Block 2B Exam Flashcards
(337 cards)
1
Q
ID cell type
A
elastic cartilage (with perichondirum)
2
Q
Lipid droplet
A
energy store/source of lipids - may be used in steroid hormone formation. not enclosed by a membrane
3
Q
Series Elastic component (SEC)
A
connect contractile proteins to the bone- remain stretched out so there’s a delay in transmission of force from cross bridges to muscle surface
4
Q
where do osteoclasts come from?
A
hematopoetic stem cell lineage - share ancestor with monocyte/macrophage
5
Q
hemicholinium
A
blocks the choline transporter causing the nerve ending to be depleted of Ach
6
Q
What is this?
A
Medullary cords and sinuses
7
Q
1
A
euchromatin
8
Q
monocilia
A
nonmotile promary cilia
chemosensors, osmosensors, mechanosensors - essential for normal tissue morphogenesis during embryogenesis; located at the primitive node
9
Q
botulinum toxin
A
causes blocking of muscarinic receptors/prevents release of Ach causing flaccid paralysis (skeletal muscle weakness)
10
Q
zonula occludens (tight junction)
A
located apically in the lateral domain - encircles the cell and is a narrow region where the PM of each cell comes together to seal off intracellular space (not a continuous seal though)
regulates the selective passage of substances (blood brain barrier)
11
Q
is the nicotinic Ach receptor ligand gated or voltage gated?
A
LIGAND!!
12
Q
indian hedgehog (IHH)
A
produced by prehypertrophic and early hypertrophic chondrocytes – stimulates secretion of PTH-RP and regulates formation of periosteal bone collar
13
Q
clonidine
A
alpha2 agonist treats high blood pressure, ADHD, withdrawal in addicts
14
Q
desmolase
A
enzyme that cleaves the side chain of cholesterol, located in the mitochondria. first step of steroid hormone synthesis
15
Q
proteins that associate with intermediate filaments in cytoplasm of cells; are a part of desmosomes
A
plakoglobin and plakophilin
16
Q
sample size is determined by:
A
- desired magnitude of difference you wish to detect 2. alpha level desired (Type I error rate) 3. beta level desired (type II error rate)
17
Q
what supports a microvillus?
A
actin
18
Q
smooth muscle comes from
A
splanchnic mesoderm
19
Q
cross linking of actin filaments in the microvilli is called the __________
A
terminal web
20
Q
alpha level
A
probability that investigator is willing to accept there is a difference when no difference exists (false positive)
21
Q
power
A
probability of detecting a difference when a true difference does exist
22
Q
synchondrosis
A
bones united by hyaline cartilage for very little movement (ex epiphyseal plates and costal cartaliges connecting ribs to sternum)
23
Q
organophosphate poisoning would do the following:
A
DUMBBELS
diarrhea
urination
miosis
bronchospasm
bradycardia
excitation of CNS
lacrimation
sweat/salivation
24
Q
alpha actinin
A
main protein that attaches actin to Z line
25
first order elimination
concentration dependent - there is a certain amount of drug eliminated per unit time, proportional to the amount of drug in the body
26
important protein in focal adhesion
integrins: major TM protein that transmit signals to the interior of cells where they have effects
27
hassals corpuscules
ERCs (keratinized) that secrete interleukins for T cell maturation
28
sarcolemma
plasma membrane+basal lamina
29
Lamin function
Support the nucleus and maintain its shape; coats the inner surface of the nuclear membrane (the nuclear lamina)
30
propranolol
nonselctive beta antagonist; used in HTN, prophylactic migraine treatment, stage fright, thyroid storm. causes local Na channel blockade
31
thrombasthenia
platelets lack integrain aIIbb3-fibrinogen binding site
32
calsequestrin
storage protein in the terminal cisternae of sarcoplasm
33
prothrombin time
reflection of extrinsic pathway – used to monitor vitamin K antagonists
34
albuterol
beta2 agonist treats asthma
35
multilocar adipocyte
(brown)
fetal life/first decade after birth; serves to regenerate heat rather than storage
36
sheets of membrane stacked adjacent to each other with fluid or matrix in between is called
lamellar
37
edema
pathophysiological condition of reduced albumin
38
What is the diff between white and red pulp in the spleen?
