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Histology - Exam 4 > Blood/Hemopoiesis > Flashcards

Blood/Hemopoiesis Flashcards

(69 cards)

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1
Q

what constitutes blood?

A

formed elements (cells) + plasma

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2
Q

what does plasma contain?

A
  • water
  • proteins (fibrinogen, albumin, globulins)
  • solutes
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3
Q

how many erythrocytes are contained in an individual’s peripheral blood?

A

25 trillion

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4
Q

what percent of total blood volume do RBCs make up?

A

45%

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5
Q

describe RBCs

A
  • biconcave w/ no nucleus or organelles
  • stain eosinophilic
  • 1/3 of mass = Hb
  • lifespan of 120 days
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6
Q

where are RBCs destroyed?

A

spleen, liver, bone marrow

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7
Q

what are reticulocytes?

A

new RBCs from bone marrow - complete Hb synthesis and mature 1-2 days after entering circulation

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8
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

genetic alteration in the Hb beta-chain (single aa substitution Val -> Glu) -> altered HbS denatures and clusters band3 protein, ankyrin and spectrin

  • stuck in splenic sinuses, removed by macrophages
  • adhere to capillary endothelial cells -> occlusion
  • enlarged spleen
  • short life span
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9
Q

hereditary spherocytosis

A

inherited defects in RBC membrane - spheroidal, less deformable cells

  • SPECTRIN DEFICIENCY
  • some have ankyrin mutation
  • cells lack central pale zone in blood smears
  • patients have anemia and splenomegaly
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10
Q

what produces RBC biconcave shape and allows cells to change shape?

A

spectrin in association w/ ankyrin and actin

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11
Q

what does the inability to alter shape of spherocytes result in?

A

sequestration in the splenic cords and failure to pass into splenic sinuses -> enables destruction by macrophages

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12
Q

what are platelets?

A

cell fragments 2-5um in diamater derived from megakaryocytes

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13
Q

what do megakaryocytes have that are connected to extracellular space?

A

platelet demarcation channels derived from plasma membrane

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14
Q

what is the function of platelets?

A
  • blood clotting
  • clot retraction
  • clot dissolution
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15
Q

what do platelets contain?

A
  • alpha granules
  • dense core granules
  • numerous cytoplasmic microtubules
  • vasoactive compounds (TXA2 derived via cyclooxygenase metabolism)
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16
Q

describe alpha granules of platelets

A

lysosomal

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17
Q

describe dense core granules of platelets

A

contain serotonin, ADP, ATP, calcium

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18
Q

what happens to platelets upon activation?

A

platelets change from their discoid shape to more flattened appearance w/ extensive ruffling of cell membrane -> associated w/ rearrangements of cytoskeleton -> microtubule redistribution and rapid polymerization of actin into microfilaments

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19
Q

describe neutrophils

A
  • granulocytes 9-12um in diameter
  • 3-5 lobed nucleus
  • terminally differentiated (no mitosis)
  • specific granules
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20
Q

describe the specific granules of neutrophils

A
  • small: alkaline phosphatase, phagocytins

- large: azurophilic granules w/ myeloperoxidase and lysosomal enzymes

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21
Q

what is the first phagocytic cell to appear during inflammation?

A

neutrophil

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22
Q

what percentage of WBCs are neutrophils?

A

65-75%

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23
Q

what are immature neutrophils?

A

stab/band cells - horseshoe nucleus

  • live 6-10 hours in blood and 2-3 days in tissue
  • banding due to neutrophils in different stages of differentiation
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24
Q

