BLOOD Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
essential fluid for life
A
blood
2
Q
~55% of whole blood
A
plasma
3
Q
% of buffy coat
A
less than 1% of whole blood
4
Q
buffy coat is comprised of
A
platelets
leukocytes
5
Q
~45% of whole blood
A
erythrocytes
6
Q
state the functions of blood
A
delivery of nutrients and oxygen directly or indirectly to cells
transport wastes and carbon dioxide away from cells
delivery of hormones and other regulatory substances to and from cells and tissues
maintenance of homeostasis by acting as a buffer and participating in coagulation and thermoregulation
transport humoral agents and cells of the immune system that protect the body from pathogenic agents, foreign proteins, and transformed cells
7
Q
True or False. Endocrine glands do not have ducts
A
True
they do not have ducts.
all their products are secreted into the blood and delivered to other organs via bloodstream
8
Q
the major players of coagulation
A
Platelets
9
Q
state the elements of the blood
A
erythrocytes
thrombocytes
leukocytes
9
Q
shape of erythrocytes
A
biconcave and discoid
9
Q
diameter of RBCs
A
average = 7.8 um
range: 7 um to 9 um
9
Q
thickness of RBCs (both sides and center)
A
sides = 2.6 um
center = 0.8 um
9
Q
the whitish appearance in the middle of RBCs are called
A
central pallor
9
Q
RBCs can pass through very narrow passages, state some of these said passages
A
capillaries
splenic sieve/filter
9
Q
all blood cells pass through the
A
spleen
10
Q
all young blood cells pass through the
A
splenic sieve
10
Q
old blood cells are trapped in
A
spleen
11
Q
this is where old RBCs undergo phagocytosis
A
spleen
12
Q
old RBCs are called
A
senescent RBCs
13
Q
who enables the phagocytosis of senescent RBCs in the spleen
A
splenic macrophages
13
Q
state a key marker of senescence which acts as a signal for macrophages, leading to phagocytosis and RBC clearance
A
externalization of Phosphatidylserine (PS) on the outer leaflet of the RBC membrane
14
Q
life span of RBCs
A
120 days
14
Q
True or False. During the state of senescence, RBC membrane is deformable
A
FALSE
it is not deformable and therefore cannot pass through the splenic sieve
14
Q
erythrocytes deformity is due to its
A
plasma mebrane
cytoskeleton
15
state the RBC membrane lipids
cholesterol
phospholipids
glycolipids
15
this is membrane lipid is interspaced between phospholipid bilayer
Cholesterol
16
this membrane lipid is located outside and contain carbohydrate chains
Phospholipids
16
this membrane lipid is seen at the outer portion of RBC and is lipid-containing
Glycolipids
17
glycolipids contain this **specific protein** which is important as it serves as anchors for extracellular membrane proteins
Glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)
18
abnormal glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) causes what
random hemolysis (an untriggered immune response)
19
hemolysis =
pinkish serum
20
state a disease associated with glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) abnormalities
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)
21
this is an autoimmune-triggered condition which is evident in patient's red painful urine and fast RBC breakdown
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
22
state membrane lipids which are found in INNER FACES
Phosphatidylethanolamine
Phosphatidylserine
23
state membrane lipids which are found in OUTER FACES
Phosphatidylcholine
Sphingomyelin
24
state membrane lipids which are found in BOTH FACES
Phosphatidylinositol
Cholesterol
25
importance of glycosylphosphatidylinositol
serves as anchors for extracellular membrane proteins
25
other function of GPI
protects RBC from the immune system of the body
26
this is the one that serve as receptor for certain molecules such as glucose
Transmembrane proteins
26
serves as anion exchange transporters
Band 3 Protein
27
these are sialic acid transporters
Glycophorins (A, B, C)
