Blood/f Flashcards

(145 cards)

1
Q

The structure of a RBC

A

Bioconcave disk, thin middle, thick outer edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Does a RBC have a nucleus or mitochondria?

A

NO (so O2 cant be stolen)(must use fermentation through glycolysis pathway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why does a RBC have a large surface area?

A

so it can exchange O2 and CO2 quicker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RBCs stack for what reason?

A

so they can pass easily through narrow capillaries. (they can also bend and flex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the average volume of a single RBC?

A

Mean Corpuscular volume (MCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the name of the abbreviation Hb

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hb is a _____ in RBCs than have 2___ and 2_____

A

protein/alpha chains/beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Each molecule of heme contains how many chains? and what do they contain?

A

4/ Iron (Iron molecules bind with oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Each RBC can carry 4 O2s at a time because…

A

it has a heme/iron molecule on each alpha and beta chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HbO2 is….

A

“oxyhemaglobin” because oxygen is bound causing the blood to be bright red.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When the oxygen is released…

A

the RBC becomes deoxyhemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When CO2 binds to hemoglobin…

A

it becomes carbaminohemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when Hb level is low, person becomes weak, lethargic, and confused… what do they “have”?

A

anemia (brain isn’t getting enough oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the presence of heme in urine

A

Hemogloburia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

presence of whole RBCs in urine

A

Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When RBC is old, the body breaks down the cell. each heme becomes..

A

Biliverdin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Abnormal Hemoglobin (ex. thalassemia and sickle cell anemia)
Thalassemia is
Sickle cell anemia is

A

T: inability to produce adequate numbers of alpha and beta chains.
S: One single mutation in beta chains (causes call to become stiff and curved and very painful)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bruising is discolored due to?

A

Biliverdin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

damaged/old RBCs are _________ by macrophages which break down ________ into a ____ pigment called Biliverdin

A

Phagocytized/hemoglobin/green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Biliverdin is then converted(oxidized) into ______ in the blood stream

A

bilirubin (orange/yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_____ binds to bilirubin and transports to the ______ for the excretion in the bile

A

Albumin/liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

if the liver cannot absorb and secrete bilirubin and people turn yellow and this is called _______?

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_________(plasma protein in blood) binds to excess iron

A

Tranferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Antigens are substances (_______,_______) which are “normally” foreign to the body and can produce an immune response if ______ are present

