infantile diarrhea
alcoholism

195
Q

Niacin deficiency (B 3

Photodistributed erythema that becomes scarlet and
hyperpigmetned Casal’s necklace well demarcated
band around the neck. Peri anal and oral inflammation
and erosions

Peripheral neuropathy with dysthesias

A

Pellagra

196
Q


Spongy gingiva, with bleeding and erosions

Petechiae, ecchymosis

Corckscrew hairs, follicular hyperkeratosis

A

Scurvy
Vitamin C deficiency

197
Q


Sudden appearance of dark colored thickened, velvety skin, which
start as hyperpigmented macules and patches which progress to
palpable plaques

Skin tags are often found in the affected areas

Oral cavity may be involved

Tripe palms altered dermatoglyphics

A

Malignant Acanthosis
nigricans

198
Q


the sudden eruption of multiple seborrheic keratosis caused by a
malignancy

Tan to black, popular growths oftentimes with a warty surface

A

Sign of
Leser Trélat

199
Q


Very rare condition characterized by the rapid growth of long fine
lanugo type hair

Face commonly affected

Most frequent associated malignancy in females is colorectal CA,
followed by lung CA and breast CA. In men it is Lung CA

A

Hypertrichosis
Lanuginosa Aquisita

200
Q


Autosomal dominant inherited disorder

Intestinal hamartomatous polyps in association with macular melanin
deposition on the skin and mucous membranes

Significant overall increased lifetime risk of intestinal and
extraintestinal malignancy

A

Peutz
Jeghers syndrome

201
Q

Up to 50% of patients with PG have
inflammatory bowel disease

12% of patients with ulcerative colitis and 2% of
patients with Crohn’s disease will develop the
condition

Severity and extent of ulceration in PG link to
the activity of the underlying disease

Can heal with effective treatment of the
underlying bowel disease

A

Pyoderma
gangrenosum

202
Q

Causes of
Pyoderma
Gangrenosum

A

Crohn’s Disease

Ulcerative Colitis

Rheumatoid
Arthritis

Behcets
Syndrome

Monoclonal
gammopathies

Hypogammaglobulin
aemia

Plasma cell
dyscrasias

Multiple myeloma

Acute leukemia

Polycythaemia rubra

203
Q


Wood grain pattern on the skin, serpiginous,
polycyclic erythematous, pruritic lesions

Fast growing

90% associated with internal malignancy

Most common is lung CA

A

Erythema
gyratum repens

204
Q

Port wine stain ophthalmic branch of Trigeminal nerve

Ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomas progressive
calcification and degeneration of the underlying cerebral
cortex

Seizure disorders, contralateral hemiparesis , and ipsilateral
ocular involvement with angiomatosis of the choroid and
glaucoma.

A

Sturge
Weber Syndrome

205
Q


Acute nodular, tender, erythematous eruption, usually limited to the
extensor aspects of the lower legs

May occur in association with several systemic diseases or drug
therapies (sulfa drugs, OCP’s, strep, fungal, viral infxns , sarcoidosis,
inflammatory bowel diseases, pregnancy)

A

Erythema
nodosum

206
Q


Acute immunoglobulin A mediated disorder characterized by
generalized vasculitis involving the small vessels of the skin, GIT, GUT,
joints and rarely the lungs and the CNS

Headache, anorexia and fever, followed by purpura over the legs,
with abdominal pain and vomitting

A

Henoch
Schonlein Purpura

207
Q

An exaggerated forward thrust may be the result of abnormality of the cervical spine. Adue to fusion of the cervical vertebrae.

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome

208
Q

a slight but constant rhythmic tremor of the head occurs

A

Parkinson‟s disease

209
Q

sudden, unexpected head movements, often accompanied by facial grimaces

A

Habit spasm

210
Q

there is a too and fro bobbing of the head synchronous with the heart beat

A

Musset’s sign=Aortic insufficiency

211
Q

sudden, jerky movements of the head

A

Chorea

212
Q

large size and bulging forehead

A

Hydrocephalus

213
Q

from premature synostosis of coronal and sagittal sutures; with marked exophthalmos; vacant expression

A

Tower skull or steeple head

214
Q

prominent fontal bosses and some exophthalmos

A

Apert‟s syndrome

215
Q

skull has a flattened or squared appearance

A

Rickets

216
Q

enlargement of the cranial vault; shape of the head resembles that of an acorn

A

Paget‟s disease

217
Q

single or multiple

A

Sebaceous cysts

218
Q

causes a marked prominence of the forehead

A

Osteoma of frontal bone

219
Q

Bulging, prominent, rounded mass, usually partially collapsible and pulsating

A

Encephalocele

220
Q

no connection to CNS

A

Glioma

221
Q

multiple osteomas, fibromas, epidermoid cysts, and intestinal polyps.

