BLS and ACLS COPY Flashcards

(197 cards)

1
Q

question

A

answer

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2
Q

VF cardiac arrest survival rates decrease how much per minute delay in defibrillation WITHOUT CPR

A

7-10%

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3
Q

survival rates decrease how much per minute delay in defibrillation WITH CPR

A

3-4%

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4
Q

Rescue breathing cycle

A

1 breath every 5-6 seconds

or 10-12 breaths/min

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5
Q

CPR Cycles

A

30 compressions and 2 breaths

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6
Q

CPR compression rate

A

100 - 120 per min

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7
Q

CPR compression depth

A

2” adult

5cm child

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8
Q

What two condition do you shock patients?

A

VF/pVT

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9
Q

In ACLS what medicine do you give every 3-5 minutes

A

Ephinephrine

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10
Q

in ACLS what medicine do you give for VF/pVT

A

Amiodarone

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11
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, after BLS what are the two main branches?

A

VF/VT

PEA/Asystole

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12
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, What do you do after determining it is VF/VT?

A

Shock 360/200 + CPR > SAS

Shock 360/200 + CPR + Epinephrine 1 mg > SAS

Shock 360/200 + CPR + Amiodarone 300mg

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13
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, What do you do after determining it is PEA/Asystole?

A

CPR + Epinephrine 1mg

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14
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, how much epinephrine is administered?

A

1mg

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15
Q

In cardiac arrest algorithm, how much amiodarone is administered?

A

300mg

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16
Q

What is the acronym for cardiac arrest algorithm?

A

SCREAM

Shock
CPR
Rhythm Check
Epinephrine
Amiodarone
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17
Q

What are the Hs that need ACLS (5)

A
hypoxia
hypovolemia
hydrogen ion
hyper/hypokalemia
hypothermia
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18
Q

What are the Ts that need ACLS (5)

A
tension pneumothorax
tamponade
toxins
thrombosis, pulmo
thrombosis, coronary
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19
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, what are the two main branches after BLS?

A

Unstable

Stable

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20
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, what are the steps for unstable?

A

atropine So4 0.5mg TIV > trancutaneous pacing > dopamine/epinephrine infusion > transvenous pacing

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21
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, how much atropine is administered?

A

0.5mg TIV

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22
Q

In bradycardia algorithm, what are the steps for stable?

A

observe and monitor

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23
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, what are the two main branches?

A

stable and unstable

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24
Q

In tachycardia algorithm, how are the two main branches subdivided?

A

wide (VT)

