Blood And Body Defences Flashcards

(202 cards)

1
Q

Which statement best describes the RBC membrane’s key function?

A

Maintaining RBC shape and deformability. RBC membrane skeletal proteins (e.g., spectrin) and lipid bilayer organization allow red cells to squeeze through narrow capillaries without hemolysis.

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2
Q

A deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) primarily leads to:

A

Decreased protection against oxidative stress. Without adequate G6PD, RBCs cannot generate sufficient NADPH, which is needed to keep glutathione reduced and prevent oxidative damage.

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3
Q

In the pentose phosphate shunt, the formation of NADPH is essential because NADPH:

A

Keeps glutathione in its reduced form. Reduced glutathione neutralizes harmful reactive oxygen species, safeguarding RBCs from oxidative damage.

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4
Q

A drop in 2,3-DPG concentration in RBCs is most likely to:

A

Increase hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen. Lower 2,3-DPG means hemoglobin remains in a higher-affinity state, reducing oxygen release to tissues.

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5
Q

The conversion of methemoglobin (MetHb) to functional hemoglobin requires RBCs to have adequate:

A

NADH generated from glycolysis. Methemoglobin reductase uses NADH to reduce Fe3+ back to Fe2+, restoring hemoglobin’s oxygen-carrying capacity.

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6
Q

Definition of Haematocrit (Hct)

A

Haematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by RBCs. It is typically measured by centrifuging blood and calculating packed cell volume relative to total volume.

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7
Q

Composition of RBC Membrane

A

The RBC membrane is ~50% protein, 40% lipid, and 10% carbohydrate by weight. This balanced structure helps maintain flexibility, shape, and surface markers.

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8
Q

Role of Ankyrin in RBCs

A

Ankyrin is a peripheral membrane protein that anchors spectrin (cytoskeleton) to the integral membrane protein Band 3. This linkage preserves RBC membrane stability and biconcave shape.

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9
Q

Function of GLUT1 in RBCs

A

GLUT1 is a passive glucose transporter on RBC membranes. It facilitates glucose entry down its concentration gradient, providing the primary fuel for RBC glycolysis.

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10
Q

What is Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

A membrane-cytoskeleton defect (often in spectrin or ankyrin) causing spherical RBCs with decreased deformability. These RBCs are prone to hemolysis, often destroyed in the spleen.

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11
Q

Importance of Flippase and Floppase

A

Flippase and floppase are ATP-dependent transporters that move phospholipids (e.g., PS, PE, PC, SM) between leaflets of the RBC membrane. They maintain phospholipid asymmetry and membrane integrity.

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12
Q

2,3-DPG’s Effect on Oxygen Affinity

A

2,3-DPG binds deoxyhemoglobin, stabilizing the low-affinity T (tense) state. This right-shifts the oxygen dissociation curve, promoting oxygen release to tissues under physiological conditions.

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13
Q

Pentose Phosphate Shunt Key Function

A

Generates NADPH, vital for keeping glutathione in the reduced form (GSH). RBCs rely on this to neutralize reactive oxygen species, preventing hemolysis from oxidative stress.

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14
Q

Why RBCs Lack Mitochondria

A

RBCs expel their organelles (including mitochondria) during maturation. This maximizes space for hemoglobin but restricts them to anaerobic glycolysis for ATP production.

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15
Q

Role of Spectrin in RBCs

A

Spectrin is a cytoskeletal protein forming a lattice beneath the membrane, maintaining biconcavity and elasticity. Defects lead to abnormal shapes (e.g., spherocytes) and increased fragility.

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16
Q

Which hormone is the central regulator of systemic iron homeostasis by binding to ferroportin and inducing its internalization?

A

Hepcidin

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17
Q

In the duodenum, dietary non‐heme iron is primarily absorbed in which oxidation state?

A

Ferrous (Fe²⁺)

Non‐heme iron is reduced from its ferric (Fe³⁺) form to the ferrous (Fe²⁺) form before absorption via DMT1 in the duodenum.

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18
Q

Which transporter is responsible for importing ferrous iron (Fe²⁺) into enterocytes?

A

DMT1 (divalent metal transporter 1)

DMT1 facilitates the uptake of ferrous iron from the intestinal lumen into the enterocytes, which is a key step in dietary iron absorption.