A

most(Toxins, microbes)/ antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Antibodies have what type of shape?
Y
26
The human body produces special ______ called antibodies when it encounters "antigen". the antibody will bind to antigen causing it to______
proteins/agglutinate(clump)
27
most _____ are proteins located on the cell membrane of _______
antigens/microbes
28
what is determined by the presence and absence of a surface antigen?
Blood type (A,B and Rh)
29
Type A has surface antigen A and antibodies to...
B
30
type B has surface antigen _ and _ antibodies
B/A
31
What type has surface antigens A and B and no antibodies?
AB
32
Does type O have any surface antigens or antibodies? (if so what?)
no/ A and B antibodies
33
who is the universal donor?
O (dOnOr)
34
who is the universal receiver?
AB
35
Rh
Rhesus system
36
Rh is just another what?
surface antigen
37
Rh positive indicates...
the presence of Rh surface antigens
38
Rh negative indicates...
the absence of Rh surface antigens
39
if your blood agglutinates and kills you, this is the effect of..
receiving the wrong blood type
40
Erythroblastosis fetalis
hemolytic disease of a newborn
41
Granular leukocytes (stained granules)
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
42
Agranular leukocytes (few if any granules)
monocytes and lymphocytes
43
qualifications of WBC is done using
Differential count
44
differential count can diagnose
the disease/bacteria that is causing infection
45
_ever _et _onkeys _at _ananas
Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils
46
Leukopenia
low numbers of WBCs
47
Leukocytosis
Excessive numbers of WBCs (leukemia)
48
4 Characteristics of WBCs?
Amoeboid movement, can migrate out into the bloodstream, attracted to chemical stimuli, Phagocytosing(bacteria engulfing)
49
Amoeboid movement
mobility to catch microbes
50
migrate into bloodstream
they can squeeze between cells to get out of the vessels to get to surrounding tissue
51
Positive chemotaxis
attracted to chemical stimuli a) cells send out a "call for help" b) WBCs "hear it" and come to the needing area.
52
what are capable of phagocytosing?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes
53
specific defenses?
lymphocytes (specific viruses)
54
non-specific?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes (fungi, virus, bacteria, etc)
55
5 types of WBCs?
Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes
56
Neutrophils..
(polymorphonuclear or "polys") granules are chemically neutral so they are hard to stain with acidic/basic dyes.
57
how many lobes does a neutrophil have?
2-5 (beads)
58
the granules of a neutrophil are filled with?
lysosomal enzymes and bactericidal compounds.
59
What are basically the "first responders"? they are the first to arrive at an injury site and attack and digest bacteria that were marked by antibodies...
Neutrophils
60
Neutrophils ______ bacteria and release its contents onto ______ ________ which destroy it.
engulf/engulfed bacteria
61
Degranulation is what?
the release of granular contents into engulfed area
62
Neutrophils also release _______ and leukotrienes which contribute to ____ inflammation to control spread of
prostaglandins/ local
63
how long do neutrophils last unless they are attacking bacteria and then they only last how many amount of minutes?
they last 10 hours normally but when they are attacking they only last 30 minutes. they are the ones that form pus.
64
Eosinophils (acidophils). why are they named red?
they are stained with eosin, an acidic dye. (bi-lobed nucleus)
65
eosinophils defend against multicellular ______ such as flukes or ________ _____
parasites/ parasitic worms
66
eosinophils ______ toxic compounds
exocytose (kick out)
67
what causes eosinophils to activate?
allergens
68
Basophils get their name because....
they are stained with basic dyes which causes them to be blue or purple. (high numbers of granules block nucleus)
69
basophils discharge their contents of _____ and _____ which causes inflammation of an injury.
histamine/heparin
70
are Monocytes large or small?
Large, 2 times the size of a red blood cell
71
monocytes travel in bloodstream, but when they leave, they are called.....
Macrophages.
72
what do macrophages do to items larger than themselves?
swallow up or engulf
73
what kind of shape does a monocyte nucleus have?
kidney bean
74
there are how many types of Lymphocytes? and what are they?
3/ T cells, B cells, NK cells
75
what is a T cell responsible for?
"cell mediated immunity" will attack bacteria one on one
76
B cells are responsible for what?
"humoral immunity" production of antibodies that will attack antigens all over the body
77
What are NK cells for?
they kill abnormal tissue cells (cancer)
78
Another name for Platelets?
Thrombocytes
79
How long do platelets live?
7-10 days
80
Shape of a platelet?
Round disk shape with out a nucleus
81
What is formed when megakaryocyte breaks up to form several thousand platelets so they are fragment of a cell.
Platelets
82
How many platelets should you have per mL?
150,000 to 500,000 per mL
83
How many platelets are in circulation?
2/3
84
How many platelets are in the spleen as reserve in case of a circulatory crisis?