A

Gardner syndrome

222
Q

marked swelling of the forehead “Pott’s puuffy tumor”.

A

Frontal sinusitis

223
Q

What is the highest temp?

a. Oral
b. Axillary
c. Rectal
d. Tympanic

A

C.Rectal

Rectal temperature are 0.4 to 0.5 degrees
Celsius higher than Oral

224
Q

How long will it take for the thermometer to
equilibrate when placed under the tongue with
digital thermometer?

A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 4 minutes

A

C. 3 minutes

For oral temperature, glass thermometers
recording usually takes about 3 to 5 minutes

225
Q

Intermittent fever

A. Little variations per episode
B. With complete resolution between episode
C. Abating each day but no complete resolution
D. Febrile episodes last for a couple of days separated by afebrile intervals with the same length.

A

B. With complete resolution between episode

226
Q
  1. Remittant fever
    A. Little variations per episode
    B. With complete resolution per episode
    C. Abating each day but no complete
    resolution
    D. Febrile episodes last for a couple of days
    separated by afebrile intervals with the same
    length.
A

C. Abating each day but no complete
resolution

227
Q
  1. Battles signs
    a. Classic traumatic bruising behind the
    mastoid bone
    b. Present in congenital Myopathy
    c. Periorbital bruising
    d. Dramatic expression
A

a. Classic traumatic bruising behind the
mastoid bone

228
Q

-The face appears expressionless with sunken cheeks, bilateral ptosis, and inability to elevate the corners of the mouth, due to muscle weakness.

A

Myopathic face

229
Q

A postural dizziness or an increase in heart rate of 30 beats/minute has a sensitivity of 97% and a specificity of 96 for a blood loss >630mL. If not associated with dizziness, a postural hypotension in any degrees is of less value.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Sensitivity is 13.2%

230
Q

8.Fat distribution as in waist to circumference or waist to hips ratio is less reliable to identify cardiovascular diseases than BMI.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

If the BMI is >35 kg/m2, measure the patients
waist circumference just above the hips. Risk for
diabetes, hypertension and cardiovascular
disease increase significantly

231
Q

Acute diff in diastolic pressure of >20mmhg
between the 2 arms indicate aortic dissection.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Aortic difference of more than 10 to 15 mmHg
occurs in aortic dissection

A

B. FALSE

Aortic difference of more than 10 to 15 mmHg
occurs in aortic dissection

232
Q
  1. Muerhrckes line seen in chronic:
    A. Diabetes
    B. Hypertension
    C. Renal disease
    D. Hypoalbuminemia
A

D. Hypoalbuminemia

233
Q

This is the highest intra-atrial pressure
produced during ventricular contraction?
A. Systolic pressure
B. Diastolic pressure

A

A. Systolic pressure

234
Q

Auscultatory sound heard after deflating the
cuff
a. murmur
b. borborygni
c. korotkoff

A

c. korotkoff

235
Q
  1. causes of wide pulse pressure except
    a. anxiety
    b. anemia

c. pregnancy
d. polycythemia

A

d. polycythemia

Pulse pressure is increased in:
Fever, anemia, hyperthyroidism etc.

236
Q

The exaggeration of the normal respiratory
variation in systolic blood pressure characterized
by decrease in inspiration and increase in
expiration.
A. Pulsus paradoxus
B. Bainbridge anomaly
D. Pulsus Alternans

A

A. Pulsus paradoxus

237
Q

flattened non palpable circumscribed
discoloration with diameter of <=0.5 cm

A

Macule

238
Q

Raised palpable lesion <= 0.5mm. This may
or may not have discoloration.
A. Macule
B. Patches
C. Papule
D. Vesicle

A

C. Papule

239
Q

Lesion >0.5 cm,usually developed from
papule

A

Plaque

240
Q

Raised, palpable lesion >0.5 cm in diameter
that goes deep down the dermis.
a.vesicle
b.nodule
c.tumor
d.plaque

A

b.nodule

241
Q

Raised, circumscribed edematous plaque,
pruritive pale or pink in color. transient

