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Histology - Exam 4 > Blood/Hemopoiesis > Flashcards

Blood/Hemopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

what constitutes blood?

A

formed elements (cells) + plasma

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2
Q

what does plasma contain?

A
  • water
  • proteins (fibrinogen, albumin, globulins)
  • solutes
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3
Q

how many erythrocytes are contained in an individual’s peripheral blood?

A

25 trillion

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4
Q

what percent of total blood volume do RBCs make up?

A

45%

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5
Q

describe RBCs

A
  • biconcave w/ no nucleus or organelles
  • stain eosinophilic
  • 1/3 of mass = Hb
  • lifespan of 120 days
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6
Q

where are RBCs destroyed?

A

spleen, liver, bone marrow

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7
Q

what are reticulocytes?

A

new RBCs from bone marrow - complete Hb synthesis and mature 1-2 days after entering circulation

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8
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

genetic alteration in the Hb beta-chain (single aa substitution Val -> Glu) -> altered HbS denatures and clusters band3 protein, ankyrin and spectrin

  • stuck in splenic sinuses, removed by macrophages
  • adhere to capillary endothelial cells -> occlusion
  • enlarged spleen
  • short life span
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9
Q

hereditary spherocytosis

A

inherited defects in RBC membrane - spheroidal, less deformable cells

  • SPECTRIN DEFICIENCY
  • some have ankyrin mutation
  • cells lack central pale zone in blood smears
  • patients have anemia and splenomegaly
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10
Q

what produces RBC biconcave shape and allows cells to change shape?

A

spectrin in association w/ ankyrin and actin

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11
Q

what does the inability to alter shape of spherocytes result in?

A

sequestration in the splenic cords and failure to pass into splenic sinuses -> enables destruction by macrophages

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12
Q

what are platelets?

A

cell fragments 2-5um in diamater derived from megakaryocytes

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13
Q

what do megakaryocytes have that are connected to extracellular space?

A

platelet demarcation channels derived from plasma membrane

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14
Q

what is the function of platelets?

A
  • blood clotting
  • clot retraction
  • clot dissolution
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15
Q

what do platelets contain?

A
  • alpha granules
  • dense core granules
  • numerous cytoplasmic microtubules
  • vasoactive compounds (TXA2 derived via cyclooxygenase metabolism)
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16
Q

describe alpha granules of platelets

A

lysosomal

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17
Q

describe dense core granules of platelets

A

contain serotonin, ADP, ATP, calcium

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18
Q

what happens to platelets upon activation?

A

platelets change from their discoid shape to more flattened appearance w/ extensive ruffling of cell membrane -> associated w/ rearrangements of cytoskeleton -> microtubule redistribution and rapid polymerization of actin into microfilaments

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19
Q

describe neutrophils

A
  • granulocytes 9-12um in diameter
  • 3-5 lobed nucleus
  • terminally differentiated (no mitosis)
  • specific granules
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20
Q

describe the specific granules of neutrophils

A
  • small: alkaline phosphatase, phagocytins

- large: azurophilic granules w/ myeloperoxidase and lysosomal enzymes

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21
Q

what is the first phagocytic cell to appear during inflammation?

A

neutrophil

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22
Q

what percentage of WBCs are neutrophils?

A

65-75%

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23
Q

what are immature neutrophils?

A

stab/band cells - horseshoe nucleus

  • live 6-10 hours in blood and 2-3 days in tissue
  • banding due to neutrophils in different stages of differentiation
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24
Q

describe basophils

A

granulocytes 10-12um in diameter

  • low numbers in blood (0.5-2% of WBCs)
  • contain large basophilic granules
  • lobed nucleus (hard to see due to granules)
  • lives 1-10 hours in blood
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25
Q

what do the large basophilic granules of basophils contain?

A
  • hydrolytic enzymes
  • histamine
  • heparan sulfate proteoglycan
  • slow reacting substance
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26
Q

what do the basophilic granules of basophils secrete?

A

eosinphil chemotactic factor

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27
Q

what do basophils bind?

A

IgE (like mast cells)

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28
Q

describe eosinophils

A

granulocytes 12-15um in diamater

  • 0-4% of WBCs
  • large eosinophilic granules
  • bilobed nucleus
  • leave bloodstream and enter CT -> increased #s in allergic reactions and parasitic infections
29
Q

what do the large eosinophilic granules of eosinophils contain?

A
  • arylsulfatase
  • histaminase
  • acid phosphatase
  • ribonuclease
  • peroxidase
30
Q

function of histaminase

A

decreases severity of allergic reaction

31
Q

describe monocytes

A

agranular phagocytic leukocytes - 20-25 um diam (BIG)

  • 2-9% of WBCS
  • live 1-3 days in blood
  • reniform nucleus
  • lysosomes
32
Q

what happens to monocytes when they moves from blood into tissue spaces?

A

differentiate into other cells in monocyte/macrophage lineage:

  • macrophage
  • osteoclast
  • giant cells
33
Q

what are monocytes important for?