* White: central artery, PALS and nodules – contains lymphocytes
* Red: splenic sinuses and cords
39
What type of CT contains tons of fibers but less cells/ground substance?
Dense CT
40
pyridostigmine
AchE inhibitor used in long term MG treatment
41
#4
white pulp
42
if OR \>1
there is a positive association (risk is greater in exposed by \_\_\_x)
43
von willebrand
binds collagen on one side and platelet on the other
44
inverse agonist
binds to inactive conformational state of the receptor inhibiting function so much that is reverses the activity of the receptor
45
hyalauronic acid
part of the ground substance of CT
important in development, major component of cartilage
46
atenolol
beta1 antagonist, decreases CO and BP
47
ID cell type
fibrocartilage
48
volkmans canals
transverse/oblique canals that connect hasversian systems with one another from the blood coming from the periostium
49
Amphetamines inhibit what?
MAO and VMAT
50
thrombin
converts fibrinogen to fibrin (key component in clotting cascade)
51
nominal variable
characteristic measured as unordered categories (blood type, male/female, type of cancer)
52
hypertrophic chondrocytes secrete type ___ collagen and \_\_\_\_\_
type X collagen
VEGF
53
epinephrine contstricts
vascular smooth muscle (alpha1 receptors)
54
Eion Nernst equation
E=-61/z x log (Cin/Cout)
55
4 steps of EC couling process
* 1. Generation of AP in muscle and depolarization of T tubule
* 2. Release of Ca from SR
* 3. Binding of Ca to TnC and initiation of cross bridge cycling
* 4. Resequestration of Ca into SR
56
a fluid containing sac or cavity is a
cisternae
57
mast cell
nucleus in center and has lots of IgE receptors. cytoplasm is filled with dense basophilic secretory granules containing heparin, histamine, etc.
58
orthosteric
site that interacts with endogenous ligand
59
case report
anecdotal report of interesting observations (unusual cluster of symptoms, departure of normal disease pattern)
60
Where does glycogen get made in cells?
SER
61
ionotropic receptor
neurotransmitter receptor is part of one of the ion channel protein subunits itself
62
allow for direct electrical and chemical communication between cells; ensure molecules don't leak into intercellular space
gap junction
63
4 types of tissue
1. epithelia
2. connective tissue
3. muscle
4. nerve
64
the minimum potential that can cause an axon to reach current
rheobase
65
varenicline
partial nicotinic agonist; stimulates enough dopamine relief to relieve nicotine craving (for smokers trying to quit)
66
plakoglobin
interacts directly with intracellular of cadherins and also binds to desmoplakin and plakophillin; important in intercalated discs
67
albuterol
beta2 agonist that dilates the bronchioles and arterioles in the lungs for asthma and bronchospasms
68
the signal for neurotransmitter release is
calcium
69
paracellular transport occurs across the \_\_\_\_\_\_
zonula occludens
70
IV discs, pubic symphysis, and menisci of knee are
fibrocartilage
71
length constant
distance where the voltage is only 37% of that at x=0
72
desmosine and isodesmosine
2 uncommon AAs in elastin responsible for cross linking elastic fibers; enable their stretch and recoil like rubber bands
73
epitope
region od antigen that reacts with antibody
74
what is spherical, basophillic, contains rRNA and proteins?
nucleolus
75
transcription factor of skeletal muscle
MyoD
76
what induces osteoclast formation and activation?
RANK and RANK-L
77
where is muscle creatine kinase located in the sarcomere?
M line
78
the most common cell in CT
fibroblasts
79
carvedilol
nonselective beta antagonist and alpha1 antagonist used in CHF management. causes vasodilation by increasing NO production
80
PAM
left shift in dose response curve
81
diapedesis
migration of inflammatory cells from the circulation to sites of action in CT
82
sudan black is used to stain \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
lipids (myelinated axons)
83
ecologic study
evaluations of associations between exposure and outcomes in populations, not in individuals. usually based on existing population data (ex. high fat diet linked to breast cancer?)