A

Wheal

242
Q

>0.5 cm lesion in 2nd degree burn

a. vesicle
b. bullae
c. cyst
d. wheals

A

b. bullae

243
Q

Raised and enveloped lesion that contains
fluid or semisolid material
A. Pustule
B. Cyst

C. Purpura
D. Petechiae

A

B. Cyst

244
Q

Skin extravasation of red cells, which, based
on size, may be presented as ecchymoses:
A. Pustule
B. Cyst
C. Purpura
D. Petechiae

A

C. Purpura

245
Q

Reddish or purplish discoloration if the skin
that is microscopic, <0.5 cm and in clusters
a. Purpura
b. Petechiae
c. Ecchymoses

A

b. Petechiae

246
Q

Reddish to purplish in color that are larger
than petechiae

A

Answer: Ecchymosis

247
Q

These are vascular telangiectasias. They
blanch when they are compressed.
A. Spider angiomas
B. Venous spiders
C. Ecchymosis
D. Excoriations

A

A. Spider angiomas

248
Q

Mav Lu went to the ER with a 4 day hx of
unrecalled fever that persisted throughout the
day, he also complained of epigastrc pain with a
scale of 5/10 that was unrelieved wby food
intake, symptoms persist for few days. a few
hours prior to admission, the patient had an
episode of projectile vomiting (200cc), thus he
went to the ER. What is the chief complaint of
the px?

A

Answer: Vomiting

249
Q

Dr. Nat Bril wants to know the patient’s
smoking pack years, what question should he
not ask?
A. Average number of sticks per day
B. When did he start smoking
C. When did he stop
D. How many sticks can he tolerate

A

D. How many sticks can he tolerate

250
Q

You are a 2nd year medical student who’s interviewing a patient with the tendency to talk a lot and overshare. Which of the following would you not include in Socioeconomic History?
A. Age
B. Occupation
C. Biking and hiking hobbies
D. Marital Status

A

A. Age

251
Q

Dr. Bea performed ROS. Which should not
be included in Review off Related Systems
A. Blurring vision
B. Ringing of the ear
C. Dysuria
D. Wheezing

A

D. Wheezing

252
Q

Dr. Bea performed ROS. Which should not
be included in Review off Related Systems
A. Blurring vision
B. Ringing of the ear
C. Dysuria
D. Wheezing

In which will
you classify your answer?
A. HPI
B. Personal history
C. Gen data
D. Physical exam

A

D. Physical exam

253
Q

__________ is a complete, clear, and
chronologic description of the problems prompting the patient’s visit, including the onset of the problem, the setting in which it developed, its manifestations, and any treatments to date.

A

HISTORY OF PRESENT ILLNESS

254
Q

You are a second year medical student and
you have studied properly for History and PE. A
patient came to you with a chief complaint of
“For chemotherapy”. For you, chief complaint
should be?
A. Ask the patient more about the
chemotherapy
B. Let it be because you are only a second year
student
C. Place cancer as chief complaint
D. None of the above

A

A. Ask the patient more about the
chemotherapy

255
Q

Dr. Tan perform history and p.e., which of
these is a symptom.
A.bluish discoloration
B.hematoma
C.difficulty of breathing

A

C.difficulty of breathing

256
Q

Which is not included in the general data?
A. Age
B. Religion

C. Marital status
D. No. Of children

A

D. No. Of children

257
Q

includes all elements of health history and
complete physical examination.

A

Comprehensive

258
Q

You are interviewing a 6’8 285lbs man. And
told you that before he went to africa 2 years
ago he got a vaccine for yellow fever. What part
of patient history should it be included in
A. HPI
B. Personal
C. Past Medical History
D. Socio

A

C. Past Medical History

259
Q

Strong pulsation at uvula with synchronous
heart beat
A. Quincy
B. Vincents angina
C. Lenards angina
D. Aortic insufficiency

A

D. Aortic insufficiency

260
Q

This gives the patient an impassive, sphinx -
like expression?
A. Scleroderma
B. Parkinson’s
C. Leprosy
D. Grave’s syndrome

A

B. Parkinson’s

261
Q

Saddle nose deformity is one characteristic
of?
A. Lupus erythematosus
B. Acne rosea
C. Rhinophyma
D. Leprosy

A

D. Leprosy

262
Q

The descriptive term “coup de sabre” is indicative of
A. Romberg’s disease
B. Saddison disease
C.Graves disease
D.Hodgkins disease

A

A. Romberg’s disease

263
Q

Associated to tetany, elicited by tapping
sharply with the finger just in front of the external
auditory meatus over the facial nerve.

