Final (New content) Flashcards by Sarah Anderson

Which of the following statements correctly describes “Lumpy Jaw”?
a) Actinobacillus
b) Actinomycosis
c) Enlargement of the bone
d) A and C
e) B and C

e) B and C

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What disease in the mouth can be caused by an abrasion/lesion of the oral mucosa?

Actinomycosis - Lumpy Jaw

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A cow presents with a swollen, painful tongue, what is the disease process likely involved?
a) Actinobacillosis
b) Actinomycosis
c) Wooden Tongue
d) A and C
e) B and C

d) A and C

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What is the prognosis for Wooden Tongue (Actinobacillosis) and what does it rely on?

Good prognosis, but only if the tongue is involved, if it has moved to the submandibular LN’s the prognosis turns poor.

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Which of the following accurately describes the treatment for Actinobacillosis?
a) IV sodium iodine
b) Antibiotics
c) Surgical debulking
d) All of the above

d) All of the above

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You show up to a farm call to find a steer extending his neck, hypersalivating and tongue protruding. What would be the first differential?

Esophageal obstruction/Choke

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True or False
Choke occurs frequently in cows and is non-life threatening

False
It is not a frequent occurrence but is life-threatening and intervention must occur immediately

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Which of the following are possible causes for choke?
a) Hardware disease
b) Incomplete mastication
c) Respiratory distress
d) All of the above

b) Incomplete mastication

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Which of the following are clinical signs of hardware disease?
a) Drop in milk production
b) Fever
c) Distension of left paralumbar fossa
d) All of the above

d) all of the above

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Hardware disease is
a) Traumatic Reticulo-peritonitis
b) Traumatic pericarditis
c) LDA
d) Choke

a) Traumatic Reticulo-peritonitis

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What surgical procedure may need to be performed if TRP is the diagnosis?
a) Reticulotomy
b) Rumenotomy
c) Gastric lavage
d) Enterotomy

b) Rumenotomy

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You are called to a farm to assess a cow that is exhibiting signs of TRP. Upon PE you hear muffled heart sounds and tachycardia, you also observe brisket edema and distended jugular veins.
What does this indicate for this cow? What caused this?

Poor prognosis - euthanasia due to traumatic pericarditis, the foreign body moved too far cranially and caused constriction on the heart

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You diagnose LDA in a cow that is showing signs of abdominal distension, and ping auscultated on the left side. You must perform surgery. What is the surgical approach?
a) Left flank approach
b) Right flank approach
c) Pass a gastric tube to relieve the pressure
d) Corkscrew plastic trocar

b) Right flank approach

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What procedure can be performed to avoid recurrence of abomasum displacement?
a) Omentoplasty
b) Omentotomy
c) Omentopexy
d) Rumenectomy

c) Omentopexy

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Which of the following are possible causes for Hemorrhagic Bowel Syndrome?
a) Clostridium perfringens type A
b) Aspergillis fumigatus
c) Clostridium perfringens C and D
d) a and b
e) All of the above

d) a and b

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True or False
Beef cattle are more likely to suffer from Hemorrhagic Bowel Syndrome

False - Dairy cattle are more susceptible

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Extracellular fluid makes up ___% of body weight and includes ______, ______ _____ and ______ ______
Intracellular fluid makes up 40%

Extracellular fluids makes up 20% of body weight and includes plasma, interstitial fluid and transcellular water

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Calcitriol is the active form of Vitamin D which is stimulated by ____ in response to _____

PTH; Hypocalcemia

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Hormone activator, renal regulation of BP and essential part of the RAA system

Renin

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Hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates RBC formation

Erythropoeitin

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What is released when the kidneys sense a decrease in BP?

Renin

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What converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1?

Renin

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Where does angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) convert angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2?

In the lungs

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What causes vasoconstriction resulting in increased BP?
a) angiotensin 1
b) angiotensin 2
c) Aldosterone
d) renin

b) Angiotensin 2

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What stimulates the adrenal glands to release aldosterone?

Angiotensin 2

Within the kidneys, ________ promotes reabsorption of sodium and water

Aldosterone

How does the hormone EPO benefit athletes, giving them unfair advantages?