A
  • regulation of immune response

- inflammation

34
Q

describe lymphocytes

A

small, medium, and large mononuclear cells

  • 20-35% of WBCs
  • round/oval nucleus in small cells
  • reniform nucleus in large cells
  • VERY LITTLE CYTOPLASM
35
Q

where are T and B lymphocytes derived from?

A

T: derived from bone marrow, mature in thymus
B: derived from bone marrow lymphoid progenitor cells

36
Q

what are large granular lymphocytes?

A

null cells - may differentiate into natural killer or killer cells

37
Q

describe T cell vs. B cell projections

A

T cells generally have fewer surface projections than B cells

38
Q

describe bone marrow in the fetus

A

it is an actively hematopoietic tissue

39
Q

describe adult bone marrow

A

less hematopoietic than fetal b/c it regresses from hematopoietic red marrow to resting, fat-storing yellow marrow

40
Q

where is red marrow still present in the adult?

A
  • vertebrae
  • sternum
  • ribs
  • skull
  • pelvis
  • proximal femur
41
Q

where is bone marrow typically taken from?

A

iliac crest

42
Q

when does hematopoiesis begin?

A

early in embryonic development:

  • second week of gestation in yolk sac
  • 6th week in liver
43
Q

what is differentiation of bone marrow progenitor cells stimulated by?

A

various cytokines that are colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

  • interleukin-7 (lymphoid precursors-B/T cells)
  • granulocyte-monocyte CSF
  • monocyte CSF
  • granulocyte CSF
44
Q

what do myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to, respectively?

A

lymphoid: gives rise to lymphocyte cells
myeloid: everything else in blood

45
Q

function of erythropoietin and where does it come from?

A

from kidney -> causes CFU-E cells to differentiate into erythroblasts

46
Q

what is the order of erythrocyte differentiation?

A

erythroblast -> basophilic erythroblast -> polychromatophilic erythroblast -> orthochromatic erythroblast

47
Q

when is the developing cell a basophilic erythroblast?

A

when ribosomes accumulate in the cytoplasm, increasing erythroblast basophilia

48
Q

when is the developing cell a polychromatophilic erythroblast?

A

when ribosomes bind Hb mRNA, synthesize Hb -> reduces the cell’s basophilia

49
Q

when is the developing cell an orthochromatic erythroblast?

A

when [Hb] increases, causing cytoplasm to stain pink

also called normoblast

50
Q

what happens once the cell starts accumulating Hb as an orthochromatic erythroblast?

A
  • nucleus condenses, undergoes heterochromatic involution

- cell sheds nucleus and most mitochondria and polyribosomes -> forms an erythrocyte

51
Q

what happens to the Hb from destroyed RBCs?

A

Hb degrades into:

  • bilirubin and other materials, which are excreted in bile
  • iron, which is transported by serum glycoprotein transferrin to bone marrow to make to synthesize new Hb
52
Q

relationship of reticulocyte vs. polychromatophilic erythroblast?

A

reticulocyte is more mature version of polychromatophilic erythroblast

53
Q

what is granulopoiesis?

A

when granulocytes develop from CFU-S cells

54
Q

what is the first recognizable granulocyte precursor in granulopoiesis?

A

myeloblast - large euchromatic nucleus with several nucleoli and no granules in a basophilic cytoplasm

55
Q

what does the myeloblast turn into?

A

becomes promyelocyte when the cytoplasm accumulates a few azurophilic (nonspecific) granules

  • nucleus accumulates heterochromatin
  • slight indentation occurs in nucleus
56
Q

describe promyelocyte differentiation

A

begins as neutrophilic, eosinophilic, or basophilic specific granules accumulate in cytoplasm and nucleus continues to condense and lobulate

57
Q

what is a metamyelocyte?

A

has accumulated many specific granules but has yet to complete the process of nuclear condensation and lobulation

58
Q

describe monopoiesis

A

monocytes develop from same CFU-S cells as granulocytes

-but there is a different developmental process that includes monoblast and promonocyte stages

59
Q

describe lymphopoiesis

A

lymphocytes develop from lymphoblasts, which are derived from CFU-Ly cells

60
Q

what are megakaryoblasts?

A

differentiated CFU-S cells

61
Q

what induces differentiation of megakaryoblasts into megakaryocytes?

A

thrombopoietin

62
Q

describe megakaryocytes

A
  • only exist in bone marrow
  • multilobulated
  • do not divide but become larger w/ nucleus -> polyploid (endomitosis)
63
Q

describe release of platelets from megakaryocytes

A

slowly release small cytoplasmic fragments into the bloodstream in the bone marrow vascular channels

64
Q

when do the megakaryocytes fragment?

A

when the cell plasma membrane fuses w/ sER membranes

65
Q

how long do platelets remain in bloodstream?

A

7-10 days

66
Q

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

A
  • rapid growth of immature WBCs

- common in children

67
Q

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

A
  • unregulated growth of WBCs from myeloid lineage

- common in adults

68
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

A
  • B cell cancer

- mainly in adult males

69
Q

chronic myelogenous leukemis (CML)

A
  • unregulated growth of myeloid cells (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) in bone marrow
  • translocation b/w chromosome 9 and 22 (philadelphia chromosome/translocation)

Histology - Exam 4 (5 decks)

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