84
physostigmine
AchE inhibitor treats glaucoma, alzheimers
85
dense bodies
contain a variety of plaque proteins where thin filaments are attached to
86
thrombin time
tells if fibrinogen is defective
87
OPG (osteoprotegrin)
produced by osteoblasts as a decoy receptor. the ratio of RANKL/OPG is proportional to number of osteoclasts (more RANKL, more OCs, more OPG, less OCs)
88
what does someone with fatal organophosphate poisoning die from?
respiratory failure
89
metoprolol
beta1 antagonist, decreases CO and BP
90
type IIa muscle fibers
moderately fast contraction time, fairly high resistance to fatigue
91
electrolytes
substances that dissolve into cations and anions when dissolved in water
92
The image on the left is normal bone. The image on the right is?
Osteoporosis
93
the membrane current (in unmyelinated cells) is carried by what ion?
K+
94
What is a yellow brown pigment that accumulates in aging cells? (circled in yellow)
Lipofusion
95
microtubules (cilia) are arranged in ____ pattern
9+2
96
myasthenia gravis
body makes antibodies to receptors of Ach --\> weak muscle contraction/droopy eyelids
97
zonula adherens
(anchoring junction): proides cell-cell attachment by linking the actin cytoskeleton of adjacent cells. important in creating structural integrity of the epithelium
98
99
three ways to deactivate a neurotransmitter
1. reuptake
2. degradation
3. autoreceptors
100
Na conc outside of cell
142 mM
101
period prevalence
number of people who have had disease at any time during the specific time interval
102
type IIb muscle fibers
very fast contraction time, low resistance to fatigue
103
for neurovascular coupling (linked to blood brain barrier), regulation of intracellular fluid in brain. Provides neurons with neurotransmitters and energy – take uip glucose from the blood and convert to glycogen . break back down to lactate when necessary then the neuron can use it
astrocyte
104
closely packed finger like projections of plasma membrane that increase SA of cell
microvilli
105
intrinsic activity
the ability of a drug to induce a response upon binding the receptor
106
cross sectional study
snapshots of health of specific population at one point in time
107
point prevalence
prevalence of disease at one point in time
108
unilocular adipocyte
(white, common)
large lipid droplet surrounded by cytoplasm ring - nucleus flattened to the periphery. secretes retiuclar fibers that surround adipocyte
109
ratio variable
possible values limited only by precision of measurement, 0 has real meaning, negative values invalid (height, weight, cholesterol, BP)
110
claudin and occludin are important proteins in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
tight junctions
they attach to ZO proteins then to the actin filament - also communicate with the cytoskeleton of the cell
111
IQR
Q3-Q1
112
Ca conc outside of cell
1 mM
113
agglutinin
naturally occuring antibodies produced in response to the agglutinogens not present in your blood
114
Dosing rate
CL x TC
115
transference equation
Em=Ektk+ENatNA
116
#1
epithelial reticular cell
117
ID cell type
lymphocyte
118
z value equation
value - mean / SD
119
what does Vmat do?
puts catecholamines into vesicles - need ATP to pump in because needs a proton gradient to pump H out catecholamine in
120
PTH-RP
produced by chondrocytes, tells cells to proliferate
121
sonic hedgehog (shh)
secreted GF that binds PTC receptor on cell membrane. Involved in neural tube/motor neurons, organizing limb axis formation, and development of lung and pancreas
122
most local anesthetics block ____ to prevent an AP?
Na conductance
123
the RER stains intensely with _____ dyes
basophilic
124
pH outside of cell
7.4
125
Which organelle has the following functions?
