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Vet Prep Structure Function > Block 4 > Flashcards

Block 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The airways are used for airway conduction. Which of the following structures are associated with the airways?
a) Nasal cavities
b) Pharynx
c) Larynx
d) Trachea and bronchial tree
e) all of the above

A

e) all of the above

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2
Q

What organ is responsible for gas exchange?

A

Lungs

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3
Q

What is the associated structure to the lungs that assist in gas exchange?
a) Bronchioles
b) Capillaries
c) Pleural sacs

A

c) Pleural sacs

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4
Q

What is the structure located midline between the external nares?
a) Alar fold
b) Nostril
c) Nose pad
d) Philtrum

A

d) Philtrum

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5
Q

Caudal ventral passage from the nasal cavity into the pharynx

A

Choana

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6
Q

What number on the picture correlates with the ventral nasal concha?

A

2 - Ventral nasal concha

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7
Q

What number correlates on the picture with the dorsal nasal concha?

A

3 - Dorsal nasal concha

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8
Q

The olfactory mucosa is responsible for sense of smell. It is located on the ethmoconchae. What number correlates to that structure?

A

4) Ethmoconchae

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9
Q

What number correlates with the hard palate?

A

6 - Hard palate

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10
Q

What number correlates with the vomer (resected)?

A

7 - Vomer

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11
Q

Cavities in bones of the skull that communicate with the nasal cavities

A

Paranasal sinuses

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12
Q

What is the landmark for the entrance to maxillary recess?

A

Carnassial tooth

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13
Q

What are the names of structures on the image?

A

Top - Frontal sinus
Bottom - Maxillary recess

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14
Q

The pharynx is the crossroad between what?

A

Respiratory and digestive ways

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15
Q

What structure is placed ventrally to the soft palate?

A

Oropharynx

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16
Q

What is the oral limit of the oropharynx?

A

Palatoglossal arches

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17
Q

What is the major caudal limit of the oropharynx?

A

Base of epiglottis

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18
Q

What structure is placed dorsally to the soft palate?

A

Nasopharynx

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19
Q

What is the oral limit of the nasopharynx?

A

Choanae

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20
Q

What is the major caudal limit of the nasopharynx?

A

Free border of soft palate

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21
Q

What structure is placed dorsally to the larynx?

A

Laryngopharynx

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22
Q

What is the major oral limit of the laryngopharynx?

A

Free border of the soft palate

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23
Q

What is the caudal limit of the laryngopharynx?

A

Pharyngoesophageal limen

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24
Q

What are the three divisions of the pharynx?

A

Oropharynx
Nasopharynx
Laryngopharynx

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25
Q

What structure is responsible for coughing, phonation, and preventing food aspiration?

A

Larynx

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26
Q

Ventral to the pharynx, suspended by the hyoid apparatus and attached to the trachea. What structure is described?

A

Larnyx

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27
Q

What are the 4 cartilages that make up the larynx? Which one is paired?

A

Epiglottis
Thyroid
Arytenoid - PAIRED
Cricoid

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28
Q

What is the most narrow segment of the larynx which can be closed?

A

Glottis

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29
Q

Vocal folds and part of the arytenoid cartilages

A

Glottis

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30
Q

Space defined by the glottis

A

Rima glottidis

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31
Q

Located on the sagittal plane at the ventral aspect of the neck and centrally in the thoracic cavity

A

Trachea

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32
Q

Gas exchange occurs in the _________ where O2 and CO2 traverse the air-blood barrier

A

Alveoli

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33
Q

The left lung is divided into what lobes?

A

Cranial - which is further divided in cranial and caudal parts
Caudal lobe

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34
Q

What are the right lung lobes?

A

Cranial lobe
Middle lobe
Caudal lobe
Accessory lobe

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35
Q

The main circulation of lungs is divided into the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary veins. Which structure is responsible for drainage?

A

Pulmonary veins

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36
Q

The pulmonary trunk is further divided into 2 pulmonary arteries who’s main purpose is what?

A

Supply

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37
Q

Each lung is pushed into a closed invaginated sac filled with a bit of fluid called what?

A

Pleural cavity

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38
Q

What pleura adhere to the surface of the lung? What number on the diagram correlates with this structure?

A

4 - Visceral or pulmonary pleura

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39
Q

What pleura adhere to the inner wall of the thorax? What number correlates with this structure?

A

1, 2, 3 - Parietal pleura

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40
Q

What is the role of the pleura and pleural cavities?