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19
Q

Under conditions of low intracellular iron, what effect does the IRP/IRE system have on ferritin translation and transferrin receptor expression?

A

It decreases ferritin translation and increases transferrin receptor expression

When iron is scarce, iron regulatory proteins (IRPs) bind to iron response elements (IREs) on mRNAs, thereby inhibiting ferritin synthesis (reducing storage) while stabilizing transferrin receptor mRNA to promote iron uptake.

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20
Q

Which condition upregulates hepcidin production, thereby reducing iron export from cells?

A

Inflammation

Inflammatory cytokines, especially IL-6, stimulate hepcidin production, which then binds to ferroportin to limit iron export, contributing to iron sequestration during inflammation.

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21
Q

Which protein is the sole known iron exporter in cells such as enterocytes and macrophages?

A

Ferroportin

Ferroportin is responsible for exporting iron from cells into the bloodstream; its activity is tightly regulated by hepcidin to maintain iron balance.

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22
Q

A mutation that renders ferroportin resistant to hepcidin binding would most likely lead to what condition?

A

Systemic iron overload

If ferroportin is resistant to hepcidin, it remains active regardless of regulatory signals, causing excessive iron export and subsequent accumulation in the body.

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23
Q

Which mechanism best explains the pathophysiology of anemia of chronic disease in terms of iron homeostasis?

A

Elevated hepcidin levels causing impaired iron release from storage

In chronic inflammatory states, high hepcidin levels trap iron in storage sites (such as macrophages), reducing its availability for red blood cell production and leading to anemia.

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24
Q

What is the critical mechanism for preventing free iron–induced oxidative damage within cells?

A

Binding of iron to ferritin for safe storage

Ferritin sequesters free iron, preventing it from participating in redox reactions that generate harmful free radicals, thereby protecting cells from oxidative damage.

