Blue boxes Lower Limb Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

osteochondrosis

A

irritation and injury of the epiphyseal plates and developing bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Avulsion fracture of hip bone

A

small part of bone (ASIS, anterior inferior iliac spine, ischial tuberosity, ischiopubic rami) is avulsed with a piece of a tendon or ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

apophyses

A

bony projections that lack secondary ossification centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coxa vara

A

The angle of inclination between the long axis of the femoral neck and the femoral shaft is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

coxa valga

A

the angle of inclination between the long axis of the femoral neck and the femoral shaft is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The angle of inclination between the long axis of the femoral neck and the femoral shaft is decreased

A

coxa vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should always be considered in knee fractures or dislocations?

A

Compromised blood supply to the leg (integrity of popliteal artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Transverse march fractures

A

Stress fractures of the anterior cortex of the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inflammation of the tibial tuberosity and chronic recurring pain during adolescence

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

Inflammation of the tibial tuberosity and chronic recurring pain during adolescence, caused by disruption of the epiphysial plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Site of intramedullary infusion

A

anterior tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dancer’s fracture

A

fracture of metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Os trigonum

A

bone accessory ossicle that occurs when a partly or even fully ossified center fractures and progresses to non-union of the secondary ossification center and the primary ossification center (of the talus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Loss of distal leg pulses is a sign of ____.

A

arterial compression (Compartment syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DVT

A

Deep vein thrombosis, characterized by swelling, erythema, and warmth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Venous statis causes

A

Incompetent, loose fascia that fails to resist muscle expansion, diminishing the effectiveness of the musculovenous pump. External pressure on the veins from bedding during a prolonged hospital stay or from a tight cast or bandage. Muscular inactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

thrombophlebitis

A

inflammation around veins (in DVT especially)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Reasons the great saphenous vein is used for coronary arterial bypasses

A

Readily accessible
A sufficient distance occurs between the tributaries and the perforating veins so that usable lengths can be harvested,
Its wall contains a higher percentage of muscular and elastic fibers than do other superficial veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

chondromalacia patellae

A

runner’s knee, overstressing of the knee region that causes soreness and aching around or deep to the patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or false: Ossification abnormalities (of the patellar) are nearly always unilateral.

A

False (they are bilateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The patellar tendon reflex tests the integrity of what spinal levels?

A

L2-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

saphenous varix

A

localized dilation of the terminal part of the great saphenous vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How to locate femoral vein

A

medial to femoral artery, which is palpable just below the midline of the inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An accessory (or replaced) obturator artery arises from ___.