A

To prevent surface of the lungs from rubbing against thoracic wall during breathing (think “engine oil”)

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41
Q

What label marks the location of the olfactory mucosa?

A

4 - olfactory mucosa

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42
Q

Normal, quiet breathing

A

Eupnea

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43
Q

Increased breathing depth, frequency or both

A

Hyperpnea

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44
Q

Rapid, shallow breathing (ie panting)

A

Polypnea

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45
Q

O2 consumption and CO2 production vary with the ________ metabolism and metabolic rate

A

Basal

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46
Q

The metabolism rate of the resting animal, and is a function of metabolic body weight

A

Basal metabolism

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47
Q

Metabolic rate is dependent on the animals level of ______ and ______ _________

A

Metabolic rate is dependent on the animals level of activity and physical condition

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48
Q

VO2 max is ______ related to the total mass of _______ within the skeletal muscles

A

VO2 max is directly related to the total mass of mitochondria within the skeletal muscles

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49
Q

True or False
Gas exchange occurs in the conducting zone/anatomic dead space. Explain answer.

A

FALSE
Gas exchange does NOT occur in these pathways.
Conducting zone brings air into and out of the respiratory zone FOR gas exchange but does not OCCUR there.

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50
Q

What structure is important to humidify, warm and filter the air before it reaches the gas exchange area?

A

Conducting Zone

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51
Q

What 7 structures are included in the conducting zone?

A

Nasal cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles

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52
Q

The conducting zone, made up of the tracheobronchial tree, contain mucus secreting and ciliated cells which allow for what?

A

Filtering of small particles that enter the airway. They are swept upward by the rhythmic beating of the cilia.

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53
Q

The walls of the conducting airways contain smooth muscle and innervation of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. In the case of the sympathetic system, what is the purpose of epinephrine?

A

It dilates the airways making it easier to breathe in flight/fight

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54
Q

The walls of the conducting airways contain smooth muscle and innervation of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. In the case of the parasympathetic system, what is the purpose of Acetylcholine?

A

It constricts the airways to allow rest/digest

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55
Q

In what zone does gas exchange occur?

A

Respiratory zone

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56
Q

The respiratory zone includes what structures?

A

Respiratory bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
Alveolar sacs

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57
Q

Thin walled, pouch like evaginations of the walls of the respiratory bronchioles, alevolar ducts, and sacs that provide more surface area and are covered by capillaries

A

Alveoli

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58
Q

In the respiratory zone, the alveolar walls contain 2 types of _________ cells. What are they?

A

Epithelial; Pneumonocytes and macrophages

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59
Q

What type of pneumonocyte covers 95% of the alveolar surface? (It is extremely thin, efficient for gas exchange between the alveolus and pulmonary capillaries.)

A

Type 1 pneumonocyte

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60
Q

This pneumonocyte synthesizes pulmonary surfactant to reduce surface tension of alveoli and prevent it from collapsing.

A

Type II Pneumonocyte

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61
Q

What pneumonocyte secretes cytokines?

A

Type II pneumonocyte

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62
Q

First line of defense against invading respiratory pathogens and remove inhaled particles from the alveolus.

A

Macrophages

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63
Q

What respiratory structures DO NOT have cilia?

A

Alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs

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64
Q

What part of the respiratory contain cartilage?
a) Trachea
b) Bronchi
c) Bronchioles
d) Alevoli
e) a and b
f) all of the above

A

e) a and b

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65
Q

What respiratory structure contains no smooth muscle, cilia or cartilage?

A

Alveolar sacs

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66
Q

Respiration consists of 4 distinct processes:

A
  1. Pulmonary ventilation
  2. Pulmonary gas exchange
  3. Gas transport
  4. Peripheral gas exchange
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67
Q

What two structures promote pulmonary ventilation?

A

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

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68
Q

Pulmonary gas exchange is diffusion of gases from the ________ to the ________ of the pulmonary capillaries

A

Pulmonary gas exchange is diffusion of gases from the alveoli to the blood of the pulmonary capillaries

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69
Q

Peripheral gas exchange is diffusion of ______ from the ______ of the _______ ________ to the cells.

A

Peripheral gas exchange is diffusion of gases from the blood of the Systemic capillaries to the cells.