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25
Which statement best summarizes the integrated regulation of iron homeostasis?
Both systemic (hepcidin) and cellular (IRP/IRE) mechanisms collaboratively maintain iron balance ## Footnote Iron homeostasis is achieved through the interplay of hepcidin regulating iron export and the IRP/IRE system controlling intracellular iron uptake and storage, ensuring overall balance.
26
Q: What hormone regulates iron absorption and release into the blood?
A: Hepcidin, produced by the liver, degrades ferroportin, reducing iron efflux from enterocytes and macrophages .
27
Q: In iron deficiency anaemia, how do serum ferritin and TIBC change?
A: ↓ Ferritin, ↑ TIBC – ferritin reflects iron stores; TIBC reflects transferrin availability .
28
Q: What is the main iron transporter in plasma?
A: Transferrin, a β-globulin synthesized in the liver .
29
Q: Name a genetic and an acquired cause of iron overload.
A: Hereditary haemochromatosis (↓ hepcidin); repeated blood transfusions (thalassaemia) .
30
Q: What type of anaemia is characterized by low MCV and low ferritin?
A: Microcytic hypochromic anaemia due to iron deficiency .
31
Q: Which lab value increases in haemolytic anaemia?
A: Reticulocyte count – marrow compensates for RBC loss .
32
Q: What vitamin deficiencies cause macrocytic anaemia?
A: Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency .
33
Q: What is the MCV classification of anaemia due to acute blood loss?
A: Normocytic normochromic anaemia .
34
Q: Which plasma protein maintains oncotic pressure and transports fatty acids?
A: Albumin .
35
Q: What is the most sensitive and early-rising acute-phase reactant?
A: C-reactive protein (CRP) – rises within 12 hours .
36
Q: What condition shows a sharp monoclonal spike in γ-region on SPE?
A: Multiple myeloma .
37
Q: Name one positive and one negative acute phase reactant.
A: Positive = CRP; Negative = Albumin .
38
Q: Which coagulation factors require vitamin K?
A: Factors II, VII, IX, X, Protein C and S .
39
Q: What causes bleeding in haemophilia A?
A: Deficiency of Factor VIII, impairing secondary haemostasis .
40
Q: What inhibits thrombin and Factor Xa?
A: Antithrombin III (a natural anticoagulant) .
41
Q: Which platelet receptor binds fibrinogen for aggregation?
A: GPIIb/IIIa .
42
Q: What type of bleeding is typical of platelet disorders?
A: Mucocutaneous bleeding: petechiae, epistaxis, menorrhagia .
43
Q: What type of bleeding is typical of clotting factor disorders?
A: Deep bleeding: hemarthrosis, muscle bleeds, delayed bleeding .
44
Q: Name three causes of thrombosis from Virchow’s triad.
A: Stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability .
45
Q: What hereditary thrombophilia is most common?
A: Factor V Leiden mutation .
46
Q: What metabolic pathway generates NADPH in RBCs?
A: Pentose phosphate pathway (HMP shunt) .
47
Q: Which gene cluster is on chromosome 16?
A: Alpha-globin gene cluster .
48
Q: What causes β-thalassaemia major?
A: Mutations in the β-globin gene → no β chains → excess α chains precipitate .
49
Q: What is the function of KLF1 in Hb switching?
A: Activates adult β-globin and indirectly suppresses fetal γ-globin via BCL11A .
50
Q: What is the globin switch during development?
A: Embryonic → Fetal (α2γ2) → Adult (α2β2) .
51
Q: What is the primary growth factor for angiogenesis?
A: VEGF-A (vascular endothelial growth factor A) .
52
Q: Which VEGF subtype promotes lymphatic vessel growth?
A: VEGF-C and VEGF-D .
53
Q: What transcription factor is stabilized during hypoxia?
A: Hypoxia-inducible factor-1α (HIF-1α) .
54
Flashcard 4: Q: What factor promotes iron availability during angiogenesis?
A: HIF-1α decreases hepcidin, increasing iron uptake .
55
Q: What happens to blood viscosity when haematocrit increases?
A: Viscosity increases due to more cell-to-cell interactions .
56
Q: What causes Rouleaux formation?
A: Low flow rates and increased plasma proteins → RBC aggregation .
57
Q: Is blood a Newtonian or Non-Newtonian fluid?
A: Non-Newtonian – viscosity changes with shear rate .
58
Q: What happens to viscosity in anaemia?
A: Decreases, due to low haematocrit
59
A 4-year-old has anemia, basophilic stippling, and intranuclear inclusions. What is the diagnosis?
A: Lead poisoning
60
Q2 (RBC Membrane): What is the role of flippase in the RBC membrane?
A: Translocates phosphatidylserine to the inner leaflet using ATP
61
Q3 (Haematopoiesis): Which transcription factor is critical for erythroid lineage commitment?
A: GATA-1
62
Q4 (MetHb): How does methemoglobin reductase restore hemoglobin function?
A: Uses NADH to reduce Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺
63
Q5 (Electrophoresis – Nephrotic Syndrome): What is the typical electrophoresis finding in nephrotic syndrome?
A: ↓ Albumin, ↑ alpha-2 globulin
64
Q6 (Coagulation – Delayed Bleeding): Which factor deficiency causes delayed bleeding with normal platelet function?