describe basophils

A

granulocytes 10-12um in diameter

  • low numbers in blood (0.5-2% of WBCs)
  • contain large basophilic granules
  • lobed nucleus (hard to see due to granules)
  • lives 1-10 hours in blood
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25
what do the large basophilic granules of basophils contain?
- hydrolytic enzymes - histamine - heparan sulfate proteoglycan - slow reacting substance
26
what do the basophilic granules of basophils secrete?
eosinphil chemotactic factor
27
what do basophils bind?
IgE (like mast cells)
28
describe eosinophils
granulocytes 12-15um in diamater - 0-4% of WBCs - large eosinophilic granules - bilobed nucleus - leave bloodstream and enter CT -> increased #s in allergic reactions and parasitic infections
29
what do the large eosinophilic granules of eosinophils contain?
- arylsulfatase - histaminase - acid phosphatase - ribonuclease - peroxidase
30
function of histaminase
decreases severity of allergic reaction
31
describe monocytes
agranular phagocytic leukocytes - 20-25 um diam (BIG) - 2-9% of WBCS - live 1-3 days in blood - reniform nucleus - lysosomes
32
what happens to monocytes when they moves from blood into tissue spaces?
differentiate into other cells in monocyte/macrophage lineage: - macrophage - osteoclast - giant cells
33
what are monocytes important for?
- regulation of immune response | - inflammation
34
describe lymphocytes
small, medium, and large mononuclear cells - 20-35% of WBCs - round/oval nucleus in small cells - reniform nucleus in large cells - VERY LITTLE CYTOPLASM
35
where are T and B lymphocytes derived from?
T: derived from bone marrow, mature in thymus B: derived from bone marrow lymphoid progenitor cells
36
what are large granular lymphocytes?
null cells - may differentiate into natural killer or killer cells
37
describe T cell vs. B cell projections
T cells generally have fewer surface projections than B cells
38
describe bone marrow in the fetus
it is an actively hematopoietic tissue
39
describe adult bone marrow
less hematopoietic than fetal b/c it regresses from hematopoietic red marrow to resting, fat-storing yellow marrow
40
where is red marrow still present in the adult?
- vertebrae - sternum - ribs - skull - pelvis - proximal femur
41
where is bone marrow typically taken from?
iliac crest
42
when does hematopoiesis begin?
early in embryonic development: - second week of gestation in yolk sac - 6th week in liver
43
what is differentiation of bone marrow progenitor cells stimulated by?
various cytokines that are colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) - interleukin-7 (lymphoid precursors-B/T cells) - granulocyte-monocyte CSF - monocyte CSF - granulocyte CSF
44
what do myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to, respectively?
lymphoid: gives rise to lymphocyte cells myeloid: everything else in blood
45
function of erythropoietin and where does it come from?
from kidney -> causes CFU-E cells to differentiate into erythroblasts
46
what is the order of erythrocyte differentiation?
erythroblast -> basophilic erythroblast -> polychromatophilic erythroblast -> orthochromatic erythroblast
47
when is the developing cell a basophilic erythroblast?
when ribosomes accumulate in the cytoplasm, increasing erythroblast basophilia
48
when is the developing cell a polychromatophilic erythroblast?
when ribosomes bind Hb mRNA, synthesize Hb -> reduces the cell's basophilia
49
when is the developing cell an orthochromatic erythroblast?
when [Hb] increases, causing cytoplasm to stain pink | also called normoblast
50
what happens once the cell starts accumulating Hb as an orthochromatic erythroblast?
- nucleus condenses, undergoes heterochromatic involution | - cell sheds nucleus and most mitochondria and polyribosomes -> forms an erythrocyte
51
what happens to the Hb from destroyed RBCs?
Hb degrades into: - bilirubin and other materials, which are excreted in bile - iron, which is transported by serum glycoprotein transferrin to bone marrow to make to synthesize new Hb
52
relationship of reticulocyte vs. polychromatophilic erythroblast?
reticulocyte is more mature version of polychromatophilic erythroblast
53
what is granulopoiesis?
when granulocytes develop from CFU-S cells
54
what is the first recognizable granulocyte precursor in granulopoiesis?
myeloblast - large euchromatic nucleus with several nucleoli and no granules in a basophilic cytoplasm
55
what does the myeloblast turn into?
becomes promyelocyte when the cytoplasm accumulates a few azurophilic (nonspecific) granules - nucleus accumulates heterochromatin - slight indentation occurs in nucleus
56
describe promyelocyte differentiation
begins as neutrophilic, eosinophilic, or basophilic specific granules accumulate in cytoplasm and nucleus continues to condense and lobulate
57
what is a metamyelocyte?
has accumulated many specific granules but has yet to complete the process of nuclear condensation and lobulation
58
describe monopoiesis
monocytes develop from same CFU-S cells as granulocytes | -but there is a different developmental process that includes monoblast and promonocyte stages
59
describe lymphopoiesis
lymphocytes develop from lymphoblasts, which are derived from CFU-Ly cells
60
what are megakaryoblasts?
differentiated CFU-S cells
61
what induces differentiation of megakaryoblasts into megakaryocytes?
thrombopoietin
62
describe megakaryocytes
- only exist in bone marrow - multilobulated - do not divide but become larger w/ nucleus -> polyploid (endomitosis)
63
describe release of platelets from megakaryocytes
slowly release small cytoplasmic fragments into the bloodstream in the bone marrow vascular channels
64
when do the megakaryocytes fragment?
when the cell plasma membrane fuses w/ sER membranes
65
how long do platelets remain in bloodstream?
7-10 days
66
acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
- rapid growth of immature WBCs | - common in children
67
acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
- unregulated growth of WBCs from myeloid lineage | - common in adults
68
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
- B cell cancer | - mainly in adult males
69
chronic myelogenous leukemis (CML)
- unregulated growth of myeloid cells (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) in bone marrow - translocation b/w chromosome 9 and 22 (philadelphia chromosome/translocation)

Histology - Exam 4 (5 decks)

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