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Vet Prep Structure Function > Final (New content) > Flashcards

Final (New content) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes “Lumpy Jaw”?
a) Actinobacillus
b) Actinomycosis
c) Enlargement of the bone
d) A and C
e) B and C

A

e) B and C

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2
Q

What disease in the mouth can be caused by an abrasion/lesion of the oral mucosa?

A

Actinomycosis - Lumpy Jaw

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3
Q

A cow presents with a swollen, painful tongue, what is the disease process likely involved?
a) Actinobacillosis
b) Actinomycosis
c) Wooden Tongue
d) A and C
e) B and C

A

d) A and C

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4
Q

What is the prognosis for Wooden Tongue (Actinobacillosis) and what does it rely on?

A

Good prognosis, but only if the tongue is involved, if it has moved to the submandibular LN’s the prognosis turns poor.

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5
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the treatment for Actinobacillosis?
a) IV sodium iodine
b) Antibiotics
c) Surgical debulking
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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6
Q

You show up to a farm call to find a steer extending his neck, hypersalivating and tongue protruding. What would be the first differential?

A

Esophageal obstruction/Choke

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7
Q

True or False
Choke occurs frequently in cows and is non-life threatening

A

False
It is not a frequent occurrence but is life-threatening and intervention must occur immediately

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8
Q

Which of the following are possible causes for choke?
a) Hardware disease
b) Incomplete mastication
c) Respiratory distress
d) All of the above

A

b) Incomplete mastication

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9
Q

Which of the following are clinical signs of hardware disease?
a) Drop in milk production
b) Fever
c) Distension of left paralumbar fossa
d) All of the above

A

d) all of the above

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10
Q

Hardware disease is
a) Traumatic Reticulo-peritonitis
b) Traumatic pericarditis
c) LDA
d) Choke

A

a) Traumatic Reticulo-peritonitis

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11
Q

What surgical procedure may need to be performed if TRP is the diagnosis?
a) Reticulotomy
b) Rumenotomy
c) Gastric lavage
d) Enterotomy

A

b) Rumenotomy

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12
Q

You are called to a farm to assess a cow that is exhibiting signs of TRP. Upon PE you hear muffled heart sounds and tachycardia, you also observe brisket edema and distended jugular veins.
What does this indicate for this cow? What caused this?

A

Poor prognosis - euthanasia due to traumatic pericarditis, the foreign body moved too far cranially and caused constriction on the heart

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13
Q

You diagnose LDA in a cow that is showing signs of abdominal distension, and ping auscultated on the left side. You must perform surgery. What is the surgical approach?
a) Left flank approach
b) Right flank approach
c) Pass a gastric tube to relieve the pressure
d) Corkscrew plastic trocar

A

b) Right flank approach

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14
Q

What procedure can be performed to avoid recurrence of abomasum displacement?
a) Omentoplasty
b) Omentotomy
c) Omentopexy
d) Rumenectomy

A

c) Omentopexy

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15
Q

Which of the following are possible causes for Hemorrhagic Bowel Syndrome?
a) Clostridium perfringens type A
b) Aspergillis fumigatus
c) Clostridium perfringens C and D
d) a and b
e) All of the above

A

d) a and b

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16
Q

True or False
Beef cattle are more likely to suffer from Hemorrhagic Bowel Syndrome

A

False - Dairy cattle are more susceptible

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17
Q

Extracellular fluid makes up ___% of body weight and includes ______, ______ _____ and ______ ______
Intracellular fluid makes up 40%

A

Extracellular fluids makes up 20% of body weight and includes plasma, interstitial fluid and transcellular water

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18
Q

Calcitriol is the active form of Vitamin D which is stimulated by ____ in response to _____

A

PTH; Hypocalcemia

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19
Q

Hormone activator, renal regulation of BP and essential part of the RAA system

A

Renin

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20
Q

Hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates RBC formation

A

Erythropoeitin

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21
Q

What is released when the kidneys sense a decrease in BP?

A

Renin

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22
Q

What converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1?

A

Renin

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23
Q

Where does angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) convert angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2?