A

the inferior epigastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
gluteal gait
a compensatory list of the body to the weakened gluteal side (after injury to the superior gluteal nerve).
26
positive Trendelenburg test
when a patient stands on one leg and the pelvis is pointed downwards on the unsupported side; indicates injury to superior gluteal nerve, fracture of the greater trochanter, and/or dislocation of the hip joint Could also indicate congenital dislocation of the hip joint
27
Gaits associated with injured superior gluteal nerve
gluteal gait (list of body to the weakened side (raises hip on injured side to allow leg/foot to clear ground), steppage gait (lift the foot higher as it is brought forward),swing-out gait (swing the foot outward laterally)
28
Where should gluteal IM be administered?
In the superolateral quadrant of the buttocks
29
IM injectsion can also be given safely into the anterolateral part of the thigh, where the needle enters the _____.
Tensor fasciae latae
30
Weakening or loss of the popliteal pulse is a sign of ___.
femoral artery obstruction
31
arteriovenous fistula
communication between an artery and a vein
32
What is the source of pain in shin splints?
Repetitive microtrauma of the tibialis anterior, which causes small tears in the periosteum covering the shaft of the tibia and/or of fleshy attachments to the overlying deep fascia of the leg.
33
Features unique to the human foot
development of a fibularis tertius that is attached to the base of the 5th metatarsal and the medial migration of the distal attachment of the fibularis longus across the sole of the foot
34
Never most often injured in the lower limb
common fibular, because it winds subcutaneously around the fibular neck
35
Gaits associated with common fibular nerve injury
``` waddling gait (individual leans to the side opposite the long limb), wsing-out gait, steppage gait (Compensating for foot drop) ```
36
sesamoid bone in the gastrocnemius
fabella
37
fabella
sesamoid bone of the gastrocnemius
38
Calcaneal tendon reflex tests ___.
S1 and S2 nerve roots | plantarflexion occurs in this reflex
39
tennis leg
Gastrocnemius strain resulting from partial tearing of the medial belly of the gastrocnemius at or near its musculotendinous junction
40
Where can the posterior tibial pulse be felt?
Between the posterior surface of the medial malleolus and the medial border of the calcaneal tendon The artery passes deep to the flexor retinaculum, so it is important when palpating this pulse to have the person invert the foot to relax the retinaculum
41
intermittent claudication
leg pain and cramps that develops during walking and disappears after rest and results from ischemia of the leg muscles caused by narrowing or occlusion of the leg arteries
42
Plantar reflex
tests nerve roots L4-S2 Flexion of toes normal response Slight fanning of the lateral four toes and dorsiflexion of the great toe is an abnormal response (Babinski sign) - indicated brain injury or cerebral disease (normal for children under 4 though)
43
Medial nerve compression is caused by ___.
Repetitive eversion of the foot
44
Where does the dorsal pedis artery travel?
is is subcutaneous and passes along a line from the extensor retinaculum to a point just lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon.
45
A diminished or absent dorsalis pedis pulse suggests ____.
vascular insufficiency resulting from arterial disease.
46
The signs of acute arterial occlusion
The five p signs - pain, pallor, parasthesia, paralysis, and pulselessness
47
inguinal lymphadenopathy without popliteal lymphadenopathy may suggest ____.
Infection of the medial side of the foot, leg, or thigh (or infection/tumor in vulva, penis, scrotum, perineum, and gluteal region, terminal parts of the urethra, anal canal, and vagina)
48
Angle of Wiberg
degree to which the ilium overlies the femoral head
49
Inability to abduct the thigh is characteristic of ____.
congenital dislocation of the hip joint
50
Q-angle
Angle between the tibia and the femur; assessed by drawing a line form the ASIS to the middle of the patella and extrapolating a second vertical line passing through the middle of the patella and tibial tuberosity
51
genu varum
bowleg, a medial angulation of the leg in relation to the thigh (femur abnormally vertical and Q-angle small)
52
Bowleg and medial angulation of the leg in relation to the thigh is called ___.
genu varum
53
genu valgum
lateral angulation of the leg in relation to the thigh (large Q-angle, greater than 17 degrees)
54
Large Q-angle
genu valgum
55
The patella nearly always dislocates ____ (direction).
laterally
56
patellofemoral syndrome
abnormal tracking of the patella relative to the patellar surface of the femur
57
The ____ are tightly stretched when the leg is extended, normally preventing disruption of the sides of the knee joint.
tibial and fibular collateral ligaments
58
Sign of ACL rupture
(Anterior cruciate ligament) the free tibia slides anteriorly under the fixed femur, known as the anterior drawer sign. It is tested clinically via the lachman test
59
Sign of PCL rupture
(Posterior cruciate ligament) The free tibia slides posteriorly under the fixed femur, known as the posterior drawer sign
60
deep infrapatellar bursitis
occurs between the patellar ligament and the tibia, superior to the tibial tuberosity
61
A sprained ankle is nearly always an _____.
inversion injury
62
Ligament most commonly torn during ankle sprains
anterior talofibular ligament
63
inury that occurs when the foot is forcibly everted
Pott fracture-dislocation of the ankle (medial ligament tears off the medial malleolus, then talus moves laterally and shears off lateral malleolus or breaks fibula; distal end of posterior tibia may also be sheared off by talus).
64
tarsal tunnel syndrome
entrapment and compression of the tibial nerve as it passes deep to the flexor retinaculum in the interval between the medial malleolus and the calcaneus
65
hallux valgus
lateral deviation of the great toe
66
bunion
subcutaneous bursa that forms when the first metarsal has shifted medially (rubs against shoe)
67
Hammer toe
foot deformity in which the proximal phalanx is permanently and markedly dorsiflexed and the middle phalanx strongly plantarflexed at the proximal interphalangeal joint.
68
Claw toes
characterized by hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal interpahalangeal joints
69
Pes Planus
Flatfeet
70
Acquired flat feet are likely to be secondary to ____.
dysfunction of the tibialis posterior
71
Clubfoot
Talipes equinovarus foot that is twisted out of position All are congenital
72
Talipes equinovarus
involves subtalar joint, the foot is inverted, the ankle is plantarflexed, and the forefoot is adducted
73
clubfoot that involves subtalar joint
talipes equinovarus