A: Factor VIII (Haemophilia A) ⸻
65
Q7 (Plasma Proteins): What is the function of haptoglobin?
A: Binds free hemoglobin to prevent renal damage
66
Q8 (G6PD Deficiency): Why does oxidative stress cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?
A: Inability to regenerate reduced glutathione
67
Q9 (Coagulation Pathway): What does the TF–FVIIa complex do?
A: Activates Factor IX and Factor X
68
Q10 (Transfusion Safety): What is the safest blood product for a type O Rh-negative child?
A: O Rh-negative red cell concentrate
69
Q12 (Thalassaemia): Which condition presents with HbF elevation and “crew-cut” skull X-ray?
A: Beta-thalassaemia major
70
Q13 (Innate Immunity – NETs): Which innate cell forms extracellular traps (NETs)?
A: Neutrophils
71
Q14 (Liver Disease Coagulation): Prolonged PT with normal aPTT in liver disease indicates what?
A: Reduced synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors ⸻
72
Q15 (Acute Phase Reactants): Which positive acute-phase protein also transports copper?
A: Ceruloplasmin
73
Q16 (Protein C Function): What does activated protein C do in coagulation?
A: Degrades Factors Va and VIIIa
74
Q17 (Factor V Leiden): What condition results from a Factor V mutation resistant to protein C?
A: Factor V Leiden thrombophilia
75
Q18 (MHC Presentation): Which MHC class presents antigen to CD4+ T cells?
A: MHC Class II
76
Q19 (Platelet Growth Factor): Which factor drives megakaryocyte differentiation and platelet production?
A: Thrombopoietin
77
Q20 (APC Bridge): Which immune cell is both phagocytic and an antigen-presenting cell?
A: Dendritic cell
78
Where in the adult body can active bone marrow be found?
In flat bones such as the skull and pelvis.
79
What is the main haemoglobin type in newborns?
Fetal hemoglobin (HbF), composed of α₂γ₂ subunits.
80
What protein regulates iron export from enterocytes and macrophages?
Hepcidin.
81
What happens to iron during inflammation?
It is sequestered in macrophages to limit pathogen access.
82
Which immunoglobulin dominates the secondary immune response?
IgG.
83
What do CD4+ T lymphocytes do?
Act as helper cells, coordinating immune responses.
84
How do leukocytes roll during diapedesis?
Via interactions between selectins and their ligands.
85
Which cell type is the most abundant leukocyte in adults?
Neutrophilic granulocytes.
86
Which cells are the most abundant in blood overall?
Erythrocytes.
87
What are BFU-Es?
Early erythroid progenitor cells that give rise to red blood cells.
88
What happens to phosphatidylserine in the normal erythrocyte membrane?
It is maintained on the inner leaflet by flippases.
89
What causes congenital spherocytosis?
Spectrin deficiency in the red cell membrane.
90
What determines ABO blood groups?
Specific oligosaccharides on red cell membrane glycoproteins.
91
What are the key by-products of erythrocyte glycolysis?
2 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 molecules of 2,3-BPG per glucose.
92
What initiates haemostasis?
Exposure of tissue factor.
93
Which blood group is considered the universal donor?
O negative.
94
What is the role of erythropoietin (EPO) in erythropoiesis?
It promotes survival and proliferation of erythroid progenitors.
95
What is the function of the hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF)?
It senses oxygen levels and upregulates erythropoietin in hypoxia.
96
What role does NADPH oxidase play in innate immunity?
Generates reactive oxygen species (ROS) in the phagosome to kill pathogens.
97
Which cells are most responsible for reactive oxygen species production in infections?
Neutrophils.
98
What is the site of hematopoietic stem cell regulation in the bone marrow?
The stem cell niche.
99
What are the two main progenitor lineages arising from hematopoietic stem cells?
Myeloid and lymphoid progenitors.
100
What is the most abundant plasma protein involved in osmotic pressure maintenance?
Albumin.
101
What is the normal localization of phosphatidylserine (PS) in red blood cells?
On the inner leaflet of the membrane.
102
What happens to blood viscosity in hypoproteinemia?
It decreases.
103
What proteins contribute to increased blood viscosity?
Plasma proteins and leukocytes.
104
What initiates primary haemostasis at the site of vascular injury?
Platelet adhesion via exposed von Willebrand factor and collagen.
105
What is the role of tissue factor in haemostasis?
It initiates the extrinsic coagulation pathway.
106
What enzyme forms fibrin D-dimers during clot breakdown?
Plasmin.
107
What is the source of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Endothelial cells.
108
What is the function of tPA?
Converts plasminogen to plasmin, initiating fibrinolysis.
109
Which molecule is a strong platelet agonist stored in dense granules?
ADP.
110
Which membrane defect is responsible for congenital spherocytosis?
Spectrin deficiency.
