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RF UR > Block 3 > Flashcards

Block 3 Flashcards

(114 cards)

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1
Q

What does COMSEC do?

A

Prevents unauthorized access to sensitive info via encryption and decryption

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2
Q

The process of converting unsecure information into a disguised form is?

A

Encryption

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3
Q

The process of recovering original intelligence is?

A

Decryption

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4
Q

Who is the US crypto leader that creates signals intel (SIGINT) and information assurance (IA) products?

A

NSA

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5
Q

How many types of crypto devices are there?

A
  1. Types 1-4
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6
Q

Which crypto devices are approved by the NSA?

A

Types 1-3

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7
Q

Crypto device type ____ deals with classified or sensitive US govt info and contains NSA approved algorithms that protect systems requiring the most stringent protection mechanisms.

A

Type 1

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8
Q

Crypto device type ____ deals with national security information and was developed using established NSA business processes containing NSA-approved algorithms exceeding best commercial practices.

A

Type 2

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9
Q

Crypto device type ____ deals with unclassified sensitive US govt or commercial info and was developed using established commercial standards and contains NIST-approved algorithms.

A

Type 3

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10
Q

Crypto device type ____ deals with unevaluated commercial encryption that isn’t for govt use and contains either vendor proprietary algorithms, algorithms registered in by NIST, or algorithms registered by NIST and published in a federal information processing standard (FIPS).

A

Type 4

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11
Q

What are the four encryption methods?

A

Voice, data, trunk (bulk) and manual

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12
Q

What forms of voice communications can utilize voice encryption?

A

All forms (radio, telephone and internet protocol (IP))

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13
Q

What are the three common secure voice IPs?

A
  • Voice over secure (VoSIP)
  • Secure voice over IP (SVoIP)
  • Secure voice over secure IP (SVoSIP)
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14
Q

What is the distinct difference between the voice over IP (VoIP) encryptions?

A

Whether you apply encryption in the phone, the network or both

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15
Q

What are the two types of data encryption?

A

Symmetric key (secret key) and asymmetric key (public-key)

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16
Q

What is symmetric key (secret-key) data encryption?

A

Data encryption method that uses identical key copies

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17
Q

What is asymmetric key (public-key) data encryption?

A

Data encryption method that uses two different keys (public key and private key)

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18
Q

What is based on a secret key data encryption system, that consists of 64 binary digits and is considered unsecure today?

A

Data encryption standard (DES)

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19
Q

What uses a three step data encryption process that utilizes one DES key per step and decrypts by reversing the process?

A

Triple data encryption standard (3DES)

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20
Q

What replaced 3DES and utilizes 128, 192 and 256 bit key-lengths?

A

Advanced encryption standard (AES)

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21
Q

What converts multiplexed signals into one data stream that requires a very fast encryption system?

A

Trunk (bulk) encryption

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22
Q

What is a piece of hardware that is free of codes that once a piece of equipment has keys loaded, it assumes the position of the highest loaded key?

A

Controlled cryptographic item (CCI)

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23
Q

What is a device found in most newer radios that needs the encryption (key) loaded from a fill device?

A

Internal encryption device

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24
Q

What are three examples of an external encryption device?

