Physiology Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

Which type of blood cell can come from either myeloid or lymphoid progenitor cells?

A

Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The common myeloid progenitor (CMP) cell can develop into the megakaryocyte erythroid progenitor (MEP)- what mature cells can these differentiate into?

A

Platelets or erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The common myeloid progenitor (CMP) cell can develop into the granulocyte macrophage progenitor (GMP)- what mature cells can these differentiate into?

A

Granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils) and monocytes (macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Other than dendritic cells, what mature cells can common lymphoid progenitor cells differentiate into?

A

B cells, T cells or natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

At what stage in erythropoiesis is the nucleus lost?

A

Just before becoming a reticulocyte (late normoblast phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do reticulocytes contain than mature erythrocytes do not?

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which cell is this describing: a segmented nucleus (polymorph) which has neutral staining granules?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which cell is this describing: a bi-lobed cells with bright orange/red granules?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which cell is this describing: contains large deep purple granules obscuring the nucleus?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What chains is adult haemoglobin composed of?

A

2 x alpha and 2 x beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What chains is foetal haemoglobin composed of?

A

2 x alpha and 2 x gamma chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following does oxygen bind to: Fe2+ or Fe3+?

A

Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When hypoxia is sensed by the kidneys, what is produced in order to stimulate erythrocyte production?

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does destruction of erythrocytes normally take place?

A

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When an erythrocyte is destroyed, a haem group is broken down into what two things?

A

Iron and bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In erythrocytes, glutathione reacts with hydrogen peroxide to form water and GSSG- what is the rate-limiting enzyme in this process?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is the majority of CO2 transported in the blood?

A

As bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In what direction does foetal haemoglobin shift the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

To the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Shifting the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right suggests what?

A

There is less oxygen bound to haemoglobin, and more given to the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Shifting the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left suggests what?

A

There is more oxygen bound to haemoglobin, and less given to the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must happen to the pH for the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to shift right?