A

In the lungs

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24
Q

What causes vasoconstriction resulting in increased BP?
a) angiotensin 1
b) angiotensin 2
c) Aldosterone
d) renin

A

b) Angiotensin 2

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25
Q

What stimulates the adrenal glands to release aldosterone?

A

Angiotensin 2

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26
Q

Within the kidneys, ________ promotes reabsorption of sodium and water

A

Aldosterone

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27
Q

How does the hormone EPO benefit athletes, giving them unfair advantages?

A

The EPO increases their RBC’s which allows their muscles to work longer and harder without cramping

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28
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?
a) cortex
b) medulla
c) nephron
d) calyx

A

c) nephron

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29
Q

What are the two types of nephrons?

A

Cortical and Juxtamedullary

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30
Q

What nephron has a glomerulus located far from the cortex/medulla junction?

A

Cortical nephrons

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31
Q

What nephron has a glomerulus located close to the cortex/medulla junction?

A

Juxtamedullary

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32
Q

True or False
Cortical nephrons have short loops of Henle while juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops

A

True

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33
Q

Calcitriol _______ the absorption of calcium by the intestinal epithelium thereby ________ concentration of calcium in the blood

A

stimulates; increasing

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34
Q

Efferent arterioles give rise to ____ ____ that descend into the renal medulla

A

vasa recta

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35
Q

Renal corpuscle, or Malpighian body, is located in the ______ ______ and consists of _______ surrounded by _________ _______

A

renal cortex; glomerulus; Bowman’s capsule

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36
Q

Longest part of the nephron consisting of proximal convoluted tubule and straight part

A

Proximal tubule

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37
Q

In the loop of Henle, thin ascending limbs are only located where?

A

Only in nephrons with long loops (i.e. Juxtamedullary nephron)

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38
Q

What filters blood and forms primary urine?
a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal Tubule
c) Thin limbs of Henle’s loop
d) Collecting ducts

A

a) Glomerulus

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39
Q

What reabsorbs most filtered solutes?
a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal Tubule
c) Thin limbs of Henle’s loop
d) Collecting ducts

A

b) Proximal tubule

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40
Q

What reabsorbs water, Na+ and Cl-
a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal Tubule
c) Thin limbs of Henle’s loop
d) Collecting ducts

A

c) Thin limbs of Henle

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41
Q

What reabsorbs Na+, K+ and Cl-?
a) Glomerulus
b) Collecting ducts
c) Distal Convoluted Tubule
d) Thick ascending limb

A

d) Thick ascending limb

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42
Q

What reabsorbs Na+, Cl-, Ca++, Mg++ and regulates acid, bicarb, ammonia and water excretion?
a) Glomerulus
b) Collecting ducts
c) Distal Convoluted Tubule
d) Thick ascending limb

A

c) Distal Convoluted tubule

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43
Q

Regulates acid, bicarb, ammonia, Na+, K+ and water excretion
a) Glomerulus
b) Collecting ducts
c) Distal Convoluted Tubule
d) Thick ascending limb

A

b) Collecting ducts

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44
Q

Which of the follow correctly describes primary urine?
a) Accumulates in capsular space
b) Ultra filtrate
c) Contains same concentration of salt and glucose as plasma
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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45
Q

Which of the following correctly describes tubular fluid?
a) Becomes final urine
b) Found in Bowman’s space
c) Ultra filtrate
d) All of the above

A

a) Becomes final urine

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46
Q

True or False
Tubular reabsorption recovers most filtered substances

A

True

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47
Q

Glomerular filterability is based on what three factors?

A

Molecular weight, Electrical charge and Plasma protein binding

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48
Q

True or False
Anionic substances are more easily filtered than cationic

A

False
Cationic substances are more easily filtered than anionic, due to the negative charge of glomerullar basement membrane

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49
Q

Protective mechanism for solutes such as calcium
a) Plasma protein binding
b) Ultra filtration
c) Electrical charge
d) None of the above

A

A) Plasma protein binding

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50
Q

True or False
Na+ reabsorption favors movements out of the cells and into the interstitium

A

False
Na+ reabsorption favors movements INTO the cell

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51
Q

Where does the last big water reabsorption take place?