27
for MN antigen
Glycophorin A
27
for S antigen
Glycophorin B
28
Gerbic antigen
Glycophorin C
29
True or False. the presence or absence of Glycophorins (A,B, C) can have transfusion reaction
True
30
these serve as glucose transporters
Glut-1
31
these two membrane proteins serve as assembly site for the ABO antigens
Glut-1 and Band 3
32
what are the other uses of Band 3 proteins
used fro cyanic transporter or the anion transporter exchange
33
these three membrane proteins are antigenic as they can induce immune response
Kell
Kidd
Duffy
34
serves as zinc binding endopeptidase (have the capability to cleave a peptide with the help of zinc)
Kell
35
urea transporter
Kidd
36
G-protein coupled receptor
Duffy
37
if someone has this then they cannot have malaria
Duffy negative (-)
38
serve as the receptor for malarial parasites and is a chemokine receptor as well
Duffy
39
ammonia transporter
RhAG
Rh-associated glycoprotein
40
this membrane protein maintains the structure and cell membrane
Rh
41
this serves to maintain the shape of the RBC through maintaining its cytoskeleton
Cytoskeletal proteins
42
these two maintains the cytoskeleton of RBC and maintains the filamentous protein
a-spectrin & B-spectrin
43
state all the cytoskeletal proteins
a-spectrin
B-spectrin
Ankyrin
Protein 4.1
44
this maintains the vertical structure of red blood cells
ankyrin complex
45
this maintains the horizontal structure of RBC membrane
actin junctional complex
46
State all the contents of ankyrin complex
Band 3 Protein
Rh
RhAG
Ankyrin
Protein 4.2
CD47
glycophorin A and B
a-spectrin and B-spectrin
47
state all the contents of actin junctional complex
Glut-1
Protein 4.1 and 4.2
F-actin
Dematin
Tropomyosin
Tropomodulin
Adducin
Stomatin
Kell
Duffy
48
state the assembly of the ABO blood group system
Type A
Type B
Type O
Type AB
49
Antigens elicit what
immune response
49
ABO is composed of
carbohydrate chains
50
The template for the assembly of ABO blood group is made up of
Glucose
D-galactose
N-acetylglucosamine
D-galactose
50
before forming ABO antigens, the body first assemble what
Type 2 Precursor Chain (this serves as a template)
51
the immunodominant sugar responsible for A specificity
N-acetylgalactosamine
51
the immunodominant sugar responsible for H specificity
Fucose
52
state the assembly of H-antigen
Type 2 precusor chain (specifically at the Terminal D-galactose) the Fucose attaches to form the H-antigen (Type O Blood)
52
the immunodominant sugar responsible for B specificity
D-Galactose
52
state the three (3) fates of H-antigen
Maintained to keep as Type O Blood
Turn into A antigen
Turn into B antigen
53
If only H antigen is present, what blood type is it
Type O Blood
54
how is H antigen converted to A or B antigen
A antigen = H antigen's terminal galactose + N-acetylgalactosamine
B antigen = H antigen's terminal D-galactose + D-galactose
55
state the three key immunodominant sugars involved in ABO Blood Grouping
Fucose
N-acetylgalactosamine
D-Galactose
56
Universal recipient
Type AB
57
Universal donor
Type O Blood
58
What antigens are present in Type A blood
H and A Antigens
59
What antigens are present in Type O blood
H antigen only
59
What antigens are present in Type B blood
H and B Antigens
60
What antigens are present in Type AB blood
A antigens
B Antigens
H antigens
61
what blood type does not produce antibodies
Type AB Blood
62
what blood produces Anti-B antibodies
Type A
63
what blood produces Anti-A antibodies
Type B Blood
64
what blood produces both Anti-B and Anti-A antibodies
Type O Blood
65
this blood lacks a H antigen but during blood typing show as Type O Blood
Bombay Phenotype
66
True or False. Individuals who have Bombay Phenotype cannot receive blood from any ABO type except another Bombay Phenotype donor
True
67
True or False. Bombay Phenotype is considered as universal donor
True
68
where was Bombay Phenotype discovered
Bombay, India