A

Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What must happen to the 2, 3-DPG for the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to shift right?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What must happen to the temperature for the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to right?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What must happen to the pH for the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to be shifted left?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What must happen to the 2, 3-DPG for the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to be shifted left?
Decreased
26
What must happen to the temperature for the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to be shifted left?
Decreased
27
How much iron is absorbed per day? Where is most iron absorbed?
1mg, mostly absorbed in the duodenum
28
Where can iron be taken to once it has been absorbed?
To the liver for storage or to the bone marrow to make haem
29
How much iron is lost per day?
1mg
30
What is iron bound to in the plasma?
Transferrin
31
What are some examples of drugs which may limit the absorption of iron?
PPIs and calcium supplements
32
What molecule is responsible for facilitating iron export from cells and passing it onto transferrin for transport elsewhere?
Ferroportin
33
What molecule is the major negative regulator of iron uptake, that works by degrading ferroportin so iron is effectively 'trapped' inside cells?
Hepcidin
34
If there is plentiful iron, what happens to the levels of hepcidin and ferroportin?
Increased hepcidin, decreased ferroportin
35
If there is iron deficiency, what happens to the levels of hepcidin and ferroportin?
Decreased hepcidin, increased ferroportin
36
Transferrin will only bind to iron in what state- Fe2+ or Fe3+?
Fe3+
37
If someone is in iron overload, what happens to transferrin saturation?
Increased
38
If someone is iron deficient, what happens to transferrin saturation?
Decreased
39
What molecule is a spherical intracellular protein that stores many Fe3+ ions?
Ferritin
40
Why is an increase in serum ferritin not specific for iron overload?
It is an acute phase protein
41
What happens to the level of serum ferritin in iron deficiency?
Decreased
42
What happens to the level of serum ferritin in iron overload?
Increased
43
What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?
120 days
44
What is the lifespan of a platelet?
7-10 days
45
What is the lifespan of a neutrophil?
7-8 hours
46
Which type of lymphocyte is responsible for mediating humoral immunity?
B cells
47
Which type of lymphocyte is responsible for mediating cell mediated immunity?
T cells
48
Which type of lymphocyte has anti-viral/anti-tumour properties?
Natural killer cells
49
What are blast cells? Where are these located in adults?
Nucleated precursor cells located in the bone marrow of adults
50
What is the name of the platelet precursor cell?
Megakaryocyte
51
What is the name of the immediate erythrocyte precursor cell?
Reticulocyte
52
What are myelocytes?
Nucleated precursor cells between neutrophils and blasts
53
Embryonically, haemopoietic stem cells originate in which germ layer?
Mesoderm
54
Where does haemopoiesis take place in adults?
In the bone marrow of the axial skeleton, pelvis and long bones
55
What is the only lymphoid cell that can be recognised down a microscope?
Plasma cell
56
What is the only investigation that can be used to differentiate between B, T and natural killer cells?
Immunophenotyping
57
The presence of Howell-Jolly bodies suggests what pathology?
Hyposplenism
58
What is meant by the term hypersplenism?
Splenomegaly, fall in one or more cellular components of blood, correction of cytopenias by splenectomy
59
What is meant by primary haemostasis?
The formation of a platelet plug
60
What is meant by secondary haemostasis?
The formation of a fibrin clot
61
What is fibrinolysis?
The breaking down of a fibrin clot to avoid occlusion of a blood vessel
62
Platelets are formed in the bone marrrow from which precursor cells?
Megakaryocytes
63
When there is endothelial damage in a vessel, collagen is exposed and produces what factor, that platelets bind to?
Von-Willebrand's factor
64
The process of platelets sticking to exposed collagen via binding with Von Willlebrand's factor is known as what?
Platelet adhesion
65
The process of platelets which are already bound to exposed collagen producing chemicals to attract more platelets to the site of injury is known as what?
Platelet aggregation
66
What is a vascular cause for failure of primary haemostasis?
Loss of collagen with ageing
67
What are some platelet causes for failure of primary haemostasis?
Reduced number or reduced function of platelets
68
What is the Von-Willebrand's factor cause for failure of primary haemostasis?
Inherited low levels
69
What is the most common cause of reduced function of platelets?
Anti-platelet and NSAID drugs
70
What are some potential consequences of failure of primary haemostasis?
Spontaneous bruising/purpura, mucosal bleeding, intracranial/retinal haemorrhages
71
What is the screening test for primary haemostasis function?
Platelet count
72
What process starts the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?
Tissue factor activates factor VII
73
In the common coagulation pathway, tissue factor and factor VII activate which other clotting factors?
V and X
74
In the common coagulation pathway, factors V and X active which clotting factor to form what?
Prothrombin to form thrombin (factor II)
75
In the common coagulation pathway, factor II (thrombin) is responsible for activating what clotting factor?
Fibrin (factor I)
76
When thrombin (factor II) is first generated, what factors does it activate in order to amplify the process?
VIII, IX, XI and XII
77
In the common coagulation pathway factors VIII, IX, XI and XII get reactivated by thrombin and work to activate which other clotting factors?
V and X
78
Which clotting factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway and in what order do they activate each other?
XII - XI - IX - VIII
79
Which electrolyte is a common co-factor in activating a lot of clotting factors in the coagulation cascade?
Calcium
80
Is deficiency of a single clotting factor more likely to be inherited or acquired?
Inherited
81
Is deficiency of multiple clotting factors more likely to be inherited or acquired?
Acquired
82
Most clotting factors are produced where?
In the liver
83
What is the best screening test to assess the function of the extrinsic pathway, i.e. tissue factor and factor VII?
Prothrombin time (PT)
84
What is the best screening test to assess the function of the intrinsic pathway, i.e. factors VIII and IX?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
85
If all clotting factors are low, which will be increased- PT, APTT or both?
Both
86
If only factors VIII or IX are low, which will be increased- PT, APTT or both?
APTT
87
What molecule is responsible for converting fibrin into fibrin degradation products in fibrinolysis?
Plasmin
88
How is plasmin formed?
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin via tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
89
Fibrin degradation products are measured in the lab as what?
D-dimers
90
Which naturally occurring anticoagulant is responsible for turning off thrombin and some other clotting factors directly?
Anti-thrombin III
91
Which naturally occurring anticoagulant is responsible for turning off factors V and VIII?
Protein C
92
What is a co-factor that helps out protein C?
Protein S
93
When haemostasis has been achieved, thrombin binds to thrombomodulin and this has what effect?
Activates protein C and switches off haemostasis