narrow

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25
In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for untable wide (VT)?
Sedate + Cardiovert 100J
26
In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for unstable narrow?
Regular (SVT) > sedate + cardiovert 50-100J + Adenosine Irregular (AF) > sedate + cardiovert 120-200J
27
In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for stable wide (VT)?
. Adenosine . Amiodarone . Sotalol . Procainamide
28
In tachycardia algorithm, what are the steps for stable narrow?
. Vagal maneuvers . Adenosine . Bb/ccb . Expert consultation
29
In tachycardia algorithm, what is the common medicine?
Adenosine
30
In what two conditions are amiodarone administered in ACLS?
cardiac arrest VF/VT tachycardia stable wide VT
31
In what two conditions are adenosine administered in ACLS?
tachycardia unstable narrow regular svt tachycardia stable wide VT
32
Which tachycardia state receives cardiovert 100J?
tachycardia unstable wide vt
33
which tachycardia state receives cardiovert 50-100J?
tachycardia unstable narrow regular svt
34
which tachy cardia state receives cardiovert 120-200J?
tachycardia unstable narrow irregula af
35
In SCA, which is more important? Chest compression Maintain O2 and eliminate CO2
Chest compressions
36
In SCA, when is maintaining O2 and eliminate CO2 more important than chest compressions?
prolonged VF in SCA and asphyxial arrest
37
Why is 100% oxygen optimised oxyhemoglobin content important?
hopoxemia leads to anaearobic metabolism which may blunt benefits of chemical and electrical therapy
38
What underlying conditions could be a cause of hypoxia in the SCA patient?
. Underlying respiratory disease . low cardiac output . intrapulmonary shunting . ventilation-perfusion mismatch
39
What is the oxygen level in exhaled air for rescue breathing?
16-17%
40
What is the best practice for bag-valve device in ventilation?
2 operators: 1 to hold mask, 1 to ventilate
41
a 1-2 L of O2 bag capacity delivers how much O2?
600ml
42
oral airways are used for what type of patient?
unconscious
43
nasal airways are used for what type of patient?
with trismus and biting
44
What is a considering of using advance airways in ACLS?
minimal interruption of cardiac compression
45
what are the advantages of laryngeal mask airway (LMA) in ACLS?
. more secure and reliable than BVM . LMA equavalent ventilation than ET . LMA not require larygonscopy and visualization of vocal cords
46
Whare are the advantages of ET intubation in ACLS?
. Isolates the airway, keeping it patent . reduce risk of aspiration . provides conduit for suctioning secretions . delivers high concentration of oxygen . provides route for drug administration . ensures delivery of selected tidal lung volume to maintain lung inflation
47
What are the drugs for ACLS that are administered thru ETT?
``` . Naloxone . Atropine . Vasopressin . Epinephrine . Lidocaine ```
48
What is the size of the ETT for adult male?
8.0-8.5 mm ID
49
What is the size of the ETT for adult female?
7.0-7.5 mm ID
50
What is are parts of postintubation care in ACLS?
. Record the depth of the ET . Secure the ET using tapes . Chest X-Ray for confirm position
51
What are the 4 arrest rythms?
. VF . VT . Pulseless Electrical Activity . Asystole
52
Jugular, Subclavian femoral, Supraclavicula a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
a. Centeral IV access
53
Rapid arrival of drug at site of action a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
a. Centeral IV access
54
Increase risk of complications : subcutaneous emphysema, pneumothorax a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
a. Centeral IV access
55
Antecubital or external jugular a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
b. Peripheral IV access
56
Antecubital or external jugular a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
b. Peripheral IV access
57
Easier to learn, few complications a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
b. Peripheral IV access
58
No interruption CPR a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
b. Peripheral IV access
59
Venous access is not achieved a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
c. Intraoseaous access
60
Jamshidi needle a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
c. Intraoseaous access
61
proximal tibia below the tuberosity or at the distal femur a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
c. Intraoseaous access
62
Pediatric patients a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
c. Intraoseaous access
63
osteomyelitis a. Centeral IV access b. Peripheral IV access c. Intraoseaous access
c. Intraoseaous access
64
What are IV fluid expanders? Which are given to pediatric patients?
. Fresh Whole Blood . Crystalloid solutions - pedia . Colloid Solutions - pedia
65
What type of IV fluid is preferred for CPR?
Plain NSS or LR
66
What is volume administration recommeded in routine cardiac arrest?
indication of volume depletion
67
Which has a worse neurologic outcome? What is MOA? Hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia due osmotic diuresis
68
Sodium overload is rare/common
rare
69
What is the dose for volume expanders in neonates?
Dose 10 ml / kg
70
What are the IV fluids given to neonates?
Plain NSS or LR
71
Lidocaine • Amiodarone a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
a. control heart rhythm and rate
72
* Adenosine * Beta-Blockers a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
a. control heart rhythm and rate
73
* Procainamide * Atropine a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
a. control heart rhythm and rate
74
• Verapamil/ Diltiazem a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
a. control heart rhythm and rate
75
Epinephrine • Norepinephrine a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
76
* Dopamine * Dobutamine a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
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* Sodium Nitroprusside * Nitroglycerine a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
78