1/3
85
Released from kidney, causing platelets to be formed.
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
86
Cause the blood to clot upon injury.
Platelets
87
Low numbers of plates causes ______ ______.
Excessive bleeding
88
High numbers of platelets can cause _____ _____.
Blood clots
89
3 Properties of platelets?
- Aggregation (Gather together) - Adhesiveness (Stick together) - Agglutinate (Form clumps)
90
what is the purpose of EPO?
causes RBCs to produce
91
What phase is it when the blood vessel is cut and the wall contracts to slow bleeding?
Vascular phase
92
contraction exposes the _____ _____ of endothelial cells to bloodstream
basal lamina
93
what does endothelial cells release? and what does it cause?
they release endothelins/ smooth muscle and endothelial cell division
94
platelet phase is when.....?
the blood vessel is damaged.
95
under epithelium is the _____ membrane or _____ lamina
basement/ basal
96
The basal lamina has _____ in it and when it is exposed, the _____ will bind to the exposed collagen and will "stick" to the surface of the _____ _____
collagen/platelets/vessel wall
97
when platelets are exposed to collagen, they are activated and then they dump their contents into what? what does it activate, if it activates anything?
plasma/activates other platelets
98
platelets aggregate and form ______ _____ that close break in the vessel.
"platelet plug"
99
when a platelet changes shape, they become more what?? when they arrive at an injury site?
spherical
100
platelets release chemicals that help with _____ _____
vessel repair
101
cells outside of the injury site release other chemicals to stop ______
clotting
102
the coagulation phase starts when?
30 seconds after injury. and blood clotting starts
103
what does factor X (10) activate?
Prothrombinase
104
prothrombinase converts what into what?
prothrombin into thrombin
105
Thrombin converts fibrinogen into what?
fibrin
106
fibrin forms a network which forms a?????
blood clot
107
Ca +2 and 13 factor proteins are converted from what to what?
proenzymes to active enzymes
108
how many pathways are their for blood clotting?
3
109
what are the three pathways of blood clotting?
extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway, and common pathway
110
what is another name for extrinsic pathway?
Tissue factor pathway
111
where does the extrinsic pathway begin?
outside of bloodstream
112
what is the primary pathway of coagulation?
extrinsic pathway
113
several _____ _____ are converted to activate form to initiate the cascade.
pro-enzymes
114
extrinsic pathway begins with release of which factor by damaged endothelial cells
factor III
115
what is another name for intrinsic pathway?
contact activation pathway
116
where does the intrinsic pathway begin?
inside the bloodstream when proenzymes are exposed to collagen fibers
117
when does the common pathway begin?
when the enzymes from either the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway activates factor X which forms prothrombinase
118
and again, prothrombinase converts prothrombin into what?
thrombin
119
how many blood clotting inhibitors are their?
4
120
what are the 4 blood clotting inhibitors?
anticoagulants, heparin, thrombomodulin, prostacyclin
121
anticoagulants is also...
antithrombin III
122
heparin prevents blood clotting where?
in veins
123
Thrombomodulin activates _____ and it inactivates several clotting factors
Protein C
124
Prostacyclin inhibits what aggregation?
platelet
125
what is required for blood clotting?
ions and vitamins
126
what is the dissolving of the clot after repairs are completed?
fibrinolysis
127
cells make ______ (proenzyme) that becomes plasmin which degrades ______
plasminogen/fibrin
128
what is the drifting blood clot, the block vessel causes tissue to die downstream
embolus
129
damage to the tissue in embolus
infarct
130
myocardial infarction
heart attack
131
blood clot inside a vessel causing platelets to stick?
thrombus
132
area where platelets stick is called?
plaque
133
inadequate production of a clotting factor usually factor VIII due to genetic inbreeding?
hemophilia
134
aspirin inactivates platelet enzymes so it helps ____ blood
thin
135
what are anemias?
condition/disease caused by low oxygen transport by blood due to low RBC counts or abnormality of RBC or hemoglobbin
136
beta chains are mutated? the RBCs look like half moons and cannot pass through capillaries without causing pain.
sickle-cell anemia (resistance to malaria)
137
caused by insufficient iron in RBCs?
Iron deficient anemia
138
causes abnormal ratio of hemoglobin chains (alpha/beta) due to DNA defects
Thalassemia
139
how may types of leukemias are there?
2
140
what are the two types of leukemia?
myeloid/lymphoid
141
characterized by abnormal granulocytes or other cells in bone marrow
myeloid
142
involve abnormal lymphocytes?
lymphoid
143
what is pre-hepatic/hemolytic?
caused by too many RBCs being broken down at once
144
Hepatic?
caused by processing bilirubin in liver not functioning correctly
145
post-hepatic
disruption of bile removal caused by gallstones in bile duct or cancer in head of pancreas.