111
What are the two main by-products of glycolysis in red blood cells (per glucose)?
2 ATP and 2 NADH.
112
What is the primary allosteric modulator of hemoglobin–oxygen affinity in RBCs?
2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG).
113
What causes microcytosis in nutritional anaemias?
Iron deficiency.
114
Which vitamin is required for DNA synthesis and erythroblast maturation?
Folate (and B12).
115
What are the key functions of CD4+ T cells?
Cytokine secretion and coordination of immune responses.
116
What is the function of the C3b complement fragment?
Acts as an opsonin for phagocytosis.
117
What protein sequesters free hemoglobin to prevent oxidative damage?
Haptoglobin.
118
What is the most abundant plasma protein?
Albumin.
119
What is the function of hepcidin in iron metabolism?
Hepcidin inhibits iron export by degrading ferroportin on enterocytes and macrophages.
120
What is the function of transferrin?
It transports iron in the plasma to cells, particularly in the bone marrow.
121
Which cell gives rise to both myeloid and lymphoid lineages?
The hematopoietic stem cell (HSC).
122
What proteins are considered acute phase reactants?
CRP, fibrinogen, serum amyloid A, haptoglobin, and hepcidin.
123
What is the function of haptoglobin?
Binds free hemoglobin in the blood to prevent loss and oxidative damage.
124
Which factors are vitamin K–dependent?
Factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, and protein S.
125
What is the role of GATA-1 in hematopoiesis?
Promotes erythroid and megakaryocyte lineage development.
126
Which transporter allows dietary iron uptake into enterocytes?
DMT1 (Divalent Metal Transporter 1).
127
What lab findings are typical in anemia of chronic disease?
Low serum iron, low TIBC, high ferritin.
128
What is the function of the erythrocyte membrane protein band 3?
Exports bicarbonate and imports chloride (anion exchange).
129
What does PS (phosphatidylserine) exposure on RBCs indicate?
It marks the cell for eryptosis (RBC apoptosis).
130
What is the role of PU.1 in hematopoiesis?
Drives differentiation toward the granulocyte-monocyte lineage.
131
What distinguishes macrocytic anemia from microcytic anemia on CBC?
Macrocytic: High MCV; Microcytic: Low MCV.
132
Which coagulation factor deficiency is associated with Haemophilia A?
Factor VIII.
133
What condition shows an electrophoresis curve with a flat gamma peak?
Agammaglobulinemia.
134
Which blood group antigen corresponds to the D antigen?
Rhesus (Rh) positive.
135
Which immunoglobulin is the first produced in an immune response?
IgM.
136
What role does VEGF play in tumors?
Stimulates angiogenesis to provide blood supply to growing tumors.
137
What’s the major energy source of red blood cells?
Anaerobic glycolysis.
138
Which immunoglobulin class can cross the placenta?
IgG.
139
What process leads to the formation of fibrin D-dimers?
Plasmin-mediated fibrin clot degradation.
140
What is the major source of thrombopoietin?
The liver.
141
Which cell types are derived from the common lymphoid progenitor?
B cells, T cells, and NK cells.
142
What is the major function of eosinophils in immunity?
Defense against parasites and modulating allergic reactions.
143
What is the primary chemotactic signal for neutrophils?
IL-8 (CXCL8).
144
What does a prolonged aPTT with normal PT suggest?
Intrinsic pathway deficiency (e.g., Haemophilia A or B).
145
What vitamin is essential for DNA synthesis and erythroblast division?
Vitamin B12.
146
Which condition shows target cells, microcytosis, and basophilic stippling on a blood film?
Thalassemia.
147
Which iron transport protein is upregulated in iron deficiency?
Transferrin.
148
What is the main mechanism of anaemia in chronic kidney disease?
Reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys.
149
Which enzyme is deficient in G6PD deficiency?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
150
What laboratory finding indicates intravascular hemolysis?
Low haptoglobin.
151
What is the primary clotting factor measured by PT?
Factor VII.
152
What test is used to screen for extrinsic pathway abnormalities?
Prothrombin time (PT).
153
What coagulation factor is activated by both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?
Factor X.
154
What molecule links the innate and adaptive immune systems?
Dendritic cell.
155
What is the role of BCL11A in hemoglobin switching?
Represses γ-globin gene to promote switch from HbF to HbA.
156
What test is used to monitor warfarin therapy?
Prothrombin Time (PT) / International Normalized Ratio (INR).
157
Which anticoagulant activates antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin and Factor Xa?
Heparin.
158
Which vitamin is necessary for γ-carboxylation of clotting factors?
Vitamin K.
159
What causes prolonged bleeding time with normal PT and aPTT?
Platelet function disorders (e.g., Glanzmann or Bernard–Soulier).