A

Chvostek’s sign

264
Q

Syndrome characterized by white forelock,
deafness heavy eyebrow and broad-based nose

A
  • Waardenberg Syndrome
265
Q

Syndrome due to increased adrenal
hormone production with round or moon face with red cheeks
a. Nephrotic Syndrome

b. Marfan’s syndrome
c. Cushing’s Syndrome
d. Gradenigo Syndrome

A

c.Cushing’s Syndrome

266
Q

This may cause atrophy of the trapezius and
sternocleidomastoid muscle.
A. Wryneck
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Torticollis

A

C. Poliomyelitis

267
Q

Aortic insuffiecency or trachea tug, can be
pulsate with placing finger over the carotid
arteries -

A

olivers sign

268
Q

Suddenly lose patches of hair and often
awaken in the morning to find a handful of hair
on the pillow and a bald spot on the scalp where
their hair fell out.

A

alopecia aerata

269
Q

Hematoma along mastoid bone or temporal
bone fracture

A

Battle’s sign

270
Q

“Rangades” a small, linear scar coming from
the mouth to the nose is characterized as:
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Congenital herpes
C. Congenital leprosy
D. Congenital tb

A

A. Congenital syphilis

271
Q
  1. Pigmented spots on oral and buccal mucosa,
    diagnosed with peutz-jeghers disease, which of
    the following is the other symptom
    A.Colonic malignancies
    B. Multiple intestinal polyps
    C. Biliary atresia
    D. Liver cirrhosis
A

B. Multiple intestinal polyps

272
Q

Multiple osteoma of skull, fibroma,
epidermoid cyst, intestinal polyps associtaed
with?
A.
B. Acromegaly
C. Gardner’s syndrome
D. Peutz-Jegher’s

A

C. Gardner’s syndrome

273
Q

Presence of port wine nevus and bruit in the
ipsilateral skull is in present in:
A. Struge-weber syndrome
B. Virchow’s
C. Von recklinghausen disease
D. Hodgkin’s

A

A. Struge-weber syndrome

274
Q

28 yrs old mechanic with a mass at the right
upper lateral neck anterior to the
sternocleidomastoid. Mass is tense, firm and
non tender, does not move up upon swallowing.
What is likely the diagnosis?
A. Thymus
B. Thyromegaly
C. Thyroglossal duct cyst
D. Branchial cleft cyst

A

D. Branchial cleft cyst

275
Q

A 6 month old infant was brought in for
consultation. A soft, collapsible, light transmitting
tumor on the neck measuring 6 x 6 inches. Most
likely diagnosis
A. Cystic hygroma
B. Hemangioma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Chemodectoma

A

A. Cystic hygroma

276
Q

Fusion of cervical
vertebrae

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome

277
Q

Acorn shape of the head

A

Paget’s disease

278
Q

A massive face with craggy eyebrows,
prominent nose and enlarged lower jaw
indicates
a. Acromegaly
b Cushings
c. Alpert
d. Steeple Head

A

a. Acromegaly

279
Q

A term used to describe a depressed positioning of the pinna two or more standard deviations below the population average.

A

Low set ears

280
Q

Low set ears can be associated with conditions such as:

A

→ Down’s syndrome and Turner syndrome.
→ Noonan syndrome
→ Patau syndrome

281
Q

It is usually bilateral, but can be unilateral in Goldenhar syndrome.

A

Low set ears

282
Q
  • Deposits of uric acid crystals characteristic of gout
  • Appear as hard nodules in helix or antihelix
  • Occasionally discharge white chalky crystals
A

Tophus

283
Q

• Small chronic, painful, tender nodule in the helix of the ear.

A

Chondrodermatitis Helicis

284
Q
  • More common on auricle than BCC
  • Usually in older men and those exposed to too much sunlight
  • Usually on posterior and superior portion of pinna.
  • More exophylic.
A

Squamous cell carcinoma

285
Q
  • More common on the face
  • Occur later in life than SCC
A

Basal cell carcinoma

286
Q

• More endophylic and tends to burrow subcutaneously beyond the visible limits of the tumor.