* Digitalis * Diuretics a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure
79
* Morphine SO4 * Oxygen a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
c. myocardial infarction
80
* Nitroglycerine * Aspirin a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
c. myocardial infarction
81
• Thrombolytic agents : Streptokinase, r- TPA, Heparin a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
c. myocardial infarction
82
* Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors * Beta Blockers a. control heart rhythm and rate b. improve cardiac output and blood pressure c. myocardial infarction
c. myocardial infarction
83
Steps of post cardiac arrest care
``` Insertion of an NGT > decompress the stomach of air due BVM ventilation • Insertion of foley catheter > measure urine output • Take a 12 lead ECG • Do portable chest radiographs • Therapeutic hypothermia • Antibiotics • Nutrition ```
84
In post cardiac arrest care what is the purpose of insertion of an NGT?
decompress the stomach of air due BVM ventilation
85
In post cardiac arrest care what is the purpose of insertion of foley catheter?
measure urine output
86
question
answer
87
What are the regions of the abdominal area
right/left hypochondraic region, epigestric region right/left lumbar region, umibilical region right/left iliac region, hypogastric region
88
Hepatitis right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
right hypochondraic region
89
cholecystitis right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
right hypochondraic region
90
peptic ulcer right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
epigestric region
91
pancreatitis right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
epigestric region
92
splenic injury right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
left hypochondraic region
93
renal and uretic pain right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
right lumbar region | left lumbar region
94
(back) bowel obstruction right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
umibilical region
95
aortic aneurysm right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
umibilical region
96
appendicitis right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
right iliac region
97
pelvic pain right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
hypogastric region
98
diverticulitis right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
left iliac region
99
Where does peptic ulcer and pacreatic pain refer to? right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region (from epigestric region)
100
Where does aortic aneurysm pain refer to? right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
to back
101
Where does peptic ulcer and pacreatic pain refer to? right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
back
102
Where does diverticulitis pain refer to? right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right iliac region left iliac region hypogastric region
left lumbar region
103
Where does pelvic pain refer to? right hypochondraic region left hypochondraic region epigestric region right lumbar region left lumbar region umibilical region right region left iliac region hypogastric region
right iliac region | left iliac region
104
lung bugs stomach foregut midgut hindgut
foregut
105
upper abdominal pain foregut midgut hindgut
foregut
106
periumbilical pain foregut midgut hindgut
midgut
107
mesophrenic duct cloaca foregut midgut hindgut
hindgut
108
lower abdominal pain foregut midgut hindgut
hindgut
109
abdominal wall autonomic nerves somatic nerves
somatic nerves (SPW)
110
parietal peritonium autonomic nerves somatic nerves
somatic nerves (SPW)
111
abdominal organs autonomic nerves somatic nerves
autonomic nerves (AVO)
112
visceral peritonium autonomic nerves somatic nerves
autonomic nerves (AVO)
113
inflammatory causes of acute abdominal pain
``` appendicitis diverticulitis cholecystitis PID pancreatitis pyelonephritis intra-abdominal abcess ```
114
perforation/rupture causes of acute abdominal pain
peptic ulcer diverticular disease ovarian cyst aortic aneurysm
115
obstruction causes of acute abdominal pain
intestinal obstruction biliary colic ureteric colic
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severe pain triage level 1 level 2 level 3
level 2
117
abdominal pain with stable vitals triage level 1 level 2 level 3
level 3
118
history taking abbreviation
SOCRATES ``` site onset character radiation associated symptoms time exacerbating factors severity (subjective pain) ```
119
What are the steps of abdominal examination?
inspection palpation percussion auscultation
120
What are you looking for in auscultation of the abdomen?
bowel sounds bruit
121
Signs for appendititis
rovsing's sign point sign (McBurney's) psoas sign obturator sign
122
ddx for pain/vomiting ± rigidity
acute pancreatitis diabetic gastric paresis dka incercerated hernia
123
ddx for pain/vomiting/distention
bowel obstruction | celcal volvulus
124
ddx pain (±vomiting)
``` acute diverticulitis adnexal torsion mesenteric ischemia myocardial ischemia testicular torsion ```
125
ddx pain/shock
``` abdominal sepsis aortic dissection hemorrhagic pancreatitis leaking/ruptured abdominal aortis aneurysm mesenteri ischemia (late) MI ruptured ectopic pregnancy ```
126
abdominal pain which later shifts to right iliac fossa
acute appendicitis
127
periumbilical or loin bruising
acute pancreatitis
128
blood in stool
acute diverticulitis
129
murphy's sign
acute cholecystitis
130
pain in right hypochondrium radiating to should or scapula
acute cholecystitis
131
asymmetrical femoral pulses
ruptured aortic aneurysm
132
lab test for pancreatitis
lipase (amylase if lipase not available)
133
lab test for mesenteric ischemia
lactate
134
question
answer
135
how many newborns require assistance to begin breathing?
it is 10%
136
What 3 questions used to identify neonate who do not need resuscitation?
Term? Tone? Breathing or crying?
137
What are the initial steps in stabilizing neonate needing resusciation?