68
this is known as the Royal Blood
Type AB
68
The universal plasma donor
Type AB Blood
69
True or False. Individuals have either Rh(+) or Rh(-)
True
70
True or False. Rh(+) can donate to Rh(-)
False
but Rh(-) can donate to Rh(+)
71
Rh incompatibility in Pregnancy is called
Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
72
what happens to the first pregnancy when there is HDFN
mother is exposed to Rh(+) cells but does not attack
73
what happens to the second pregnancy when there is HDFN
immune system recognizes Rh(+) cells and ATTACKS the baby's RBCs = hemolysis
74
Preventive medicine of HDFN
RhoGAM
Rho(D) immune globulin (Human)
this is an anti-D immunoglobulin
75
this condition have round RBCs with smaller diameter and lacks central pallor
Spherocyte
76
True or False. Spherocyte have a denser (hyperchromic) staining quality
True
77
what causes spherocyte
deficiency or dysfunction in spectrin, ankyrin, Band 3 or Protein 4.2
78
this is the result from the defects in the Actin Junctional Complex
elliptocyte/ovalocyte
78
associated disease for spherocyte
Hereditary Spherocytosis
79
the major protein responsible in the transport of oxygen & carbon dioxide inside the body
hemoglobin
80
when does the Hemoglobin F peak
during third trimester
80
True or False. Each subunit of hemoglobin contains one molecule of heme
True
80
how many subunits does hemolobin have
4 protein subunits
80
components of heme
Protoporphyrin IX (9)
Ferrous iron ion (Fe 2+)
81
why is it crucial for heme to maintain its reduced state
when oxidized into ferric ion (Fe3+) = hemoglobin loses its ability to bind oxygen
82
what is the predominate hemoglobin in adults
HbA (adult hemoglobin)
83
Composition of HbA
2 subunits of alpha-subunits
2 subunits of beta-subunits
84
composition of HbA2
2 subunits of alpha-subunits
2 subunits of delta-subunits
85
composition of fetal hemoglobin
alpha-subunits
gamma-subunits
86
% of fetal hemoglobin in babies after or before birth
60-90%
87
True or False. HbF has higher affinity for oxygen that adult hemoglobin
True
88
importance of carbonate/bicarbonate diffusing out of the cell
to maintain neutral electrical charge (as there is an increase of protons inside the RBC)
88
How does hemoglobin indirectly transports carbon dioxide
by aiding or helping in the diffusion of the carbon dioxide inside the RBC
88
Explain the importance of HbF having higher affinity to oxygen than HbA
This is a compensatory mechanism that allows the fetus to compete with maternal hemoglobin for oxygen, ensuring sufficient oxygen supply even in a low-oxygen environment.
89
what are the events that stimulates the BINDING OF OXYGEN to hemoglobin
decrease in hydrogen ions (increase of pH)
decrease in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
decrease in 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
decrease in temperature
89
what is done to further maintain electron neutrality (this is a response to the exit of bicarbonate/carbonate)
entrance of chloride in the RBC
90
where carbon dioxide diffused out of
alveoli
90
the increase of hydrogen ions in RBCs results/stimulates to what
release of oxygen from hemoglobin (deoxygenated hemoglobin)
90
what are the events that stimulates the RELEASE OF OXYGEN
increase in temperature
increase in 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
decrease in pH due to the increase of hydrogen ions
90
what happens to the hydrogen ions that are bound to deoxygenated hemoglobin when there is an increase in oxygen
hydrogen ions are released, and bicarbonate enters (serves as a buffer due to the influx of hydrogen ions) the RBCs
91
to maintain the electrochemical neutrality, the influx of bicarbonate results to
exit of chloride ion
91
what binds to the deoxygenated hemoglobin
hydrogen and 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
these two help stabilize the deoxygenate hemoglobin, promoting oxygen release.