1. post translational modification of proteins
2. condensation and packing of proteins into membrane bound gradules
3. synthesis of lipoproteins
4. processing of acid hydrolases
5. formation of acrosome in sperm
6. sorting of proteins
Golgi
126
what is a very fine type III collagen fiber that forms a 3D network; supoprts hematopoetic and lymphoid organs?
reticular fibers
127
ID cell type
mast cell
128
costal cartilage is what type of cartilage?
hyaline cartilage
129
positive selection in the thymus
selects cells that can bind to MHC, removes cells that cant be recognized. Self or foreign antigen/TCR necessary
130
interval variable
equal distance between values but 0 point is arbitrary (IQ, quality of life)
131
junctions that break down and form again - important in migration and wound healing
focal adhesions
132
what type of dyes do mitochondria stain well with?
acidophilic
133
Loading dose
Css x Vd
134
hemicholinium
blocks choline uptake
135
proteins directly involved in fusion of presynaptic vesicles with presynaptic plasma membrane
SNAREs
136
atropine
cholinergic antagonist - more potent on the heart, intestine, and bronchial smooth muscle. used as weak CNS stimulant followed by more prolonged sedation. dry salivary secretions can increase body temp (atropine fever). causes mydriasis, cycloplegia, reduced lacrimal secretion, and dry eyes. low doses can cause bradycardia, high doses can cause tachycardia REVERSES ORGANOPHOSPHATE POISONING
137
scopolamine
cholinergic antagonist used to prevent motion sickness (but has potent effects on the eye). high doses can cause delirium, mental confusion and memory loss
138
neostigmine
AchE inhibtor used to treat MG; only symptoms treated
139
What is this and where is it found?
Polyribosome
Found in cytosol or on RER membranes
140
blood thymus barrier
ERCs and macrophages, a thickened capillary wall and peribascular CT to prevent thymocyte contact with antigens
141
clearance (CL)
rate that body eliminates drug - related to the functional capacity of the liver and kidney
142
glanzman's thrombasthenia
platelet disorder where absent or defective fibrinogen receptor on platelets in the Ca binding domain – prolonged bleeding from minor wounds. Dec platelet count, abnormal clot retention
143
what type of collagen is in the reticular lamina
type III colagen
144
Homeobox (hox)
DNA sequene within genes involved in morphogenesis (Hox genes)
145
thrombocytosis
higher than normal platelet count
146
isotonic contraction
muscle develops force and shortens (afterload)
147
Neostigmine
AchE inhibitor improves muscle tonie/after anesthesia to reduce effects of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants
148
isoproterenol
nonselective beta agonist; vasodilation, relaxation, bronchodilation
149
what is this and how do u know
microvilli
has a cap - only in microvilli!
150
NAM
right shift in dose response curve
151
allows proliferation of muscle to continue without differentiation
Pax7
152
3 types of cells specialized for protein secretion
1. pancreatic acinar cell
2. hepatocyte
3. plasma cell (secretes antibodies)
153
fasia adherens
atatches actin filament to Z line
154
diff between medullary cords and sinuses?
* Cords: lymphocytes, macrophages, APCs, reticular cells
* Sinuses: processes from macrophages and reticular cells, slow moving lymph, transformed (cancer) cells
155
law of electroneutrality
the positive charge that entered the cella as Na current must either:
1. leave the cell
2. be balanced by the entry of negative charge
\*ENa and EK can't be changed so gNa and gK and Em change\*
156
binary variable
only 2 possibilities exist (present/absent, alive/dead, yes/no, male/female)
157
Why is the AP in an axon in one direction?
Because the membrane already excited is in its refractory period - Na channels are inactivated so can't reopen!
158
collagen in basal lamina
type IV and VII
159
zero order elimination
constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time, independent of concentration
160
syndesmosis
joined by areas of dense CT or fibrocartilage with limited movement (pubic symphysis or IV disc)
161
what is net flux?
directly proportional to the concentration difference
162
opsonization
labeling something with antibodies to tell the body to get rid of it
163
where are nicotinic receptors found?
adrenal medulla skeletal muscle sympathetic ganglia parasympathetic ganglia NMJ (motor end plates)
164
osmolarity outside of cell
290 millimol/L
165
what blocks reuptake of DAT, SERT, and NET?
cocaine
166
hemotoxylin
the most common basophillic stain
167
SER function
functions in the uptake and release of calcium in muscle cells. essential in cardiac and skeletal muscle. occurs in steroid secreting cells; enzymes found in making steroid hormones are located in SER membrane and the enzymes in liver cells involved in making/breaking down glycogen
168
person time
how long someone experienced something for
169
what proteins link cadherins (transmembrane proteins) to actin filaments of the cytoskeleton?
catenins, vinculin, and alpha actinin
170
potency
dose needed to gain a specific response
171
if OR \<1
there is a negative association (risk is less in exposed population; subtract answer from 1)
172
the minimum stimulus time that will cause an AP using a current twice the rheobase current is called the
chronaxie
173
ID cell type
plasma cell
174
cytoplasm has the tendency to draw water into the cell (thru osmosis). why dont cells burst from too much water?