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70
Q

Respiratory pressure is always described relative to ________ _______

A

Respiratory pressure is always described relative to atmospheric pressure

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71
Q

Inhalation requires active contraction of what structures?
a) Diaphragm
b) External intercostal muscles
c) Abductor muscles attached to external nares, pharynx and larynx
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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72
Q

Inhalation _______ intrapulmonary volume and _______ pressure (air inhaled)
(blanks: increase or decrease?)

A

Inhalation increases intrapulmonary volume and decreases pressure (air inhaled)

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73
Q

Exhalation _______ intrapulmonary volume and _______ pressure (air exhaled)
(blanks: increase or decrease?)

A

Exhalation decreases intrapulmonary volume and increases pressure (air exhaled)

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74
Q

In inhalation the diaphragm __________ and moves down. In Exhalation, the diaphragm _______ and moves up.

A

In inhalation the diaphragm contracts and moves down. In exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves up.

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75
Q

What is the major nonelastic source of resistance to airflow

A

Frictional resistance

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76
Q

Resistance is determined primarily by the ______ of the airways.

A

Resistance is determined primarily by the radius of the airways

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77
Q

Compliance is determined by what 2 main factors?

A

Distensibility and surface tension of the alveoli

78
Q

True or False
Surfactanct helps increase the surface tension to keep alveoli from collapsing

A

FALSE
Surfactant reduces the surface tension and helps keep the alveoli from collapsing

79
Q

True or False
The high velocity turbulent airflow in the trachea and bronchi produces the lung sounds heard through a stethoscope.
Low velocity flow in bronchioles produce NO sound.

A

True

80
Q

Pulmonary arteries carry _______ blood from the ______ ventricle to the pulmonary ________ where it becomes ______ and returns to the left side of the heart in pulmonary ______

A

Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary capillaries where it becomes oxygenated and returns to the left side of the heart in pulmonary veins

81
Q

What circulation provides a nutritional blood supply to airways and other structures within the lungs?

A

Bronchial circulation

82
Q

Bronchial arteries carry _______ blood and veins carry ______ blood

A

Bronchial arteries carry oxygenated blood and veins carry deoxygenated blood

83
Q

In bipedal animals, pulmonary circulation is _______ dependent, meaning blood flows _______ at the bottom of the lungs and ______ at the top of the lungs.

A

In bipedal animals, pulmonary circulation is gravity dependent, meaning blood flows highest at the bottom of the lungs and lowest at the top of the lungs

84
Q

In quadruped animals, blood flow is distributed to the __________ region of the lungs

A

caudodorsal

85
Q

The ability to regulate blood flow depends on the presence of _______ _______ in the walls of small pulmonary arteries

A

The ability to regulate blood flow depends on the presence of smooth muscle in the walls of small pulmonary arteries

86
Q

Pulmonary veins have _____ walls and they conduct oxygenated blood from pulmonary capillaries to the ______ ______

A

Pulmonary veins have thin walls and they conduct oxygenated blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium

87
Q

Blood within the pulmonary veins serves as a reservoir for blood for the ______ heart.

A

Blood within the pulmonary veins serves as a reservoir for blood for the left heart

88
Q

True or False
Gas exchange can NOT occur if an alveolus receives blood but no ventilation or vice verse. (Ventilation-perfusion mismatch)

A

True

89
Q

Which of the following are reasons for uneven ventilation?
a) Pulmonary edema
b) Airway obstruction
c) Recumbency
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

90
Q

Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction of small pulmonary arteries is beneficial when there is localized _______ hypoxia to reduce the pulmonary shunt

A

Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction of small pulmonary arteries is beneficial when there is localized alveolar hypoxia to reduce the pulmonary shunt

91
Q

Generalized pulmonary hypoxia causes vasoconstriction which can increase pulmonary arterial pressure, this increases the work of the _______ ventricle and leads to ______ sided heart failure.

A

Generalized pulmonary hypoxia causes vasoconstriction with an increase in pulmonary arterial pressure, this increases the work of the right ventricle and leads to right sided heart failure

92
Q

An acid is a proton ______

A

An acid is a proton donor

93
Q

A base is a proton ______

A

A base is a proton acceptor

94
Q

Strong acids dissociate quickly in a solution ______ large amounts of H+

A

Strong acids dissociate quickly in a solution releasing large amounts of H+

95
Q

Strong bases react very quickly with H+ _______ it from a solution.

A

Strong bases react very quickly with H+ releasing it from a solution

96
Q

A weak ______ only partially dissociates in an aqueous solution. A weak _____ does not fully ionize in an aqueous solution.