The EPO increases their RBC's which allows their muscles to work longer and harder without cramping

What is the functional unit of the kidney? a) cortex b) medulla c) nephron d) calyx

c) nephron

What are the two types of nephrons?

Cortical and Juxtamedullary

What nephron has a glomerulus located far from the cortex/medulla junction?

Cortical nephrons

What nephron has a glomerulus located close to the cortex/medulla junction?

Juxtamedullary

True or False Cortical nephrons have short loops of Henle while juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops

True

Calcitriol _______ the absorption of calcium by the intestinal epithelium thereby ________ concentration of calcium in the blood

stimulates; increasing

Efferent arterioles give rise to ____ ____ that descend into the renal medulla

vasa recta

Renal corpuscle, or Malpighian body, is located in the ______ ______ and consists of _______ surrounded by _________ _______

renal cortex; glomerulus; Bowman's capsule

Longest part of the nephron consisting of proximal convoluted tubule and straight part

Proximal tubule

In the loop of Henle, thin ascending limbs are only located where?

Only in nephrons with long loops (i.e. Juxtamedullary nephron)

What filters blood and forms primary urine? a) Glomerulus b) Proximal Tubule c) Thin limbs of Henle's loop d) Collecting ducts

a) Glomerulus

What reabsorbs most filtered solutes? a) Glomerulus b) Proximal Tubule c) Thin limbs of Henle's loop d) Collecting ducts

b) Proximal tubule

What reabsorbs water, Na+ and Cl- a) Glomerulus b) Proximal Tubule c) Thin limbs of Henle's loop d) Collecting ducts

c) Thin limbs of Henle

What reabsorbs Na+, K+ and Cl-? a) Glomerulus b) Collecting ducts c) Distal Convoluted Tubule d) Thick ascending limb

d) Thick ascending limb

What reabsorbs Na+, Cl-, Ca++, Mg++ and regulates acid, bicarb, ammonia and water excretion? a) Glomerulus b) Collecting ducts c) Distal Convoluted Tubule d) Thick ascending limb

c) Distal Convoluted tubule

Regulates acid, bicarb, ammonia, Na+, K+ and water excretion a) Glomerulus b) Collecting ducts c) Distal Convoluted Tubule d) Thick ascending limb

b) Collecting ducts

Which of the follow correctly describes primary urine? a) Accumulates in capsular space b) Ultra filtrate c) Contains same concentration of salt and glucose as plasma d) all of the above

d) all of the above

Which of the following correctly describes tubular fluid? a) Becomes final urine b) Found in Bowman's space c) Ultra filtrate d) All of the above

a) Becomes final urine

True or False Tubular reabsorption recovers most filtered substances

True

Glomerular filterability is based on what three factors?

Molecular weight, Electrical charge and Plasma protein binding

True or False Anionic substances are more easily filtered than cationic

False Cationic substances are more easily filtered than anionic, due to the negative charge of glomerullar basement membrane

Protective mechanism for solutes such as calcium a) Plasma protein binding b) Ultra filtration c) Electrical charge d) None of the above

A) Plasma protein binding

True or False Na+ reabsorption favors movements out of the cells and into the interstitium

False Na+ reabsorption favors movements INTO the cell

Where does the last big water reabsorption take place?

Collecting ducts

If osmolality in plasma is increased which of the following occurs? a) ADH release b) Production of concentrated urine c) Diluted urine production d) All of the above e) A and B

e) A and B

Collecting duct is water permeable and determines ________ of excreted urine

Osmolality

If ADH is absent, the CD is __________ to water, leading to production of ______ urine

Impermeable; diluted

The role of the glomerulus is to a) convert primary filtrate to secondary urine b) Concentrate tubular filtrate c) Filter the blood and form primary urine d) dilute tubular filtrate

c) Filter the blood and form primary urine

A dog is deficient in ADH. The dog's urine will be a) highly concentrated w/ small production b) Very dilute and large volume produced c) Same concentration as plasma d) Very dilute but small production

b) very dilute w/ large production

The kidneys are attached to the ceiling of the abdominal cavity and are covered by ______ on the ventral aspect

Peritoneum

Which of the following is NOT a primary role of kidneys a) Produce blood b) Filter plasma c) Synthesize renin and erythropoeitin d) all of the above are correct

a) Produce blood b and c are correct

Identify A, B and C

A - Renal pelvis B - Fat in Renal Sinus C - Contour of a renal pyramid

What structures are within the medulla?