Na/K ATP pump! Uses ATP, but pumping Na out makes water leave too to draw water out
175
cleidocranial dysplasia
mutation in Runx2 - autosomal dominant
causes absence of clavicles, teeth abnormalities, scoliosis, short
176
What type of tissue is this?
dense lymphatic tissue \*lymphatic nodule\*
177
propranolol
nonselective beta antagonist treats HTN
178
ficks first law of diffusion
J=D x (deltaC / deltaX)
J=flux (flow per unit area)
D=diffusion coefficient
deltaC=change in concentration
deltaX=membrane thickness
179
main TM protein in desmosomes
desmoglien
180
thrombophilia
deficiency of protein C or factor V leiden - increased risk of clotting/DVT/PE
181
syntosis
bones united by bone tissue – no movement (cranial sutures)
182
twitch contraction phases
1. **Latent** period: before onset of contraction due to excitation/contraction coupling
2. **Contraction** phase: tension developing due to cross bridge cycling
3. **Relaxation** phase: tension is decreasing and is longer than the contraction phase – due to the time it takest to get all the Ca sequestered
183
a collection of proteins in the cytoplasm that recognize ubiquitin
proteosome
184
transcription factor for osteoblast diff
Runx9
185
prevalence equation
incidence rate x duration
186
collagen in dermis, tendon, bone, fibrocartilage
type I
187
steady state
when amount of drug absorbed = amount of drug eliminated
188
ecologic fallacy
making causal inferences about individual phenomena based on group observations
189
burden of proof lies on those who would reject the
null
190
odds ratio
number of ways the event can occur to the number of ways it cannot = AD/BC
191
transcription factor required for expression of cartilage specific ECM
Sox9
192
#2
heterochromatin
193
ID structure in blue
SER
194
triad is at ____ line in cardiac and ___ line in skeletal
Z line in cardiac
AI line in skelatal
195
connexon
6 connexin monomers - link up to form an intercellular channel. high Ca or low pH closes the channel
196
a sheath of dense CT surrounding most cartilage is the
perichondrium
contains vasculature, nerves, lymph vessels
197
#2
T cell (very basophilic so stains dark blue)
198
tamsulosin
alpha1 antagonist smooth muscle relaxation in bladder and pancreas (used to treat BPH)
199
efficacy
maximum effect of a drug (height of dose response curve)
200
plasma cells
make single class of antibodies in response to antigen; has wheel nucleus
201
an amorphous coat of glycoprotein above the microvilli
glycocalyx
202
von willebrand's disease
adhesion of platelets to vessels is defective
203
which equation quantitates osmotic pressure across a membrane?
vant hoff equation (delta pi =nRT delta C)
204
case control study
select subjectes with outcome/disease of interest versus amount without disease/outcome to determine exposure of all subjects
205
the base of the cilia is called the
basal body
206
catenin
structural protein in zonula adherens, transcription factor
207
when the frequency of Aps is high enough to prevent any relaxation of contraction between Aps and the force – is a sustained contraction (not a twitch)
tetanus
208
Gi
adenylyl cyclase inhibition
209
type II error
(beta error) (false negative) in favor of alternative but not enough data to reject null/not statistically significant
210
ohms law
i=g(Em-Eion)
i=ionic current
211
Gq
PLC activation
212
sclerotome
forms the axial skeleton (comes from somite)
213
mortality rate is good reflection of incidence when:
1. case fatality rate is high 2. disease duration is short
214
mortality
number of deaths that occur during a specific period of time in a population at risk for dying
215
limbs are specified by what 3 factors?
retanoic acid, fgf, hox
216
reflection coefficient (sigma) is 1. what does this mean?