A

Collecting ducts

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52
Q

If osmolality in plasma is increased which of the following occurs?
a) ADH release
b) Production of concentrated urine
c) Diluted urine production
d) All of the above
e) A and B

A

e) A and B

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53
Q

Collecting duct is water permeable and determines ________ of excreted urine

A

Osmolality

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54
Q

If ADH is absent, the CD is __________ to water, leading to production of ______ urine

A

Impermeable; diluted

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55
Q

The role of the glomerulus is to
a) convert primary filtrate to secondary urine
b) Concentrate tubular filtrate
c) Filter the blood and form primary urine
d) dilute tubular filtrate

A

c) Filter the blood and form primary urine

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56
Q

A dog is deficient in ADH. The dog’s urine will be
a) highly concentrated w/ small production
b) Very dilute and large volume produced
c) Same concentration as plasma
d) Very dilute but small production

A

b) very dilute w/ large production

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57
Q

The kidneys are attached to the ceiling of the abdominal cavity and are covered by ______ on the ventral aspect

A

Peritoneum

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58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary role of kidneys
a) Produce blood
b) Filter plasma
c) Synthesize renin and erythropoeitin
d) all of the above are correct

A

a) Produce blood
b and c are correct

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59
Q

Identify A, B and C

A

A - Renal pelvis
B - Fat in Renal Sinus
C - Contour of a renal pyramid

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60
Q

What structures are within the medulla?

A

Renal pyramids and renal crest

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61
Q

Renal pelvis collects urine from the _______ _______ and then goes to the _______

A

Renal pelvis collects urine from the renal crest and then goes to the ureter

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62
Q

Name the indicated structures
Is this image the ventral or dorsal view of the bladder?

A

A - Ureteral orifice
B - Urethral muscle
C - Urethra
Ventral bladder

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63
Q

List the urinary bladder layers in order

A

Adventitia (outer)
Detrusor (middle)
Mucosa (inner layer)

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64
Q

What layer of the bladder is smooth muscle and under involuntary control?

A

Detrusor muscle layer

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65
Q

What layer of the bladder as impermeable lining (urothelium) and has no reasborption or excretion process?

A

Mucosa layer

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66
Q

Which of the following is true of the female versus male urethra?
a) Female has only a pelvic segment
b) Males have 2 segments (penile and pelvic)
c) Both are correct

A

C) Both are correct

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67
Q

Identify the following structures:
Ovaries
Uterine tubes
Uterus
Cervix
Vagina
Vestibule
Vulva

A

Ovaries - 4
Uterine tube - 5
Uterus - 6
Cervix - 7
Vagina - 8
Vestibule - 10
Vulva - 12

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68
Q

What are the three zones of the placenta?

A

Transfer zone
Pigmented zone
Nonvascular zone

69
Q

What structure combines reproductive and urinary functions in the female?

A

Vestibule

70
Q

Which of the following is true of the uterine tube:
a) Also known as Salpinx or fallopian tube
b) Catches the oocyte after ovulation
c) Is the site of fertlization
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

71
Q

The urine is drained into the urinary bladder directly by the _______
a) Renal pelvis
b) Urethra
c) Ureters
d) Uterus

A

c) Ureters

72
Q

The ventral commissure of the vulva includes what two structures?
a) Labium and fossa clitoridis
b) Fossa clitoridis and clitoris
c) Urethral orifice and labium
d) Vestibule and vestibular bulb

A

b) Fossa clitoridis and clitoris

73
Q

True or False
Mammary glands are modified sweat glands responsible for lactation

A

True

74
Q

Choose the correct statement regarding the uterus:
a) Its myometrium contains maturing follicles
b) It is the site of fertilization
c) It is wrapped in serous membrane called endometrium
d) It is Y shaped in bitches
e) The uterine tubes are part of it

A

d) It is Y shaped in bitches

75
Q

What pathophysiology correlates specifically with pre-renal AKI?
a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys
b) Damage to any section of the kidney: glomeruli, tubules, interstitium or veseels
c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction
d) Abrupt damage to renal parenchyma resulting in reduced kidney function