Renal pyramids and renal crest

Renal pelvis collects urine from the _______ _______ and then goes to the _______

Renal pelvis collects urine from the *renal crest* and then goes to the *ureter*

Name the indicated structures Is this image the ventral or dorsal view of the bladder?

A - Ureteral orifice B - Urethral muscle C - Urethra Ventral bladder

List the urinary bladder layers in order

Adventitia (outer) Detrusor (middle) Mucosa (inner layer)

What layer of the bladder is smooth muscle and under involuntary control?

Detrusor muscle layer

What layer of the bladder as impermeable lining (urothelium) and has no reasborption or excretion process?

Mucosa layer

Which of the following is true of the female versus male urethra? a) Female has only a pelvic segment b) Males have 2 segments (penile and pelvic) c) Both are correct

C) Both are correct

Identify the following structures: Ovaries Uterine tubes Uterus Cervix Vagina Vestibule Vulva

Ovaries - 4 Uterine tube - 5 Uterus - 6 Cervix - 7 Vagina - 8 Vestibule - 10 Vulva - 12

What are the three zones of the placenta?

Transfer zone Pigmented zone Nonvascular zone

What structure combines reproductive and urinary functions in the female?

Vestibule

Which of the following is true of the uterine tube: a) Also known as Salpinx or fallopian tube b) Catches the oocyte after ovulation c) Is the site of fertlization d) all of the above

d) all of the above

The urine is drained into the urinary bladder directly by the _______ a) Renal pelvis b) Urethra c) Ureters d) Uterus

c) Ureters

The ventral commissure of the vulva includes what two structures? a) Labium and fossa clitoridis b) Fossa clitoridis and clitoris c) Urethral orifice and labium d) Vestibule and vestibular bulb

b) Fossa clitoridis and clitoris

True or False Mammary glands are modified sweat glands responsible for lactation

True

Choose the correct statement regarding the uterus: a) Its myometrium contains maturing follicles b) It is the site of fertilization c) It is wrapped in serous membrane called endometrium d) It is Y shaped in bitches e) The uterine tubes are part of it

d) It is Y shaped in bitches

What pathophysiology correlates specifically with pre-renal AKI? a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys b) Damage to any section of the kidney: glomeruli, tubules, interstitium or veseels c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction d) Abrupt damage to renal parenchyma resulting in reduced kidney function

a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys

What pathophysiology correlates with intrinsic renal AKI? a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys b) Damage to any section of the kidney: glomeruli, tubules, interstitium or veseels c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction d) Abrupt damage to renal parenchyma resulting in reduced kidney function

b) Damage to any section of the kidney

What pathophysiology correlates specifically to post-renal AKI? a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys b) Damage to any section of the kidney: glomeruli, tubules, interstitium or veseels c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction d) Abrupt damage to renal parenchyma resulting in reduced kidney function

c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction

What category of AKI are reversible provided compromised renal perfusion is corrected before onset of ischemic nephron damage? a) Pre-renal b) Intrinsic renal c) Post-renal d) A and b e) B and C f) A and C

f) A and C

Which of the following correlate with causes for pre-renal AKI? a) Dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDS b) Ischemia, toxins, infectious, immune mediated, neoplasia c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, urethral strictures d) all of the above

a) dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDs

Which of the following correlate with intrinsic renal AKI? a) Dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDS b) Ischemia, toxins, infectious, immune mediated, neoplasia c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, urethral strictures d) all of the above

b) ischemia, toxins, infectious immune mediated, neoplasia

Which of the following correlate with post-renal AKI? a) Dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDS b) Ischemia, toxins, infectious, immune mediated, neoplasia c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, urethral strictures d) all of the above