A

Basal cell carcinoma

287
Q
  • Most common causes of hearing loss
  • Neurosensory hearing loss
A

Chronic otitis media

288
Q
  • Thomas willis described a woman “who, although she was deaf, whenever a drum was beaten in the room, heard every word clearly”
  • Often seen in otosclerosis
A

Paracusia Willisii

289
Q

• Tinnitus
• Vertigo
→ Most common cause of the patient’s seeking care
• Hearing loss

A

Meniere’s syndrome

290
Q

erosion of the nasal bones may result in the typical “saddle nose”

A

Syphilis

291
Q

nose is red, large and bulbous

A

Rhinophyma

292
Q

“butterfly” lesion on the nose with wings extending out over the cheeks

A

Lupus erythematosus

293
Q

marked reddening of the tip of the nose

A

Acne rosacea

294
Q
  • Teeth that are pitted and stained yellow, brown, or black
  • Caused by the presence of fluoride in drinking water
A

Mottled enamel or fluorosis

295
Q
  • Gums are soft, tender and spongy
  • Teeth often so loose that they can be plucked out with finger
A

Scurvy

296
Q

• Caused by:
→ Acute monomyelocytic leukemia
→ Or by medication like phenytoin

A

Hyperplasia of the gums

297
Q
  • A long ridge of the bone felt along the inside the mandible in the floor of the mouth
  • Most prominent from canine (cuspid) to second molar.
A

Torus mandibularis

298
Q

• Underdevelopment of the mandible associated with median cleft palate

A

Pierre Robin syndrome

299
Q

→ Tongue is slightly red
→ Slightly flurry coating
→ Raspberry tongue/ strawberry tongue
→ bright red coloration and prominent papillae

A

Scarlet fever

300
Q

tongue is heavily coated and furred and often covered with brownish sores

A

Typhoid fever

301
Q

covered with firm, white, indurated lesions that resemble attached crust

A

Leukoplakia

302
Q

acutely inflamed, painful, and so swollen that it protrudes, preventing a patient from closing the mouth

A

Ludwig’s Angina

303
Q

with conspicuous furrows in the dorsal surface of the tongue

A

Fissured tongue

304
Q
  • typical whitish patches on the border of the tongue
  • Tongue Tide
  • Caviar tongue
A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

305
Q

• Striking in appearance
• Commonly seen in nervous patient
Appearance changes daily

A

Geographic tongue

306
Q

• Has groove and markings like those in an surface of the scrotum

A

Scrotal tongue

307
Q

Tongue is:
→ Small
→ Irregular shaped
→ Round or oval areas of black or brown pigmentation

A

Addison’s disease

308
Q

• Sublingual or gum ulcer

A

Chronic adult Histoplasmiosis

309
Q

• Caused by herpes simplex virus
• Painful vesicular lesions
• Associated with systemic manifesttaion:
→ Fever
→ Malaise
→ Lymphadenopathy

A

Herpetic stomatitis

310
Q
  • Caude by coxsackie A virus
  • Occur particularly in children under 4 years of age
  • Sudden onset of fever, sore throat and shallow pharyngeal ulcers
  • Occur usually during the summer
A

Herpangina

311
Q
  • Cluster of small, dilated varicose veins and may occupy the whole surface of the tongue
  • Round shaped and black color have suggested a resemblance to caviar
A

Caviar tongue

312
Q
  • A cystic swelling in the floor on the mouth under the tongue and alongside the molar teeth is due to a blocked sublingual gland
  • Cyst usually is single, moderately tense and filled with thick, clear mucous
A

Ranula

313
Q
  • Small, bluish-white spots surrounded by a thin, red margin, appear on the area of the mucous membrane of the cheek opposite molars, near the opening of the parotid duct
  • Pathognomonic(sign) of measles
  • Appear before the skin eruption
  • Permit the early diagnosis of the disease
A

Koplik’s spots

314
Q
  • Presence of Mucous patches (white, sharply circumscribed areas seen on the mucous membranes of the mouth near the bases of the gums, 0.5 to 1 cm in diameter)
  • Present on the palate or anywhere on the mucous membrane of the buccal cavity
A

Secondary syphilis

315
Q
  • Involve the oral mucosa before skin lesions appear
  • Grayish-white papules that coalesce and are surrounded by a reticulated area
A

Lichen planus

316
Q
  • A hard, bony, benign midline tumor of the hard palate
  • Interfere with the wearing of an upper denture
A

Torus palatinus

317
Q

Palate is usually “high and arched”