A
  • KY-57
  • KY-99
  • KIV-7M
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25
What are the characteristics of the KY-57 external decryption device?
- Used with VHF and UHF radios - VINSON (wideband) encryption - Holds up to six crypto keys - Can receive a fill from a PYQ-10, KIK-30 or OTAR
26
What are the characteristics of the KY-99 external decryption device?
- Used with HF, VHF and UHF radios - VINSON (wideband) or ANDVT (narrowband) encryption - Holds up to six crypto keys - Can receive a fill from a PYQ-10, KIK-30 or OTAR
27
What are the characteristics of the KIV-7M external decryption device?
- Used with digital and voice communications - Requires at least one traffic encryption key (TEK) - Requires removable crypto ignition key (CIK) - Holds up to 10 crypto keys - Commercial off the shelf
28
What are three examples of encryption fill devices?
PYQ-10, KIK-30 and KVL-3000+
29
____ is an encryption fill device that is also known as the simple key loader (SKL), that receives/stores/transfers crypto keys.
PYQ-10
30
____ is an encryption fill device that is also known as the really simple key loader (RASKL) and stores up to 40 crypto keys.
KIK-30
31
____ is an encryption fill device that is also known as key variable loader (KVL) that loads crypto keys into land mobile radios (LMRs) and stores up to 1024 crypto keys.
KVL-3000+
32
What are the components of the AN/PRC-113 man-pack config?
- RT-1319 - Battery case - Dual VHF/UHF antenna - Handset or headset
33
What are the components of the AN/TRC-176 transportable or rack mounted config?
- RT-1319 - Radio set control (remote) - Audio amplifier - Chassis assembly - Dual VHF/UHF antenna - Handset or headset
34
What are the components of the AN/VRC-83 high-powered vehicle mounted config?
- RT-1319 - Radio set control (remote) - Audio amplifier - Chassis assembly - RF amplifier (30 watts) - Dual VHF/UHF antenna - Handset or headset
35
What is the method of transmitting radio signals by rapidly switching a carrier among many frequency channels using a pseudorandom sequence known to both transmitter and receiver?
Frequency hopping
36
What are the three main advantages of spread spectrum communications over a fixed frequency transmission?
- Highly resistant to interference - Provides protection against jamming - Difficult to intercept
37
Frequency hopping operations are secure (T/F)
False
38
Basic Anti-Jam (AJ) or Single Word of Day (SWOD)
Have Quick I (HQI)
39
Advanced Anti-Jam or Multiple Word of Day (MWOD)
Have Quick II (HQII)
40
What are the three things required to operate Have Quick?
- Time of Day (TOD) - Word of Day (WOD) - Net Number
41
What synchronizes each radio during using have quick radios?
Time of day (TOD)
42
How can TOD be received?
- GPS - Hard-Wire connection (HWT) - RF from another radio (OTAR)
43
How can TOD be emergency started?
By pressing the 3 and ENT key
44
What programs the frequency hopping pattern and rate?
Word of day (WOD)
45
WOD uses how many codes and for how many days?
Up to 6 frequency hopping codes (elements) per | day and can store up to 6 days of codes
46
What is the entry point in frequency hopping network and allows for multiple radio networks using common TOD and WOD?
Net number
47
What is the ability for a radio to receive two transmissions at the same time?
Conferencing
48
When conferencing what allows for the second frequency to be received?
The second received signal is shifted down 25 KHz below the original transmit frequency
49
Conferencing can only be used while in what mode of operation?
Active HQ mode
50
Which have quick operational mode code places the radio into preset load mode (LP)?
220.000
51
Which have quick operational mode code places the radio into MWOD load mode (LC)?
220.025
52
Which have quick operational mode code erases all MWOD codes?
220.050
53
Which have quick operational mode code places the radio into frequency management training (FMT) load mode
220.075
54
What are the two types of HQ nets?
Training and operational nets
55
What is the hq net that is also known as frequency management training (FMT) and has conferencing automatically enabled?
Training nets
56
HQ I training net has how many preprogrammed freqs?
5 freqs
57
HQ II training net has how many preprogrammed freqs?
16 freqs
58
What type of radio has 1,000 possible net numbers and SWODS do not expire?
HQ I SWOD
59
What type of radio has 3,000 possible net numbers and each WOD is good for 24 hours?
HQ II MWOD
60
Most radios are HQ II (T/F)
True
61
JTIDS/MIDS, SINCGARS and PRC-117G are examples of what?
Frequency hopping systems
62
What are the radio operations ABCs?
Accuracy, brevity and clarity
63
What assigns a unique word to each letter and number?
Phonetic alphabet
64
What conveys information in condensed form?
Procedure words
65
What is the process of combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device to produce a third?
Heterodyning
66
What are the properties of a heterodyned frequency?
It has the two original input frequencies | as well as the sum and difference of these two signals
67
What is the frequency to which a carrier frequency is shifted up or down as a step in the transmission or reception process?