c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, strictures

True or False Pre-renal and post-renal can coincide with intrinsic injury

True

If a patient is hydrated (or dehydrated) but remains azotemic with impaired ability to concentrate or dilute urine what is true? a) The patient is suffering from post-renal AKI b) The patient is suffering from combination intrinsic w/ possible superimposed pre-renal azotemia c) The patient is suffering Pre-renal AKI d) The patient is suffering from intrinsic renal AKI

d) Instrinsic renal AKI

If azotemia resolves but the patient can't concentrate or dilute urine appropriately, what is the likely cause? a) Pre-renal azotemia superimposed on inability to concentrate urine b) Post-renal AKI c) Instrinsic renal AKI d) All of the above

a) Pre-renal superimposed on inability to concentrate urine

What are the 4 phases of AKI in order? a) Extension, Maintenance, Initiation, Recovery b) Initiation, Extension, Maintenance, Recovery c) Initiation, Maintenance, Recovery, Extension d) Recovery, Maintenance, Initiation, Extension

B) Initiation Extension Maintenance Recovery

In what phase of AKI is renal insult and damage occur?

Phase 1 - initiation

During what phase of AKI is there localized ischemia, inflammation, cell apoptosis/necrosis?

Phase 2 - Extension Phase

During what phase of AKI do renal tubules repair and heal if the basement membrane is intact?

Phase 4 - Recovery

What portions of the kidney are particularly vulnerable to ischemia?

Nephrons within renal medulla (prox. convoluted tubule and thick ascending loop of Henle)

Where does the scrotum develop? a) Cranial pole of kidney b) Caudal pole of kidney c) Dorsal aspect of kidney d) Ventral aspect of kidney

b) Caudal pole of kidney

What is the outer most scrotal layer? a) Spermatic fascia b) Tunica albuginea c) Skin and dartos d) Epidiymis

c) Skin and dartos

Identify the following: Corpus spongiosum Corpus cavernosum Pars longa glandis Os penis Bulbus glandis

What is the main erectile tissue in male animals? a) Corpus spongiosum b) Corpus cavernosum c) Bulbospongiosus d) Retractor penis

b) Corpus cavernosum

This tissue makes up the glands of the penis and surrounds the urethra

Corpus spongiosum

True or False Erection is brought about by the relaxation of the os penis muscle and erectile tissues filling with blood

False Erection is brought about by relaxation of the *retractor penis* muscle and the erectile tissues filling with blood

What type of penis has large amounts of erectile tissue and engorges and grows in length? a) Musculocavernous b) Fibroelastic c) Both of the above d) None of the above

a) Musculocavernous

What type of penis does not change in girth but has perceived growth in length when flooded with blood? a) Musculocavernous b) Fibroelastic c) Both of the above d) None of the above

b) Fibroelastic

What species have a musculocavernous penis? a) bulls, boars, rams b) stallion, dogs, humans

b) stallion, dogs and humans

What species have fibroelastic penis? a) bulls, boars, rams b) stallion, dogs, humans

a) bulls, boars and rams

What type of penis contains a sigmoid flexure?

Fibroelastic

Which of the following is a correct statement: a) The external lamina is separate from the internal lamina b) The internal lamina terminates at the fornix and becomes continuous with the skin of the glans c) The Internal and external lamina are continuous of each other d) All of the above e) Multiple options are correct

e) b and c are correct

What is the fibrous capsule that is deep to the vaginal tunic?

Tunica albuginea

Be able to identify: Tunica albuginea Skin and Dartos Spermatic fascia Parietal vaginal tunic Vaginal cavity Visceral vaginal tunic

Where do sperm enter the epididymis from the testes? a) head b) body c) tail

a) head

What portion of the epididymis is continuous with the ductus deferens? a) head b) body c) tail

c) tail

Which of the following statements is true of the ductus deferens? a) Continue from tail of epididymis b) Enter abdominal cavity as part of spermatic cord c) Cross lateral aspect of urinary bladder into the pelvic urethra d) all of the above

d) all of the above

What is responsible for the production of seminal plasma? a) testes b) Prostate gland c) Epididymis d) Urethra

b) Prostate gland

Which of the following is not responsible for production of seminal plasma? a) Prostate gland b) Ampulla c) Vesicular and bublourethral glands d) Sperm

d) Sperm

Most distal aspect of the penis in a dog, consisting of bulbous glandis and pars long glandis as well as the os penis a) Root b) body c) Glans d) Bulbus glandis

c) Glans

Identify: Pars Longa Glandis Bulbous glandis Os penis Glans penis

True or False Sympathetic nervous system inhibits erection, while the parasympathetic nervous system stimulates erection

True

What is the function of seminal plasma?