A

a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys

76
Q

What pathophysiology correlates with intrinsic renal AKI?
a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys
b) Damage to any section of the kidney: glomeruli, tubules, interstitium or veseels
c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction
d) Abrupt damage to renal parenchyma resulting in reduced kidney function

A

b) Damage to any section of the kidney

77
Q

What pathophysiology correlates specifically to post-renal AKI?
a) Insufficient delivery of blood to kidneys
b) Damage to any section of the kidney: glomeruli, tubules, interstitium or veseels
c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction
d) Abrupt damage to renal parenchyma resulting in reduced kidney function

A

c) Urine leakage within tissue or urinary obstruction

78
Q

What category of AKI are reversible provided compromised renal perfusion is corrected before onset of ischemic nephron damage?
a) Pre-renal
b) Intrinsic renal
c) Post-renal
d) A and b
e) B and C
f) A and C

A

f) A and C

79
Q

Which of the following correlate with causes for pre-renal AKI?
a) Dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDS
b) Ischemia, toxins, infectious, immune mediated, neoplasia
c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, urethral strictures
d) all of the above

A

a) dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDs

80
Q

Which of the following correlate with intrinsic renal AKI?
a) Dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDS
b) Ischemia, toxins, infectious, immune mediated, neoplasia
c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, urethral strictures
d) all of the above

A

b) ischemia, toxins, infectious immune mediated, neoplasia

81
Q

Which of the following correlate with post-renal AKI?
a) Dehydration, hypovolemia, hypotension, trauma, shock, NSAIDS
b) Ischemia, toxins, infectious, immune mediated, neoplasia
c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, urethral strictures
d) all of the above

A

c) Trauma, calculi, mucous plugs, tumors, blood clots, strictures

82
Q

True or False
Pre-renal and post-renal can coincide with intrinsic injury

A

True

83
Q

If a patient is hydrated (or dehydrated) but remains azotemic with impaired ability to concentrate or dilute urine what is true?
a) The patient is suffering from post-renal AKI
b) The patient is suffering from combination intrinsic w/ possible superimposed pre-renal azotemia
c) The patient is suffering Pre-renal AKI
d) The patient is suffering from intrinsic renal AKI

A

d) Instrinsic renal AKI

84
Q

If azotemia resolves but the patient can’t concentrate or dilute urine appropriately, what is the likely cause?
a) Pre-renal azotemia superimposed on inability to concentrate urine
b) Post-renal AKI
c) Instrinsic renal AKI
d) All of the above

A

a) Pre-renal superimposed on inability to concentrate urine

85
Q

What are the 4 phases of AKI in order?
a) Extension, Maintenance, Initiation, Recovery
b) Initiation, Extension, Maintenance, Recovery
c) Initiation, Maintenance, Recovery, Extension
d) Recovery, Maintenance, Initiation, Extension

A

B) Initiation
Extension
Maintenance
Recovery

86
Q

In what phase of AKI is renal insult and damage occur?

A

Phase 1 - initiation

87
Q

During what phase of AKI is there localized ischemia, inflammation, cell apoptosis/necrosis?

A

Phase 2 - Extension Phase

88
Q

During what phase of AKI do renal tubules repair and heal if the basement membrane is intact?

A

Phase 4 - Recovery

89
Q

What portions of the kidney are particularly vulnerable to ischemia?

A

Nephrons within renal medulla (prox. convoluted tubule and thick ascending loop of Henle)

90
Q

Where does the scrotum develop?
a) Cranial pole of kidney
b) Caudal pole of kidney
c) Dorsal aspect of kidney
d) Ventral aspect of kidney

A

b) Caudal pole of kidney

91
Q

What is the outer most scrotal layer?
a) Spermatic fascia
b) Tunica albuginea
c) Skin and dartos
d) Epidiymis

A

c) Skin and dartos

92
Q

Identify the following:
Corpus spongiosum
Corpus cavernosum
Pars longa glandis
Os penis
Bulbus glandis