A

A weak acid only partially dissociates in an aqueous solution.
A weak base does not fully ionize in an aqueous solution

97
Q

True or False
Most of the acids and bases involved in acid-base balance homeostasis are strong

A

FALSE
Most of the acids and bases involved in the acid base balance are WEAK

98
Q

True or False
Difference between activity and concentration of H+ is not significant in body fluids

A

True

99
Q

Acidity is related to ___ concentration

A

Acidity is related to H+ concentration

100
Q

What is the normal extracellular fluid concentration of H+?
a) 40 nEq/L (0.00000004 N)
b) 20 nEq/L
c) 1nm

A

a) 40 nEq/L

101
Q

What is the normal pH Of blood?
a) 7.45
b) 7.2
c) 7.4
d) 7.0

A

c) 7.4 (7.398)

102
Q

True or False
Intracellular pH is slightly higher than blood

A

FALSE it is slightly lower than blood at 7.2

103
Q

Why is hydrogen concentration expressed as a logarithmic function?

A

Because the concentration is VERY low yet powerful

104
Q

True or False
There is an inverse relationship between pH and [H+], therefore the greater the H concentration, the lower the pH

A

True

105
Q

If there is an increase in H+ concentration, there is a decrease in pH in the blood. This is referred to as ________

A

Acidemia

106
Q

If there is a decrease in H+ concentration, there is an increase in pH In the blood. This is referred to as ______

A

Alkalemia

107
Q

Acidemia is the decrease in blood pH below normal limits.
The hydrogen ion concentration is ______ normal limits

A

They hydrogen ion concentration is above normal limits

108
Q

Alkalemia is the increase in blood pH above normal limits.
The hydrogen ion concentration is _____ normal limits

A

The hydrogen ion concentration is below normal limits

109
Q

True or False
pH and [H+] vary linearly with one another

A

False
They vary exponentially

110
Q

A change of one pH unit changes the [H+] by a factor of _____

A

A change in one pH unit changes the [H+] by a factor of ten

ie. a pH of 1 = [H+] of 0.1

111
Q

What is the Law of Mass Action?

A

The velocity of a chemical reaction is proportional to the product of the concentrations of the reactants

112
Q

A buffer solution consists of a _____ acid and its conjugate base.

A

A buffer solution consists of a weak acid and its conjugate base

113
Q

True or False
Buffers irreversibly bind H+ and prevent major changes in pH

A

FALSE
Buffers REVERSIBLY bind H+ and prevent major changes in pH

114
Q

First line of defense to prevent major changes in blood pH

A

Blood buffers

115
Q

What is the Isohydric principle?

A

Multiple buffers in the same solution are always in equilibrium

116
Q

What is the buffer system used to monitor acid-base balance?

A

Bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system

117
Q

What are the physiological buffers?
a) Chemical buffer system
b) Lungs
c) Kidneys
d) B and C
e) all of the above

A

d) B and C

118
Q

What are the three systems that regulate hydrogen ion concentration and pH in body fluids?

A

Chemical buffer system
Lungs
Kidneys

119
Q

What must correct the hydrogen ion load against changes in blood pH?
a) Blood chemical buffer system
b) Lungs and kidneys
c) All of the above

A

b) Lungs and kidneys
While the blood chemical buffer system is the first line of defense against pH change, the lungs and kidneys ultimately correct the H+ load.

120
Q

True or False
The chemical buffers act immediately to prevent changes in pH by adding or removing H+ to restore balance

A

False
The chemical buffers act immediately to prevent changes in pH by keeping them in control until the balance is restored by lungs/kidneys. They do not add or remove H+

121
Q

Most important extracellular buffer in the body - buffers volatile acids (CO2)
a) Bicarbonate Buffer system
b) Phosphate Buffer system
c) Proteins
d) Ammonia buffer system

A

a) Bicarbonate buffer system

122
Q

Important in kidneys and cytoplasm of cells - buffers nonvolatile acids that cannot be eliminated by respiration.
a) Bicarbonate Buffer system
b) Phosphate Buffer system
c) Proteins
d) Ammonia buffer system

A

b) Phosphate Buffer system

123
Q

What protein group functions as weak acids?
a) Amine groups
b) Carboxyl groups
c) Ammonia groups
d) Phosphate groups

A

b) Carboxyl groups

124
Q

What protein group functions as a weak base?
a) Amine groups
b) Carboxyl groups
c) Ammonia groups
d) Phosphate groups

A

a) amine groups

125
Q

Proteins coupled with ________ buffer system and organic phosphates (ATP), can contribute to total body acid-base balance.