Assist with support and delivery of sperm

What is the only accessory gland in the dog? a) Testes b) Prostate c) Os penis d) Bulbo glandis

b) Prostate

Common disease seen in intact dogs over 5 years old, resulting in an enlarged prostate

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

What are the bilateral structures within the scrotum? a) Testes b) Epididymis c) Bublourethral gland d) A and B e) All of the above

d) A and B

Where does the final maturation and storage of sperm occur? a) Testes b) Scrotum c) Epididymis d) Ductus deferens

c) Epididymis

Which of the following does not assist in thermoregulation of the testis? a) Cremaster muscle b) Dartos muscle c) Pampiniform plexus d) All of the above assist with thermoregulation

d) All of the above assist with thermoregulation

Network of veins that surround the testicular artery associated with the spermatic cord that exchanges and carries warm arterial blood away from testes a) Cremaster muscle b) Pampiniform Plexus c) Dartos muscle d) Epididymis

b) Pampiniform plexus

Functional units of testes for sperm production

Seminiferous tubules

What are the behavioral signs of estrus in mares?

Frequent urination and clitoral winking

Which of the following is a function of the cervix? a) Prevents ascending contaminants b) Sperm transport c) Passage for AI d) All of the above

d) All of the above

The follicle is the main source of _______ and the corpus luteum is the main source of _______

Estrogen; Progesterone

Regression of corpora lutea (luteolysis) at the end of diestrus results in ________ progesterone production and return to ____ in some species

Decreased; estrus

What hormone terminates luteal function in non-pregnant horses and cattle? a) Prostaglandin F2a b) Progesterone c) Estradiol d) Estrogen

a) Prostaglandin F2a

In non pregnant dogs and cats which of the following is true? a) No luteolytic mechanism b) Regression of corpus luteum c) Regression of CL happens over duration of diestrus comparable to duration of gestation d) All of the above

d) all of the above

A mare who has never produced offspring is called: a) Nulliparous b) Primiparous c) Multparous d) Monotocous

a) Nulliparous

An animal bearing offspring for the first time is termed: a) Monotocous b) Primiparous c) Multiparous d) Monoparous

b) Primiparous

An animal who has previously had multiple offspring is termed: a) Polytocous b) Primiparous c) Multiparous d) Polyparous

c) Multiparous

What structure provides physical support for the reproductive tract and nervous, vascular and lymphatic tissue? a) Broad ligament b) Pimiform plexus c) Uterus d) Gastrula

a) Broad ligament

What portion of the broad ligament supports the ovaries? a) Mesovarium b) Mesosalpinx c) Mesometrium d) Endometrium

a) Mesovarium

What portion of the broad ligament supports the uterine tubes? a) Mesovarium b) Mesosalpinx c) Mesometrium d) Endometrium

b) Mesosalpinx

What portion of the broad ligament supports the uterus? a) Mesovarium b) Mesosalpinx c) Mesometrium d) Endometrium

c) Mesometrium

What term correlates with the feeling of blood flow through enlarged uterine artery a) Fremitus b) Gravid c) Non-gravid d) Tocous

a) Fremitus

Which of the following statements is true of fremitus? a) murmur or roar b) branch of dorsal aorta is palpated c) Associated with gravid uterine horn at 3 months of pregnancy d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Around what time frame can you see shape change of the embryo in a mare? a) Day 16 b) Day 18 c) Day 12 d) Day 24

b) Day 18

At what point of pregnancy can the heart beat be seen in a mare, also considered early embryo stage? a) Day 18 b) Day 36 c) Day 24 d) Day 16

c) Day 24

At what stage of pregnancy can you see a chorionic girdle in a mare? a) Day 24 b) Day 28 c) Day 32 d) Day 36

d) Day 36

True or False Without progesterone from the corpus luteum and placenta, abortion would occur

True It is necessary for development and maintenance of pregnancy

What systems directly regulate gut function? a) Enteric Nervous system b) GI endocrine system c) CNS d) A combination of above

d) A combination - A and B (C INDIRECTLY regulates)

What is the "little brain" within the gut?