92
where is 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate found more tissues or lungs
tissues
93
what stain is used in order to differentiate reticulocyte from normal RBCs
methylene blue
93
reticulocytes are also known as
retics
93
these are the last immature red blood cell stage
reticulocytes
94
reticulocytes are usually mobilized by
bone marrow
95
how many days do reticulocytes stay in the bone marrow
2 days in the bone marrow
95
True or False. As compared to fully mature RBCs, reticulocytes still contains cytoplasmic remnants
True
96
how many days do reticulocytes stay in the peripheral blood before developing into a mature RBCs
1 day
97
an increase reticulocyte count in a CBC may indicate
anemia
98
state a reason for an increase production of reticulocyte
when bone marrow detects low oxygen levels resulting in the increase production of reticulocyte to restore RBC levels
99
these are loosely related category of cell types dedicated to protecting their host from infection and injury
Leukocytes
100
majority of the leukocytes are invovled in what type of immunity
Innate immunity
100
state the leukocytes under innate immunity
monocyte
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
100
peripheral blood can be divided into two categories
granulocytes
agranulocytes (mononuclear cells)
100
this immune system provides a NONSPECIFIC response to foreign materials
Innate immunity
101
this immune system responds in a HIGHLY SPECIFIC manner; recognizes and memorizes foreign materials allowing for a stronger and faster response to re-exposure
Adaptive immune system
102
Adaptive immune system is largely performed by
lymphocyte
103
these increases in bacterial infection
Neutrophils
103
these contains two lobes and increases in number in case of parasitic infection and allergic infection
Eosinophil
104
this is very rare in peripheral smear
basophils
105
increases in allergic reaction and cancer
basophil
106
immature macrophages that travels in peripheral blood
monocyte
106
this is considered as phagocytic cell
monocyte
107
the largest cell found in normal peripheral blood smear
monocyte
108
the major player for adaptive immunity
Lymphocytes
109
types of lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
110
this stains darker compared to other WBC
basophilic
111
main function of neutrophils
phagocytosis and destruction of foreign material and microorganisms
112
state the four parts of intravascular chemotaxis
tethering & rolling
Adhesion
crawling
diapedesis
112
adhesion molecules found in the epithelial tissue
ICAM-1
113
a process when the neutrophil has completely migrate outside the blood vessel
diapedesis
114
this permits the neutrophil to move through the tight junctions
the communion between the integrins and selectins of neutrophil
115
the traveling/migration of neutrophils in response to signaling proteins
chemotaxis
116
this chemotaxis happens inside blood vessels
intravascular chemotaxis
117
state the receptors which help the neutrophil recognize foreign material
Fc receptors
Complement receptors
Toll-like receptors
118
this chemotaxis happens when WBCs travels within tissues
Extravascular chemotaxis
119
this receptor recognizes microorganisms that are covered with antibodies
Fc receptors
120
this recognizes complement proteins as they cover an antigen
complement receptors
120
these receptor is found in all phagocytic cells
toll-like receptors
120
this happens during phagocytosis wherein neutrophil's glucose and oxygen utilization increases
respiratory burst
120
the first step in phagocytosis
recognition of foreign material
121
a vesicle inside the neutrophil containing the foreign material
phagosome
122
respiratory burst results to the synthesis of
reactive oxygen species (ROS)
123
two systems under phagocytosis
Myeloperoxidase system
Phagocyte oxidase system
123
an alternative route of bacterial killing performed by neutrophil
NETosis
123
this catalyzes the formation of hypochlorous acid from hydrogen ions, chloride ions, & hydrogen peroxide
myeloperoxidase (MPO)
123
NETosis results to the release of
neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)
124
one of the metabolic system inside neutrophils in order to degrade or metabolize glucose
Pentose phosphate pathway
125
product of Pentose Phosphate pathway
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
126
NADPH is detected by what enzyme
NADPH Oxidase
126
state other forms of reactive oxygen species
hydrogen peroxide
superoxide anion
singlet oxygen
126
this stimulate the production of Reactive Oxygen Species
NADPH Oxidase
126
hematopoietic tissue is located in the
bone marrow
lymph nodes
spleen
liver
thymus
127
bone marrow is located where
cavities of cortical bones
128
state the types of bone marrow
yellow marrow
red marrow
129
yellow marrow contains what type of tissue
adipose tissue
130
this marrow is the site of active production of RBCs and WBCs
Red marrow
131
Red marrow in adults is restricted to
ribs
sternum
scapulae
skull
vertebrae
pelvis
proximal portion of long bones
132
these are structures found in bone marrow which play a crucial role in blood cell development
hematopoietic cords
133
each hematopoietic cords contains this which supports the maturation of RBC and WBC
hematopoietic microenvironment
134
process of collecting bone marrow
bone marrow biopsy
135
bone marrow is usually collected where
iliac crest which located in the pelvis
136
state the four zones of platelets
Peripheral zone
Structural zone
Organelle zone
Membrane systems
