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Gen Med (Haem) > Blood Transfusions > Flashcards

Blood Transfusions Flashcards

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1
Q

Which types of viral hepatitis are donor blood samples screened for?

A

B, C and E

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2
Q

What infections are all donor blood samples screened for?

A

HIV, hepatitis, HTLV and syphilis

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3
Q

How long can red cells be stored for?

A

35 days (at 4 degrees)

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4
Q

How long can FFP be stored for?

A

3 years (at -30 degrees)

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5
Q

How long can platelets be stored for?

A

7 days (at 22 degrees with agitation)

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6
Q

Which blood product contains fibrinogen, VWF, factor VIII and fibronectin?

A

Cryoprecipitate

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7
Q

The ABO system is coded for on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 9

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8
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group O?

A

OO

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9
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group A?

A

AA or AO

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10
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group B?

A

BB or BO

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11
Q

Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be blood group AB?

A

AB

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12
Q

Landsteiner’s law explains that when an individual lacks the A or B antigen on their red blood cells, what is produced in their plasma?

A

The corresponding IgM antibody

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13
Q

If an individual is blood group A, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

A antigen

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14
Q

If an individual is blood group B, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

B antigen

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15
Q

If an individual is blood group AB, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

A and B antigens

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16
Q

If an individual is blood group O, what antigen(s) will be found on their red blood cells?

A

No antigens

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17
Q

If an individual is blood group A, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

Anti-B antibodies

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18
Q

If an individual is blood group B, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

Anti-A antibodies

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19
Q

If an individual is blood group AB, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

No antibodies

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20
Q

If an individual is blood group O, what antibody/antibodies will be found in their plasma?

A

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

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21
Q

Group O blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

All blood groups

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22
Q

Group A blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

A and AB groups

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23
Q

Group B blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

B and AB groups

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24
Q

Group AB blood can be given to individuals of which blood group(s)?

A

Group AB

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25
Individuals with group O blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?
Group O
26
Individuals with group A blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?
Group A and group O
27
Individuals with group B blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?
Group B and group O
28
Individuals with group AB blood can receive blood from which blood group(s)?
Group AB, group A, group B and group O
29
Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be rhesus positive?
DD or Dd
30
Which genotype(s) may cause an individual to be rhesus negative?
dd
31
Which blood test is used to identify the ABO and Rh status of a patient's blood, and to identify the presence of clinically significant red cell antibodies?
Group and save
32
What is the best blood test to perform in a situation where blood loss is not expected but blood may be required if the blood loss is greater than anticipated?
Group and save
33
What is the best blood test to perform in a situation where blood loss is anticipated?
Crossmatch (also do a group and save)
34
How often during a blood transfusion should observations be carried out?
Before the transfusion, at 15-20 minutes, at 1 hour and at completion
35
Blood products should only be administered through which colours of cannula?
Green or grey
36
In cases of non-active bleeding, how does NICE recommend that red blood cells are given?
1 unit at a time, reassessing after each
37
What blood product would be required in cases of acute blood loss or chronic/symptomatic anaemia?
Packed red cells
38
Over what period of time should a transfusion of packed red cells be given?
2-4 hours
39
1 unit of packed red cells should increase a patient's haemoglobin level by how much?
10g/L
40
What blood product would be required in cases of haemorrhagic shock, profound thrombocytopenia and bleeding with thrombocytopenia?
Platelets
41
Over what period of time should a transfusion of platelets be given?
30 minutes
42
1 unit of platelets should increase a patient's platelet count by how much?
20-40 x 10 to the nine / L
43
Which blood product is composed of clotting factors?
Fresh frozen plasma
44
What blood product would be required in cases of DIC, haemorrhage secondary to liver disease and all massive haemorrhages?
Fresh frozen plasma
45
Over what period of time should a transfusion of fresh frozen plasma be given?
30 minutes
46
What blood product would be required in cases of DIC with low fibrinogen, Von Willebrand's disease and massive haemorrhage?
Cryoprecipitate
47
Over what period of time should a transfusion of cryoprecipitate be given?
Stat
48
Blood samples for transfusion should be sent in what colour of tube?
Pink
49
If a patient becomes unwell during a blood transfusion, what should be done initially?
Stop the transfusion, ABCDE approach, investigate the cause
50
Which blood products are automatically issued from the blood bank when the major haemorrhage protocol is activated?
4 x packed red cells and 4 x FFP
51
What type of blood can be used in an emergency?
O negative blood
52
In the major haemorrhage protocol (non-trauma), red cells and FFP should be transfused in what ratio?
2: 1
53
In the major haemorrhage protocol (trauma), red cells and FFP should be transfused in what ratio?
1: 1
54
What is the most severe type of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?
ABO incompatibility
55
Bacterial contamination of blood products is most commonly seen in transfusions involving which blood product?
Platelets
56
Which type of transfusion reaction typically causes respiratory distress within 6 hours of the transfusion?
Transfusion associated circulatory overload
57
Transfusion associated circulatory overload is most common in which patients?
The elderly, and those with cardiac/renal failure
58
What are the two potential types of mild transfusion reactions?
An isolated temperature rise of 1-2 degrees or > 38 degrees, OR an isolated rash
59
What is the treatment option for a mild transfusion reaction with an isolated temperature rise?
Paracetamol
60
What is the treatment option for a mild transfusion reaction with an isolated rash?
Anti-histamines
61
Can a blood transfusion be continued alongside a mild transfusion reaction?
Yes
62
What type of antibody is involved in acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, e.g. those caused by ABO incompatibility?
IgM
63
What type of antibody is involved in delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions?
IgG
64
In acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, is the haemolysis intra or extravascular?
Intravascular
65
In delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions, is the haemolysis intra or extravascular?
Extravascular
66
How long after transfusion does a delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction occur?
5-10 days
67
How soon after starting a transfusion do symptoms of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions occur?
Within minutes
68
What is a feature that differentiates transfusion associated circulatory overload from transfusion related acute lung injury?
Transfusion associated circulatory overload will cause hypertension (as opposed to hypotension)
69
Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to occur as a result of a blood transfusion?
Hyperkalaemia
70
How should an individual with an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction be treated?
Stop the transfusion and give generous fluid resuscitation
71
What blood product can be used to reverse the action of warfarin within 1 hour?
Prothrombin complex concentrate
72
What should always be given alongside prothrombin complex concentrate?
Vitamin K
73
How long does IV vitamin K take to reverse the action of warfarin?
4-6 hours
74
How long does oral vitamin K take to reverse the action of warfarin?
24 hours
75
A transfusion of FFP is most suitable for patients with 'clinically significant' but 'without major haemorrhage' bleeding with a PT or APTT greater than what?
1.5
76
What blood group is the universal donor of FFP?
AB
77
What are the 4 main components of cryoprecipitate?
Factor VIII, factor XIII, Von-Willebrand's factor and fibrinogen
78
Cryoprecipitate is indicated in patients with 'clinically significant' but 'without major haemorrhage' bleeding with a fibrinogen of less than what?
1.5g/L
79
Irradiated blood products are deplete of what cells?
T lymphocytes
80
The purpose of irradiated blood products is to reduce the risk of what?
Transfusion associated graft versus host disease
81
What is the treatment threshold for a red blood cell transfusion in patients without ACS?
70g/L
82
What is the treatment threshold for a red blood cell transfusion in patients with ACS?
80g/L

Gen Med (Haem) (12 decks)

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