membrane is absolutely impermeable to the solute
217
asymmetricla structures anchoring the basal domians of an epithelial cell to the underlying basal lamina; important in skin
hemidesmosome
218
basal lamina
made of 1. lamina lucida and 2. lamina densa
felt like ECM made of proteins (laminin, collagen, glycoproteins, proteoglycans)
structurally important in epithelial cells, compartmentaliztion of CT, tissue scaffolding
219
carbachol
nicotinic and muscarinic agonist, causes pupillary constriction (also treats glaucoma). can cause excessive salivation (like pilocarpine) - want to get rid of the aqueous humor creating pressure in the eye
220
volume of distribution (Vd)
body volume that drug can distribute within - related to the amount of drug in the body and concentration of drug in the blood/plasma
221
prazosin
alpha1 antagonist; dilates arteries/veins to decrease peripheral resistance and BP (use in HTN/CHF and in PTSD). can lead to first dose syncope
222
growth that results from mitotic division of pre existing chondrocytes within the cartilage matrix is called
interstitial growth (ex. growth plate)
223
activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)
test for intrinsic pathway
224
ID cell type
eosinophil
225
how are plasma and serum different?
serum is plasma without the clotting factors
(take blood in glass tube, let it clot then spit it down --\> serum)
(take blood in glass tube and spin it down before it clots --\> plasma)
226
synaptic delay
time necessary for presynaptic depolarization to produce postsynaptic conductance – due to process of **vesicle fusion** and **neurotransmitter release** – *not due to time for diffusion across 15 nm synaptic cleft*
227
M1, M3, and M5 are coupled to
Gq
228
What is the tissue in the center of this image?
diffuse lymphatic tissue
229
high extracellular K does what?
makes the cell less excitable
* depolarizes cells
* inactivates Na channels
* activates some K channels
230
secondary active transport
use energy available in the gradient of electrochemical potential across the membrane (usually Na gradient)
231
aIIB beta3
* a fibrinogen receptor, necessary for formation of platelet plug
232
cadherins are important in _______ and depend on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
zonula adherens
calcium
\*they are transmembrane proteins in ZA
233
what attaches the basal lamina to the underlying CT?
anchoring fibrils (type VII collagen) - binds basal lamina to reticular lamina
234
difference in electrical potential (voltage diff) between the outside and inside of cell
resting membrane potential
235
how big is an RBC
7-8 micrometers
236
ID cell type
neutrophil
237
ID cell type
elastic cartilage (can see lacunae - spaces were occupied by live cells at one point)
238
Osteogenesis imperfecta
type I collagen mutation (mutation in glycines in collagen so bad triple helix) – tons of fractures
239
ordinal variable
characteristic measured as ordered categories ex. stage of cancer response to treatment (complete, partial...) opinions on questionnaires (disagree, somewhat disagree...)
240
transcytose
done by M cells in peyers patches
endocytose antigen from the intestinal lumen, exocytose it to the peyers patch
241
ion trapping
drug has to be unionized state to cross membrane
242
Max firing rate of a neuron (in Hz)
(1000 ms)/(absolute refractory period)
243
statistic
estimates of parameters derived from samples
244
case fatality rate
the proportion of people diagnosed as having disease who died during a specific period of time after diagnosis
245
time constant
time at which it reaches 63% of the final voltage
246
ID cell type
basophil
247
pilocarpine
muscarinic agonist - treats xerostomia (dry mouth) and glaucoma contracts ciliary muscles and causes outflow of aqueous humor --\> blurring of vision because pupils don't dilate when they need to also causes mouth secretions
248
type I error
(alpha error) (false positive) probability of concluding difference when the null is true
249
initial concentration equation
dose/Vd
250
primary active transport
uses ATP as energy source
251
M2 and M4 are coupled to
Gi
252
Kp equation
solubiltiy in oil / solubility in water
253
phenylephrine
alpha1 agonist nasal decongestant/vasoconstriction
254
ID cell type
hyaline cartilage (with perichondrium)
255
the wave of depolarizaiton or hyperpolarization which moves thru the cell with a graded potential is known as
local current flow
256
osteopetrosis (marble bone disease, albers-schonberg disease)
genetic disorder caused by mutations that make osteoclasts ineffective so decreased bone resorption - increased fractures, anemia., cranial nerve deficits (blind/deaf)
257
endomytosis