A
93
Q

What is the main erectile tissue in male animals?
a) Corpus spongiosum
b) Corpus cavernosum
c) Bulbospongiosus
d) Retractor penis

A

b) Corpus cavernosum

94
Q

This tissue makes up the glands of the penis and surrounds the urethra

A

Corpus spongiosum

95
Q

True or False
Erection is brought about by the relaxation of the os penis muscle and erectile tissues filling with blood

A

False
Erection is brought about by relaxation of the retractor penis muscle and the erectile tissues filling with blood

96
Q

What type of penis has large amounts of erectile tissue and engorges and grows in length?
a) Musculocavernous
b) Fibroelastic
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

A

a) Musculocavernous

97
Q

What type of penis does not change in girth but has perceived growth in length when flooded with blood?
a) Musculocavernous
b) Fibroelastic
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

A

b) Fibroelastic

98
Q

What species have a musculocavernous penis?
a) bulls, boars, rams
b) stallion, dogs, humans

A

b) stallion, dogs and humans

99
Q

What species have fibroelastic penis?
a) bulls, boars, rams
b) stallion, dogs, humans

A

a) bulls, boars and rams

100
Q

What type of penis contains a sigmoid flexure?

A

Fibroelastic

101
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement:
a) The external lamina is separate from the internal lamina
b) The internal lamina terminates at the fornix and becomes continuous with the skin of the glans
c) The Internal and external lamina are continuous of each other
d) All of the above
e) Multiple options are correct

A

e) b and c are correct

102
Q

What is the fibrous capsule that is deep to the vaginal tunic?

A

Tunica albuginea

103
Q

Be able to identify:
Tunica albuginea
Skin and Dartos
Spermatic fascia
Parietal vaginal tunic
Vaginal cavity
Visceral vaginal tunic

A
104
Q

Where do sperm enter the epididymis from the testes?
a) head
b) body
c) tail

A

a) head

105
Q

What portion of the epididymis is continuous with the ductus deferens?
a) head
b) body
c) tail

A

c) tail

106
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the ductus deferens?
a) Continue from tail of epididymis
b) Enter abdominal cavity as part of spermatic cord
c) Cross lateral aspect of urinary bladder into the pelvic urethra
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

107
Q

What is responsible for the production of seminal plasma?
a) testes
b) Prostate gland
c) Epididymis
d) Urethra

A

b) Prostate gland

108
Q

Which of the following is not responsible for production of seminal plasma?
a) Prostate gland
b) Ampulla
c) Vesicular and bublourethral glands
d) Sperm

A

d) Sperm

109
Q

Most distal aspect of the penis in a dog, consisting of bulbous glandis and pars long glandis as well as the os penis
a) Root
b) body
c) Glans
d) Bulbus glandis

A

c) Glans

110
Q

Identify:
Pars Longa Glandis
Bulbous glandis
Os penis
Glans penis

A
111
Q

True or False
Sympathetic nervous system inhibits erection, while the parasympathetic nervous system stimulates erection

A

True

112
Q

What is the function of seminal plasma?

A

Assist with support and delivery of sperm

113
Q

What is the only accessory gland in the dog?
a) Testes
b) Prostate
c) Os penis
d) Bulbo glandis

A

b) Prostate

114
Q

Common disease seen in intact dogs over 5 years old, resulting in an enlarged prostate

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

115
Q

What are the bilateral structures within the scrotum?
a) Testes
b) Epididymis
c) Bublourethral gland
d) A and B
e) All of the above

A

d) A and B

116
Q

Where does the final maturation and storage of sperm occur?
a) Testes
b) Scrotum
c) Epididymis
d) Ductus deferens

A

c) Epididymis

117
Q

Which of the following does not assist in thermoregulation of the testis?
a) Cremaster muscle
b) Dartos muscle
c) Pampiniform plexus
d) All of the above assist with thermoregulation

A

d) All of the above assist with thermoregulation

118
Q

Network of veins that surround the testicular artery associated with the spermatic cord that exchanges and carries warm arterial blood away from testes
a) Cremaster muscle
b) Pampiniform Plexus
c) Dartos muscle
d) Epididymis

A

b) Pampiniform plexus

119
Q

Functional units of testes for sperm production

A

Seminiferous tubules

120
Q

What are the behavioral signs of estrus in mares?