160
What are Howell–Jolly bodies a sign of?
Hyposplenia or asplenia (absence of splenic clearance).
161
Which protein cross-links fibrin to stabilize the clot?
Factor XIII.
162
What is the cause of Heinz bodies in G6PD deficiency?
Oxidized, denatured hemoglobin precipitating inside RBCs.
163
What blood product is given to correct fibrinogen deficiency?
Cryoprecipitate.
164
What immunoglobulin is most efficient at activating complement?
IgM.
165
Which protein inhibits thrombin and Factor Xa and is enhanced by heparin?
Antithrombin III.
166
What lab pattern suggests DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)?
Prolonged PT/aPTT, low platelets, low fibrinogen, high D-dimer.
167
What is the main energy-generating pathway in mature RBCs?
Anaerobic glycolysis (Embden–Meyerhof pathway).
168
What is the main function of 2,3-BPG in red cells?
Decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, promoting oxygen release to tissues.
169
Which protein prevents spontaneous activation of complement on host cells?
CD59 (protectin).
170
Which component of the complement system acts as an opsonin?
C3b.
171
What condition is caused by a defect in the β-globin gene leading to HbS formation?
Sickle cell disease.
172
Which cytokine stimulates neutrophil production in the bone marrow?
Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor (G-CSF).
173
Which test evaluates platelet function in vitro under shear stress?
Platelet function analyzer (PFA-100).
174
What is the function of factor V in coagulation?
Acts as a cofactor for prothrombinase complex (with Factor Xa).
175
What is a clinical feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
Intravascular hemolysis due to complement-mediated RBC lysis.
176
What is the globin chain composition of Hemoglobin Bart’s?
γ₄ (gamma tetramers) — seen in α-thalassemia (–/–), hydrops fetalis.
177
What type of hemoglobin is elevated in β-thalassemia minor?
HbA₂.
178
Which hemoglobinopathy causes sickling of RBCs under low oxygen tension?
Sickle cell disease (HbS mutation in β-globin).
179
What blood smear finding is classic in G6PD deficiency during oxidative stress?
Bite cells and Heinz bodies.
180
What is the main cytokine driving eosinophil production?
IL-5.
181
What is the first step in platelet adhesion during haemostasis?
Binding of GPIb to von Willebrand factor on exposed subendothelium.
182
Which clotting factor is most sensitive to vitamin K deficiency?
Factor VII (shortest half-life, extrinsic pathway).
183
What disorder results from GPIIb/IIIa deficiency?
Glanzmann thrombasthenia (defective platelet aggregation).
184
What causes thrombosis in Factor V Leiden mutation?
Factor V becomes resistant to degradation by activated Protein C.
185
What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?
Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, blocking activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
186
What is the effect of prostacyclin (PGI₂) on platelets?
Inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation.
187
Which molecule provides the structural backbone for RBC membrane flexibility?
Spectrin.
188
What lab finding distinguishes intravascular from extravascular hemolysis?
Intravascular hemolysis → ↓ haptoglobin, hemoglobinuria; Extravascular → splenomegaly, ↑ indirect bilirubin.
189
What is the normal adult hemoglobin composition (HbA)?
α₂β₂.
190
What cytokine stimulates B-cell class switching and IgE production?
IL-4.
191
What is the role of ceruloplasmin in iron metabolism?
Oxidizes Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺ to allow loading onto transferrin.
192
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE?
Type I (immediate hypersensitivity).
193
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
Plasma contains clotting factors; serum does not.
194
What triggers the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
Tissue factor exposure following endothelial injury.
195
Which complement component initiates the classical pathway?
C1q (binds to IgG or IgM on antigen).
196
Which protein defects are classically associated with hereditary elliptocytosis (HE)?
Spectrin and Protein 4.1
197
How does HE differ mechanistically from hereditary spherocytosis (HS)?
HE = failure of horizontal interactions (spectrin–spectrin or spectrin–actin); HS = failure of vertical interactions (e.g., ankyrin–band 3)
198
What shape abnormality is seen in hereditary elliptocytosis?
Elliptocytes (cigar-shaped RBCs)
199
What is the function of Bevacizumab?
It is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits VEGF, blocking angiogenesis.
200
Which conditions commonly use Bevacizumab?
Colorectal cancer, glioblastoma, and wet age-related macular degeneration
201
Which factor upregulates VEGF during hypoxia?
HIF-1α
202
Does HIF-1α promote or inhibit angiogenesis?
Promotes angiogenesis by increasing VEGF expression.