mitotic division without cell divison --\> process in megakaryocyte development
258
petechiae
small red/purple bruises resulting from platelet injury to blood capillaries due to mechanical stress/inflammation
259
ID cell type
macrophage
260
makes blood nerve barrier
perineurium
261
#2
trabeculae
262
kartageners syndrome
structural abnormalty that results in absence of dyenin arms --\> dysfunctional cilia --\> respiratory diseases (like bronchitis)
263
case series
cluster of observations in short period or small area (new epidemic of known disease or new disease)
264
length of muscle prior to contraction
preload
important in isometric contraction
265
ID cell type
monocyte
266
neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)
neutrophils extrude their NA which trap pathogens to kill and clear them. Also release free histones into the blood which is bad - can cause sepsis sometimes due to v strong positive charge
267
pralidoxime
(putting a lid on toxic spray) reverses organophosphate poisoning by regenerating AchE at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors reversing cholinergic toxicity, inducing flaccid paralysis
268
diapedesis
process by which WBC leave blood by mirating between epithelial lining of capillaries to enter CT - increases during inflammation
269
IgA
binds to epithelial cells and protects mucosa – prevents pathogens from adghering to mucosal surfaces
passive immunity in neonates!
270
do B or T cells form nodules?
B CELLS!!!!
271
ID cell type
neutrophil
272
K conc outside of cell
4 mM
273
zellweger's syndrome
proteins never make it to the peroxisome so they are empty; leads to build up of LCFA in skeletal muscle and brain --\> hypotonia --\> lethal
274
isometric contraction
length doesn’t change – muscle develops a preload but isn’t allowed to shorten (imagine picking up a 500 lb dumbbell)
275
tonicity
the concentration of particles outside the cell that can't cross the membrane (isotonic, hypertonic, hypotonic)
276
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ causes Na channel to be activated more easily? (will modulate excitability)
low extracellular Ca
277
g conductance equation
1/resistance
278
osmotic pressure
the minimum amount of pressure needed to be applied to a solution to prevent the inward flow of water across a semipermeable membrane
279
half life equation
(0.7 x Vd) / CL
280
3 steps of hemostasis
* 1. VASCULAR SPASM: BV constrict when damaged
* 2. PLATELET PLUG FORMATION
* a. platelet adhesion to exposed collagen
* b. platelet release reaction (attracts more platelets by releasing TX A2) – promotes vasoconstriction
* c. platelet aggregation à platelet plug. Blocks blood loss in small vessels (not as effective in large vessels)
* 3. COAGULATION
* gel formation (clotting) in blood traps formed elements
281
prevalence
number of existing cases of disease in a population at one point in time during a period of time = (number of existing cases)/(total number of people in population)
282
2 flavors of guanylyl cyclase
1. integral part of receptor, activated by binding 2. cytoplasmic form, activated by NO
283
epinephrine
alpha2 agonist vasoconstrictor in local anesthesia
284
differentiation of chrondrocytes from the perichondrium is called
appositional growth
285
Wnt
regulate cell cell interactions during embryogenesis – binds to frizzled and LRP to eventually faciliatate transcription
286
physostigmine
AchE inhibitor with central effects (crosses the blood brain barrier); used to treate atropine OD (phys ed teacher carrying away atropine boy)
287
collagen in hyaline cartilage, IV disc
type II
288
clusters of cells that come from the same progenitor cell s are called
isogenous groups
289
natural killer cells
non-specific lymphocytes coated with antobideis that release perforins/granzymes (induce apoptosis)
part of innate immunity
290
what links the cytoskeleton to the ECM
integrins
291
Maintenance dose
CL x TC x time
292
desmosome
(macula adherens)
specialized structure for cell-cell adhesion; form very strong attachments. protein complexes are attaached to intermediate filaments
293
bethanechol
cholinomimetic used to treat nonobstructive GI disorders inactive/nonobstructed bladder/bowel
294
295
M-CSF
stimulates early commitment to osteoclast lineage
296
four zones of endochondral bone formation
1. resting zone
2. proliferating zone
3. hypertrophic zone
4. ossification
297
H conc outside of cell
40 nM
298
Gs
adenylyl cyclase stimulation
299
negative selection in the thymus
removes strongly self reactive T cells
300
Tropicamide
antimuscarinic drug used for pupillary dilation - can see the back of the eye
301
the receptor for the stretch reflex to adjust muscle tone is in the
neuromuscular spindle
302
What is this?