Enteric Nervous System

True or False The ENS contains as many neurons as the spinal cord

True

What forms the link between the CNS and ENS in the gut?

Parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

Which of the following statements are correct? a) Parasympathetic stimulate epinephrine while sympathetic stimulates acetylcholine b) Sympathetic stimuli are inhibitory and release epinephrine while parasympathetic stimuli are stimulatory, stimulating acetylcholine c) Both para/symp nervous systems stimulate acetylcholine d) None of the above

b) Sympathetic stimuli are inhibitory and release epinephrine, parasympathetic stimuli are stimulatory, stimulating acetylcholine

What signals overdistention of the gut wall, inflammation and presence of noxious chemicals in the lumen? a) Efferent neurons b) Afferent neurons c) PNS system d) None of the above

b) Afferent (splachnic) neurons

What are the phases of digestion?

Cephalic, Gastric, Intestinal

What phase of ingestion involves olfactory stimulation and acetylcholine release (parasympathetic system)?

Cephalic phase

At what pH does gastric secretion stop and acid secretion reduce?

pH1

What phase of digestion stimulates pancreatic secretion?

Gastric

During what phase of digestion does chyme enter the duodenum?

Intestinal phase

Low pH of chyme stimulates secretion of a) gastrin b) secretin c) CCK d) All of the above

b) secretin although, CCK secretion is also stimulated- but due to the stretch receptors + chyme

Neutralization of acid occurs during what stage of digestion?

Intestinal phase

The anal opening is constricted by two sphincters. Which of the following is true of these sphincters? a) Internal is striated while external is smooth muscle b) Internal is smooth while external is striated c) Recto sphincteric reflex is the relaxation of the internal anal sphincter, followed by peristaltic contractions of the rectum d) More than 1 correct choice

d) More than 1 correct choice b and c are both correct

Ruminant saliva is a... a) bicarbonate-phosphate buffer b) Chemical buffer c) Phosphate buffer d) None of the above

a) bicarbonate-phosphate buffer

The gastric mucosa contain different cell types. What is true of these cell types? a) parietal cells secret Hcl and are stimulated by gastrin and Ach b) Chief cells secrete pepsinogen and are stimulated by Ach and Hcl c) Mucous cells are present d) All of the above

d) all of the above

True or false Surface mucous cells secrete mucin in acidic fluid

False Surface mucous cells secrete mucin in alkaline fluid

True or False Mucous neck cells secrete mucin in an acidic fluid

True

True or False Parietal cells secrete HCl and lipase

False Parietal cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor

True or False Chief cells secrete pepsinogen and lipase

True

True or False Enteroendocrine cells secrete secretin

False They secrete Gastrin

Which of the following is NOT a role of the exocrine pancreas? a) Digests carbs, proteins, lipids b) Bile secretion c) Surface receptors are stimulated by Ach (muscarinic receptors) CCK and secretin d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Bile secretion is stimulated by presence of food in the _____ and is stimulated by the return of ______ ______ to the ______

duodenum; bile acids; liver

Which of the following is not found in bile? a) CCK b) cholesterol c) phospholipids d) bilirubin

a) CCK

What transports blood from the digestive tract to the liver? a) HPA axis b) Hepatic portal system c) Gastric phase d) Intestinal phase

b) hepatic portal system

True or False The hepatic portal system extends from the lower esophagus to the upper anal canal

True

True or False Lymphatic drainage bypasses the liver and enters directly into the blood stream via thoracic duct

True

Where does water absorption occur during the fermentation in the gut? a) Abomasum b) Reticulum c) Omasum d) Rumen

c) omasum

Where does production of VFA and byproducts occur during fermentation in the gut?

Rumen

What are the main VFA's a) acetic acid b) propionic acid c) butyric acid d) all of the above

d) all of the above

Where does majority energy fuel come from in the fermentative process?

From VFA's that have been absorbed through the rumen and transported in the blood to the liver