A

Proteins coupled with phosphate buffer system and organic phosphates (ATP) can contribute to total body acid-base balance

126
Q

Proteins are plentiful in the body and due to their higher concentration within cells are important for _______ acid-base balance

A

Proteins are plentiful in the body and due to their higher concentration within cells are important for intracellular acid-base balance

127
Q

Hemoglobin have a significant and rapid impact on blood acid-base balance. However, ________ has a higher buffer capacity as it has ______ affinity for H+

A

Hemoglobin have a significant and rapid impact on blood acid-base balance. However deoxyhemoglobin has a higher buffer capacity as it has a higher affinity for H+

128
Q

What are the most important blood buffer systems?

A

Hemoglobin and bicarbonate buffer system

129
Q

Hemoglobin can accommodate protons at 2 positions.
a) basic carboxyl groups
b) imidazole groups of histidine
c) Bond with iron of the heme group
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

130
Q

What makes up 80% of the CO2 transport?

A

Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

131
Q

What is the most important chemical buffer system of the ECF?
a) Phosphate
b) Protein
c) Bicarbonate
d) Ammonia

A

c) Bicarbonate

132
Q

True or False
The components of the bicarbonate buffer system can be independently regulated as they are an open system

A

True

133
Q

True or False
CO2 can be excreted by the lungs but bicarbonate ions and H+ can not be excreted or reabsorbed.

A

False
CO2 can be excreted by the lungs and bicarbonate ions and H+ CAN be excreted or reabsorbed by the kidneys.

134
Q

Carbonic acid is formed from the reaction between ______ and ______ yielding _______. This is an enzyme dependent reaction.

A

Carbonic acid is formed from the reaction between CO2 and H2O yielding H2CO3

135
Q

Bicarbonate is formed by the ________ of H2CO3 to H+ and HCO3.

A

Bicarbonate is formed by the dissociation of H2CO3 to H+ and HCO3

136
Q

The bicarbonate buffer system is a reversible reaction called the _______ reaction

A

The bicarbonate buffer system is a reversible reaction called the hydration reaction.

137
Q

What reaction is favored within erythrocytes?

A

Hydration reaction

138
Q

The enzyme ______ ________ catalyzes the hydration reaction and is especially abundant in RBC’s, walls of alveoli, and epithelial cells of the renal tubules.

A

The enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the hydration reaction and is especially abundant in RBC’s, walls of alveoli, and epithelial cells of the renal tubules

139
Q

In RBC’s not all H+ are buffered, so venous blood has a _____ pH than arterial blood.

A

In RBC’s not all H+ are buffered, so venous blood has a lower pH than arterial blood.

140
Q

What is the weak acid in the phosphate buffer system?

A

Dyhydrogen phosphate (H2PO4-)

141
Q

What is the conjugate base in the phosphate buffer system?

A

Monohydrogen phosphate (HPO4^-2)

142
Q

Name each labeled part and identify ascending colon, transverse colon and descending colon

A

Ascending –> Transverse –> Descending

143
Q

Where is the caudal boundary of the oral cavity?

A

7 - Palatoglossal arch

144
Q

Identify the structures in the image

A

1- vestibule
2- canine tooth
2’- philtrum
3- hard palate
4- soft palate
5- tongue
6- sublingual caruncle
7- palatoglossal arch
8- palatine tonsil
9- franulum

145
Q

What are the two segments of the oral cavity?

A

Oral vestibule and oral cavity proper

146
Q

What are the annexed organs in the mouth?

A

Tongue, salivary glands, and teeth

147
Q

Name the structures in the photo

A

1- Apex
2- body
3- root
4- floor of oropharynx
5- vallate papilla
6- Fungiform
7- Palatoglossal arch
8- Palatine tonsil
9- Epiglottis
10- Frenulum

148
Q

What are the three segments of the tongue

A

Base (root), body, and apex

149
Q

What is the filiform papillae in cats? How is it different than dogs?

A

Keratinized, conical papillae

150
Q

What are the salivary glands in dogs?

A

Parotid, mandibular, sublingual, zygomatic (specific for carnivores)

151
Q

What is the dental formula for canines?

A

3-1-4-2
3-1-4-3

152
Q

What numbers are the canine teeth?