High endothelial venules - can see lymphocytes squeezing out of blood stream into the parenchyma of lymph node
(duh)
303
graded potentials
depolarizations/hyperpolarizations whose strength is proportional to the strength of the triggering event, they are not action potentials!
can be summated spatially and temporally!
304
diad
in cardiac muscle cells - t tubule and sarcoplasmic reticulum
305
Cl conc outside of cell
105 mM
306
ID type of cells
chondrocytes
307
pralidoxome
undoes covalent bond between organophosphate and cholingergic receptor
308
phenylephrine in the eye
can treat uveitis/wide angle glaucoma (pupillary dilation but no cycloplegia, which is loss of accomodation due to ciliary muscle paralysis)
309
timolol
nonselective beta antagonist used for HTN, can also lead to sedation
310
Factor XIIIa
cross links fibrin network to form very strong secondary clot held together by covalent bonds
311
integral membrane proteins in gap junctions
connexin
312
#3
Red pulp
313
thrombomodulin
alters substrate specific of thrombin so it doesn’t cleave factors; instead it cleaves and activates protein C to activated protein C
314
if OR = 1
there is no association (risk exposed=unexposed)
315
type I muscle fibers
slow contraction time, high resistance to fatigue
316
The arrow is pointing to what?
enlarged hassal's corpuscules (thymus)
317
Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP)
genetic disorder of ectopic bone formation – mutation encoding BMP type I receptor causing endochondral ossification in skeletal muscle, tendons, ligaments triggered by trauma
318
mesenchymal stem cells give rise to four types of cells. what are they?
1. chondrocytes
2. osteoblasts
3. myoblasts
4. adipocytes
319
IgG
binds to macrophages and neutrophils to activate phagocytosis and complement cytotoxic response
320
stereocilia
long non-motile apical specialization (structurally similar to microvilli) that faciltate absorption
in ear, very sensitive to mechanical vibrations
321
paramer
fixed characteristic of a given population
322
complement system
part of innate immunity
fixing antibodies to pathogens - 20 plasma proteins made by the liver that circulate in the plasma. faciliate lysis of bacteria, oposnization, and bringing phagocytes to site of reaction
323
incidence
number of new cases of disease that occur in a specific time in population at risk of developing the disease =(number of new cases)/ number of persons at risk
324
what type of cells make tartrate resistant acid phosphatases (TRAP)?
osteoclasts
325
p value
measures how consistent data are with null compared to alternative; smaller p value = stronger evidence against null in favor of alternative. measures actual probability of detecting a difference if the groups are the same
326
what type of connective tissue is loosely arranged, contains tons of cells/ground substance and fewer fibers?
loose CT
327
-stigmine
AchE inhibitors - increase Ach receptors at NMJ endplates to increase strength of contractions
328
reticular fibers cotains type ___ collagen
III
329
osteomalacia/rickets
defective vitamin D intake/metabolism
330
edrophonium
AchE inhibitor that transiently reverses MG symptoms; useful diagnostic tool to see cholingeric crisis if being overtreated, edro can't fix if being undertreated, will reverse muscle weakness
331
The einstein relationship
the displacement of a molecule is a function of time.
1. the distance is nonlinear
2. doubling time doesnt double distance, only increases by sq root of 2
means that diffusion is fast over short distances
332
#1
capsule
333
Yellow arrow is pointing to
serous cell
in the salivary gland, secretes watery/thin fluid (as opposed to mucous cell)
334
Type of tissue?
stratified squamous keratinized
335
ID tissue type
dense irregular CT
336
ID tissue type
Dense regular CT
337