Intermediate Frequency
68
What is created by heterodyning the carrier signal with an injection frequency?
Intermediate Frequency
69
What is a frequency very close to the operating frequency that, if heterodyned in the mixer, will produce the proper intermediate frequency (IF)?
Adjacent Channel
70
What is an undesired input frequency relatively distant from the operating frequency that, if heterodyned in the mixer, will produce the proper IF?
Image Frequency
71
What is the ability of a receiver to select the desired frequency or a band of frequencies and reject all others?
Selectivity
72
The wider the bandwidth, the less selectivity (T/F)
True
73
What is the ability of a receiver to respond to a weak signal through background noise, to produce a specified output signal?
Sensitivity
74
What determines the sensitivity of a receiver?
S+N/N test
75
What is a test that compares the level of the desired output signal to the noise generated by the receiver?
S+N/N test
76
What varies the gain of the receiver, with varying received signal input levels, to maintain a constant audio output level?
Automatic gain control (AGC)
77
Without AGC, the audio would get louder and quieter | with varying received RF inputs (T/F)
True
78
What monitors the received signal level and quiets, or mutes, the receiver when there is very little or no received signal?
Squelch
79
What maintains a constant audio signal strength in order to | prevent over-modulation?
Compression
80
What maintains the output power from the transmitter at a constant level by taking a sample of the RF signal after it leaves the RF power amplifier?
Automatic level control (ALC)
81
During reception incoming signals from the antenna are routed through the transmitter which contains a reflectometer and the transmit-receive (T-R) switch (T/F)
True
82
After leaving the T/R relay, the signal is routed through the ____ before entering the ____.
Guard receiver; main receiver
83
During reception incoming frequency is mixed with an ____from the ____ to create an intermediate frequency.
Injection frequency from the synthesizer
84
Where is the transmission circuitry conratined?
Modulator and transmitter
85
What amplifies and filters the signal and applies it to the antenna?
Transmitter
86
What provides keyboard decoding, LCD display control, mode control for all functions of the RT, and synthesizer frequency control?
Data converter
87
What alerts the operator if the source of voltage drops too low?
The display via the data converter
88
What supplies all dc voltages required by the RT?
Power regulator assembly
89
The source voltage may be derived from either an | AC/DC power supply or a battery pack (T/F)
True
90
What four regulated voltages does the RT use?
+6.3 Vdc +12 Vdc -13.5 Vdc -29 Vdc
91
The RT-1319/B is divided into how many sections?
8
92
A9
Power switch assembly
93
A7
Power regulator assembly
94
A4
Main receiver
95
A5
Guard receiver assembly
96
A3
Modulator assembly
97
A6
Synthesizer assembly
98
A2
Transmitter assembly
99
A1
Data converter assembly
100
What are a few troubleshooting techniques?
– Visual Inspection – Six-step Process – Serial Method – Half-split Method – Trouble Analysis Diagrams
101
What is performed before the beginning of any trouble | analysis?
Visual inspection
102
What two steps are done during a visual inspection?
- Inspect the radio for any damage (burned, broken, loose, or missing components) - Verify the correct status settings (switches, controls, indicators)
103
What are the steps of the six step process?
- Verify the complaint - Determine the related systems - Analyze the symptoms - Isolate the problem - Correct the problem - Check for proper operation
104
What is the troubleshooting technique where you start from the beginning, work your way through the circuit?
Serial Method
105
The serial method is effective but time consuming if the problem is at the end of the circuit (T/F)
True
106
What is the most effective troubleshooting technique?
Half-split method
107
Scheduled preventive maintenance is a primary | job for most RF Transmission Systems technicians (T/F)
True
108
What detects malfunctions or misalignments before they become a serious problem and create an outage?
Preventive maintenance inspection (PMI)
109
What alignment aligns the guard receiver’s squelch | potentiometer to T.O. specifications?
Guard squelch
110
What controls the acceptance threshold of a weak receive signal on a guard frequency and it set to open with 6 microvolts or less input power to RT?
Guard squelch (R72)
111
What is set to 87% ± 7.5% to ensure the correct amount of power is attainted in the sidebands and carrier for a non distorted signal?
Modulation (R139)
112
What is set to 2.25 Vrms audio output power to the handset connector to provide operator audio feedback?
Sidetone (R100)
113
What may reveal issues in the radio | system that need resolving?
Scheduled PMIs
114
As technicians, you will diagnose various faults with | the symptoms presented and fix the issue (T/F)
True

RF UR (11 decks)

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