A

Marfan’s and Turner syndrome

318
Q
  • Infection of the tonsil and gums
  • Unilateral and causes necrosis
  • A dirty, yellow exudate that leaves a bleeding surface when removed
  • Mistaken for both Diphtheria and syphilis
A

Vincent’s angina

319
Q
  • May complicate acute tonsillitis or dental sepsis
  • Patient commonly has a high fever, dysphagia, and a rigidity of the neck
  • Rigid neck, combined with spasm of the buccal muscles producing “locked jaws”, has led to the false diagnosis of “tetanus”. Because patient can’t open the mouth widely, the physician may be unable to see the abscess but may feel the swelling by inserting a finger into the mouth
A

Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy)

320
Q
  • Uvula is enlarged, pendulous and semi translucent
  • Enlarge uvula frequently produces a shallow, irritating cough, which is worse at night when the recumbent position allows the uvula to touch the base of the tongue
A

Inflammation of the pharynx or fauces

321
Q

• Uvular pulsation synchronous with the heart beat (described by Muller, 1971)

A

Aortic insufficiency

322
Q
  • Produces creamy patches that reveal a raw, bleeding surface when the patch is scraped off
  • Prone to occur in patients who are receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics or immunosuppressive therapy
A

Moniliasis

323
Q

Characteristically produces hoarseness, and a high-pitched, musical, or brassy cough

A

Involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerves

324
Q

Macular brown-black areas, most marked at gingiva in individuals with dark skin pigmentation

A

Normal

325
Q

Macular brown areas on buccal mucosa, skin pigmentation present

A

Addison’s disease

326
Q

Macular lesions about lips and buccal mucosa

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

327
Q

Gray-black stippling at gingival margins

A

Heavy metal poisoning

328
Q

Hx of lead, bismuth, or mercury exposure; dental amalgam(silver) patches under mucosa, blue-black

A

Amalgam tattoo

329
Q

Brown-gray mucosal spots, usually with “bronzing” of the skin

A

Hemochromatosis

330
Q

Brown macules on mucosa or tongue, precocious puberty, fibrous bone

A

Albright syndrome

331
Q

Red-purple macule or papule, may be part of widespread angiomatosis (Osler-Weber-Rendu disease

A

Hemangioma

332
Q

Solitary brown macule or papule

A

Nevus

333
Q

Solitary brown macule or papule, erythema, may ulcerate

A

Melanoma

334
Q

Pain; thick white patches (leave bleeding ulcerated area if removed)

A

Candidiasis

335
Q

Discomfort, Translucence

A

Secondary Syphilis

336
Q

Pain in mucosa, palate, oropharynx, history of oral sexual contact

A

Gonorrhea

337
Q

Pain at dental margins. inflammation, loss of interdental papillae

A

Fusospirochetosis

338
Q

Pain, friable surface, inflammation, ulceration due to chemicals, heat, or mechanical or electrical injuries

A

Trauma

339
Q

Discomfort; multiple gray-white papules that may vesiculate and ulcerate; may precede skin lesions

A

Lichen planus

340
Q

Raised plaque, fissuring, some erythema, pain not present with early lesions; usually occurs in heavy smokers

A

Leukoplakia

341
Q

Raised plaque, fissuring, ulceration; usually occurs in heavy smokers and alcohol drinkers

A

Carcinoma

342
Q

Painful “cold sores” of lips, mouth, and gingiva

A

Herpes virus

343
Q

Herpangina, eruption in pharynx posteriorly

A

Cocksackie virus

344
Q

Usually involves buccal mucosa with erythema

A

Drug reaction

345
Q

Painful, lips also involved, skin lesions usually present

A

Erythema multiforme

(Stevens-Johnson syndrome)

346
Q

May precede skin lesions

A

Pemphigus

347
Q

One to three painful, round, shallow lesions; no induration

A

Aphthous stomatitis

348
Q

Usually single lesion, causes moderate discomfort, indurated, of moderate depth, on gums, tongue, or mucosa

A

Tuberculosis or histoplasmosis

349
Q

Painless, solitary, round, deep, indurated

A

Syphilis chancre

350
Q

May be multiple, causes moderate discomfort, deep, of varying size, usually little induration

A

Granulocytopenia

351
Q

Painful, irregular, usually singular, minimal induration

A

Trauma

352
Q

Minimal pain early, of variable size and shape, marked induration

A

Carcinoma