A

Frequent urination and clitoral winking

121
Q

Which of the following is a function of the cervix?
a) Prevents ascending contaminants
b) Sperm transport
c) Passage for AI
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

122
Q

The follicle is the main source of _______ and the corpus luteum is the main source of _______

A

Estrogen; Progesterone

123
Q

Regression of corpora lutea (luteolysis) at the end of diestrus results in ________ progesterone production and return to ____ in some species

A

Decreased; estrus

124
Q

What hormone terminates luteal function in non-pregnant horses and cattle?
a) Prostaglandin F2a
b) Progesterone
c) Estradiol
d) Estrogen

A

a) Prostaglandin F2a

125
Q

In non pregnant dogs and cats which of the following is true?
a) No luteolytic mechanism
b) Regression of corpus luteum
c) Regression of CL happens over duration of diestrus comparable to duration of gestation
d) All of the above

A

d) all of the above

126
Q

A mare who has never produced offspring is called:
a) Nulliparous
b) Primiparous
c) Multparous
d) Monotocous

A

a) Nulliparous

127
Q

An animal bearing offspring for the first time is termed:
a) Monotocous
b) Primiparous
c) Multiparous
d) Monoparous

A

b) Primiparous

128
Q

An animal who has previously had multiple offspring is termed:
a) Polytocous
b) Primiparous
c) Multiparous
d) Polyparous

A

c) Multiparous

129
Q

What structure provides physical support for the reproductive tract and nervous, vascular and lymphatic tissue?
a) Broad ligament
b) Pimiform plexus
c) Uterus
d) Gastrula

A

a) Broad ligament

130
Q

What portion of the broad ligament supports the ovaries?
a) Mesovarium
b) Mesosalpinx
c) Mesometrium
d) Endometrium

A

a) Mesovarium

131
Q

What portion of the broad ligament supports the uterine tubes?
a) Mesovarium
b) Mesosalpinx
c) Mesometrium
d) Endometrium

A

b) Mesosalpinx

132
Q

What portion of the broad ligament supports the uterus?
a) Mesovarium
b) Mesosalpinx
c) Mesometrium
d) Endometrium

A

c) Mesometrium

133
Q

What term correlates with the feeling of blood flow through enlarged uterine artery
a) Fremitus
b) Gravid
c) Non-gravid
d) Tocous

A

a) Fremitus

134
Q

Which of the following statements is true of fremitus?
a) murmur or roar
b) branch of dorsal aorta is palpated
c) Associated with gravid uterine horn at 3 months of pregnancy
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

135
Q

Around what time frame can you see shape change of the embryo in a mare?
a) Day 16
b) Day 18
c) Day 12
d) Day 24

A

b) Day 18

136
Q

At what point of pregnancy can the heart beat be seen in a mare, also considered early embryo stage?
a) Day 18
b) Day 36
c) Day 24
d) Day 16

A

c) Day 24

137
Q

At what stage of pregnancy can you see a chorionic girdle in a mare?
a) Day 24
b) Day 28
c) Day 32
d) Day 36

A

d) Day 36

138
Q

True or False
Without progesterone from the corpus luteum and placenta, abortion would occur

A

True
It is necessary for development and maintenance of pregnancy

139
Q

What systems directly regulate gut function?
a) Enteric Nervous system
b) GI endocrine system
c) CNS
d) A combination of above

A

d) A combination - A and B
(C INDIRECTLY regulates)

140
Q

What is the “little brain” within the gut?

A

Enteric Nervous System

141
Q

True or False
The ENS contains as many neurons as the spinal cord

A

True

142
Q

What forms the link between the CNS and ENS in the gut?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

143
Q

Which of the following statements are correct?
a) Parasympathetic stimulate epinephrine while sympathetic stimulates acetylcholine
b) Sympathetic stimuli are inhibitory and release epinephrine while parasympathetic stimuli are stimulatory, stimulating acetylcholine
c) Both para/symp nervous systems stimulate acetylcholine
d) None of the above

A

b) Sympathetic stimuli are inhibitory and release epinephrine, parasympathetic stimuli are stimulatory, stimulating acetylcholine

144
Q

What signals overdistention of the gut wall, inflammation and presence of noxious chemicals in the lumen?
a) Efferent neurons
b) Afferent neurons
c) PNS system
d) None of the above

A

b) Afferent (splachnic) neurons

145
Q

What are the phases of digestion?