A

104, 204, 304, 404

153
Q

Label the parts of the pharynx

A

Oropharynx is near 2
Laryngopharynx is between 6 and 8
Nasopharynx is by 1

154
Q

What are the three parts of the esophagus in order from highest (nearest the head) to lowest (nearest the chest)

A

Cervical, Thoracic, abdominal

155
Q

What is the longest segment of the small intestine?

A

Jejunem

156
Q

In dogs the ileum opens into what?

A

The ascending colon - ileocolonic orifice

157
Q

What organ is twisted in dogs but small and coma shaped in cats?

A

Cecum

158
Q

How many lobes of the the liver do dogs have?

A

Six

159
Q

Label the six major lobes of the dog liver

A

Right lateral
Right medial
Left lateral
Left medial
Quadrate
Caudate

160
Q

What are the two surfaces of the liver?

A

Parietal surface (in contact with diaphragm) - convex
Visceral surface (in contact w stomach and right kidney) - concave

161
Q

What is the gall bladder located between?

A

Right medial and quadrate lobes of the liver

162
Q

Identify the body of pancreas, left lobe of pancreas and right lobe of pancreas

A

Body is near number 3
Left lobe is near number 5
Right lobe is near number 4

163
Q

What are the two ducts in the pancreas? Which one is inconstant in the dog

A

The pancreatic duct (inconstant in dog)
and accessory pancreatic duct

164
Q

Equine dental formula

A

3-1-3(4)-3
3-1-3-3

165
Q

Cattle dental formula

A

0-0-3-3
3-1-3-3

166
Q

Identify the margo plicatus

A

4

167
Q

Identify right vs left view
Identify compartments

A

1- reticulum
2- omasum
3- abomasum
4- rumen

168
Q

What is considered the “true stomach” in ruminants as it most closely resembles the monogastric stomach?

A

Abomasum

169
Q

Fermentation chamber of ruminant stomachs

A

Rumen

170
Q

The rumen extends from the ______ to the ______ ______

A

The rumen extends from the cardia to the pelvic inlet

171
Q

What structure in the bovine stomach has a honeycomb appearance?

A

Reticular mucosa

172
Q

What chambers are found on the right side of the abdomen in ruminants?

A

The omasum and the abomasum

173
Q

What chambers are found on the left side of the abdomen in ruminants?

A

The rumen and the reticulum

174
Q

What chamber has the greater and lesser curvatures?

A

The omasum

175
Q

Identify which GI tract belongs to which species

A

A- Dog
B- Horse
C- Cattle

176
Q

In horses what is the first segment of the large intestine and where is it located?

A

Cecum, placed on the right side of the abdomen

177
Q

What pancreatic duct do bovines have? What about sheep and goats?

A

Bovine have accessory pancreatic duct
Sheep and goats have pancreatic duct

178
Q

Gram positive bacteria causing lumpy jaw in bovine

A

Actinomycosis (actinomyces bovis)

179
Q

Gram negative bacteria causing wooden tongue in bovine

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

180
Q

A cow presents with an arched back, spontaneous grunting and abducted elbows. What disease is associated with these symptoms?

A

Hardware disease- Traumatic reticulo-peritonitis

181
Q

What can happen if a foreign body migrates cranially in bovine?

A

Clinical signs of CHF
-Brisket edema
-Jugular vein distension
-Muffled heart sounds
-Tachynpnea, tachycardia

182
Q

What diseases are related to the small intestine?

A

Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome
Intussusception

183
Q

Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome can be caused by what?

A

Clostridium Perfringens type A
Aspergillus fumigatus

184
Q

If a bullseye is seen on ultrasound what disease process should be considered?

A

Intussusception

185
Q

How is intussusception treated?

A

Enterectomy to surgically resect the affected intestinal segment

186
Q

Cecal process in which there is distension but no twist

A

Cecal dilation

187
Q

Cecal process in which there is rotation along the long axis

A

Cecal torsion

188
Q

Cecal process in which there is dorsal or ventral dislocation

A

Cecal volvulus

189
Q

If there is dorsal retroflexion what direction is the volvulus?

A

Clockwise

190
Q

If there is ventral retroflexion what direction is the volvulus?

A

Counterclockwise

191
Q

If there is a right ping in the right paralumbar fossa what should our differential be?

A

Simple dilation of the cecum

192
Q

How can you tell if there is torsion or volvulus vs simple dilation?

A

Apex is not palpated if torsion or volvulus is present

Vet Prep Structure Function (5 decks)

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