``` warm and maintain normal temp clear secretions (only if copious and/or obstructing the airway dry stimulate position infant in "sniffing" position ```
138
After the stabilization of neonate requiring resuscitation, what other steps maybe taken?
ventilate and oxygenate initiate chest compressions admnister epinphrine and/volume
139
What determines if there is need for additional steps for neoatal resuscitation?
``` respirations heart rate (<100/min) ```
140
What is target heart rate for neonate?
>100/min
141
What serious morbidities are there with hypothermia in neonates?
IVH, respiratory issues, hypoglacemia, late-onset sepsis
142
Possible complications of using suction immediately after birth?
deterioriating pulmonary compliance, oxygenation, and cerebral blood flow
143
What is the most rapid and accurate way to meansure heart rate of neonate?
3 lead ECG
144
When are chest compressions indicated for neonate?
HR <60/min despite ventilation
145
How are chest compression performed on neonate?
lower third of sternum | one thirs of the AP diameter of chest
146
What medication can be used for neonate needing resuscitation?
epinephrine
147
When is volume expansion indicated for neonate needing resusitation?
blood loss known or suspected | hr non responsive to other methods
148
What is a possible complication of volume expansion in neonates?
IVH (intraventricular hemorrhage)
149
What may be used for volume expansion in neonates?
isotonic crystalloid solution | blood
150
What is guideline for discontinuing resuscitative efforts in neonates?
Apgar score of 0 at 10 minutes (determine if HR is detectable or not)
151
question
answer
152
pulmonary etiologies of DOB
``` COPD asthma restrictive lung disorder hereditary lung disorder pneumonia pneumo-thorax ```
153
cardiac etiologies of DOB
``` CHF Coronary artery disease (CAD) MI cardiomyopathy valvular dysfunction left ventricular hypertrophy pericarditis arrythmias ```
154
mixed cardiac/pulmonary etiology of DOB
chronic pulmonary emboli pleural effusion deconditioning COPD with HTN and/or cor pulmonale
155
noncardiac or nonpulmonary etiology of DOB
``` metabolic disorders pain trauma neuromuscular disorders functional cheminal exposure ```
156
< 20 yo asthma COPD
asthma
157
worse during night or early morning asthma COPD
asthma
158
lung function normal between symptoms asthma COPD
asthma
159
variable airflow limitation asthma COPD
asthma
160
CXR normal asthma COPD
asthma
161
> 40 yo asthma COPD
COPD
162
daily symptoms and exertional dyspnea asthma COPD
COPD
163
persistent airflow limitation asthma COPD
COPD
164
lung function abnormal between symptoms asthma COPD
COPD
165
CXR shows severe hyperinflation asthma COPD
COPD
166
possible clinical features of severe asthma
``` tachypnea tachycardia silent chest cyanosis accesssory muscle use altered consciouness ```
167
Why use PEF for asthma dx
more convinient and cheaper than FEV1
168
What SpO2 level do you seek to maintain withoxygen therapy
92% O2
169
When is ABG necessary for DOB?
patients with SpO2 <92% or features of life threatening asthma
170
Management of asthma accronym
ASTHMA ``` Adrenergics (beta 2 agonists - Albuterol) Streoids Theophylline Hydration (IV) Mask O2 Anticholinergics ```
171
digital clubbing + DOB
COPD
172
pursing of lips + DOB
COPD
173
COPD airflow obstruction level
FEV1/FVC ratio <0.7 post-bronchodilator
174
What is performed to diagnose COPD
spirometry, post-bronchodilator
175
COPD spirometry is performed (pre/post) bronchodilator
post bronchodilator
176
COPD exacerbations mangement
``` O2 bronchodilators (SABA with or without short-acting anticholinergics) systemic corticosteroids (40 mg prednisone per day for 5 days) ```
177
Type 1 pneumonias (2)
lobar and bronchopneumonia
178
Type 2 pneumonia (2)
CAP and HAP
179
patch consolidation usually in bases of both lungs what type of pneumonia?
bronchopneumonia
180
What is the point criteria for treatment of penumonia? Acryonym and scoring
CURB 65 ``` Confusion Uremia Respiratory Rate >30 Blood pressure low 65 yo or greater ```
181
Uses structure for classification ACCF/AHA stages of HF NYHA functional
ACCF/AHA stages of HF
182
Cardiogenic shock. Hypotension, peripheral vasoconstriction Kilip classification Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Stage IV
183
Severe HF. Frank pulmonary edema with rales Kilip classification Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Stage III
184
HF. Rales, S3 gallop and pulmonary venous hypertention Kilip classification Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Stage II
185
Acute HF management
SpO2 95-98% patent airway and FiO2 can be increased diuretics (secondary to fluid retension)
186
MC cause of dyspnea in AHF
pulmonary edema
187
In AHF, morphine induced the following
venodilation mild aterial dilation redude HR
188
In AHF, what is a potential adverse effect?
increasing need for inasive ventilation
189
reduce LV-preload and after-load wo imparing tissue perfusion nitrates sodium nitroprusside nesiritide inotropes
nitrates
190
hypertensive HF or MR, severe HR with predominantly increased after-load nitrates sodium nitroprusside nesiritide inotropes
sodium nitroprusside
191
reduce preload and after-load, increase CO wo direct inotropic effects nitrates sodium nitroprusside nesiritide inotropes
nesiritide
192
Pts with severely reduced cardic output compromised vital organ perfusion nitrates sodium nitroprusside nesiritide inotropes
inotropes
193
When are vasopressors indicated?
combination inotropic agent and fluid challenge fails to restore adequate arterial pressure and organ perfusion
194
HVS causes (increase/decrease) pCO2 which leads to (metabolic/respiratory) (alkalosis/acidosis)
HVS causes DECREASE pCO2 which leads to RESPIRATORY alkalosis
195
common ddx for HVS
acute coronary syndrome pulmonary embolism CO2 poisoning
196
HVS has (abnormal/normal) pH with (high/low) PaCO2 and a (high/low) bicarbonate level
HVS has NORMAL pH with LOW PaCO2 and a LOW bicarbonate level
197
Pharmaco therapies for HVS
benzodiazepines lorazepam (ativan) diazepam (valium) paroxetine (paxil)