A

Cephalic, Gastric, Intestinal

146
Q

What phase of ingestion involves olfactory stimulation and acetylcholine release (parasympathetic system)?

A

Cephalic phase

147
Q

At what pH does gastric secretion stop and acid secretion reduce?

A

pH1

148
Q

What phase of digestion stimulates pancreatic secretion?

A

Gastric

149
Q

During what phase of digestion does chyme enter the duodenum?

A

Intestinal phase

150
Q

Low pH of chyme stimulates secretion of
a) gastrin
b) secretin
c) CCK
d) All of the above

A

b) secretin
although, CCK secretion is also stimulated- but due to the stretch receptors + chyme

151
Q

Neutralization of acid occurs during what stage of digestion?

A

Intestinal phase

152
Q

The anal opening is constricted by two sphincters. Which of the following is true of these sphincters?
a) Internal is striated while external is smooth muscle
b) Internal is smooth while external is striated
c) Recto sphincteric reflex is the relaxation of the internal anal sphincter, followed by peristaltic contractions of the rectum
d) More than 1 correct choice

A

d) More than 1 correct choice
b and c are both correct

153
Q

Ruminant saliva is a…
a) bicarbonate-phosphate buffer
b) Chemical buffer
c) Phosphate buffer
d) None of the above

A

a) bicarbonate-phosphate buffer

154
Q

The gastric mucosa contain different cell types. What is true of these cell types?
a) parietal cells secret Hcl and are stimulated by gastrin and Ach
b) Chief cells secrete pepsinogen and are stimulated by Ach and Hcl
c) Mucous cells are present
d) All of the above

A

d) all of the above

155
Q

True or false
Surface mucous cells secrete mucin in acidic fluid

A

False
Surface mucous cells secrete mucin in alkaline fluid

156
Q

True or False
Mucous neck cells secrete mucin in an acidic fluid

A

True

157
Q

True or False
Parietal cells secrete HCl and lipase

A

False
Parietal cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor

158
Q

True or False
Chief cells secrete pepsinogen and lipase

A

True

159
Q

True or False
Enteroendocrine cells secrete secretin

A

False
They secrete Gastrin

160
Q

Which of the following is NOT a role of the exocrine pancreas?
a) Digests carbs, proteins, lipids
b) Bile secretion
c) Surface receptors are stimulated by Ach (muscarinic receptors) CCK and secretin
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

161
Q

Bile secretion is stimulated by presence of food in the _____ and is stimulated by the return of ______ ______ to the ______

A

duodenum; bile acids; liver

162
Q

Which of the following is not found in bile?
a) CCK
b) cholesterol
c) phospholipids
d) bilirubin

A

a) CCK

163
Q

What transports blood from the digestive tract to the liver?
a) HPA axis
b) Hepatic portal system
c) Gastric phase
d) Intestinal phase

A

b) hepatic portal system

164
Q

True or False
The hepatic portal system extends from the lower esophagus to the upper anal canal

A

True

165
Q

True or False
Lymphatic drainage bypasses the liver and enters directly into the blood stream via thoracic duct

A

True

166
Q

Where does water absorption occur during the fermentation in the gut?
a) Abomasum
b) Reticulum
c) Omasum
d) Rumen

A

c) omasum

167
Q

Where does production of VFA and byproducts occur during fermentation in the gut?

A

Rumen

168
Q

What are the main VFA’s
a) acetic acid
b) propionic acid
c) butyric acid
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

169
Q

Where does majority energy fuel come from in the fermentative process?

A

From VFA’s that have been absorbed through the rumen and transported in the blood to the liver

Vet Prep Structure Function (5 decks)

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