Blue boxes perineum Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

Length of true conjugate desirable for a woman to give birth in a vaginal delivery

A

11.0 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

true conjugate

A

diameter of the lesser pelvis, from the middle of the sacral promontory to the posterosuperior margin (closest point) of the pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Narrowest part of the pelvic canal

A

interspinous distance - between the ischial spines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Spondylolysis

A

separation of vertebral arch and body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

sliding of the body of the vertebrae anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Muscles torn most often in childbirth

A

pubococcygeus and puborectalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Concern during hysterectomy

A

ureter injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The point at which the ___ and ___ cross lies approximately 2 cm superior to the ischial spine

A

uterine artery and ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

excision of uterus

A

hysterectromy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

excision of ovary

A

ovariectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The ___ and ___ are close to each other as the cross the pelvic brim, which is important to know when performing an ovariectomy

A

ureter and ovarian vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Collateral pathways to the internal iliac artery:

A

lumbar and iliolumbar; median sacral and lateral sacral; superior rectal and middle rectal; inferior gluteral and profunda femoris artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

direction of blood supply to ureters (abdominal segment vs pelvic segment)

A

blood supply to the abdominal segment of the ureter approaches from a medial direction. That of the pelvic segment approaches from a lateral direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type of pain caused by ureteric calculus

A

colicky pain resulting from hyperperistalsis in the ureter, loin to groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Locations where ureters are normally constricted

A

1) At the junction of the ureters and renal pelves, 2) Where they cross the external iliac artery and pelvic brim, and 3) during their passage through the wall of the urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lithotripsy

A

uses shock waves to break up a stone into small fragments (removal of ureteric calculi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fascial support of the vagina

A

paracolpium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The superior surface of the empty bladder lies at the level of the _______.

A

superior margin of the pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

surgical puncture of distended bladder

A

suprapubic cystotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

suprapubic cystotomy

A

puncture of the distended bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

deferentectomy

A

vasectomy, common method of sterilizing males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

method of sterilization of a male

A

vasectomy or deferentectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gonococci

A

organisms that cause gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BHP

A

benign hypertrophy of the prostate, common after middle age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
nocturia
need to urinate during the night
26
dysuria
difficulty and/or pain during urination
27
urgency
sudden need for urination
28
What is removed in a radical prostatectomy?
The seminal glands, the ejaculatory ducts, and terminal parts of the deferent ducts
29
What is salpingitis?
inflammation of the uterine tube
30
Inflammation of a uterine tube
salpingitis
31
Laparoscopic tubal ligation
fiber optic laparoscope inserted through small incision (near umbilicus) and tubal continuity is interrupted by applying cautery, rings, or clips
32
pyosalpinx
collections of pus that may develop in a uterine tube
33
A ruptured tubal pregnancy may be misdiagnosed as ___.
Acute appendicitis
34
epoophoron
forms from remnants of the mesonephric tubules of the mesonephros
35
mesonephros
embryonic kidney
36
duct of the epoophoron
(aka duct of Gartner), a remnant of the mesonephric duct that forms the ductus deferens and ejaculatory duct in the male; lies between layers of the broad ligament along each side of the uterus and/or vagina
37
vesicular appendage
sometimes attached to the infundibulum of the uterine tube, remains of the cranial end of the mesonephric duct that forms the ductus epididymis
38
Gartner duct cysts
When fluid accumulates in vestigal structures (epoophoron, vesicular appendage, duct of gartner) and forms a cyst
39
uterus didelphys
completely doubled uterus
40
bicornate uterus
incomplete fusion of the embryonic paramesonephric ducts results in a duplication
41
unicornate uterus
incomplete fusion of the embryonic paramesonephric ducts results in the uterus receiving a uterine duct only from the right or left
42
Normal position of uterus
anteverted and anteflexed
43
A retroverted uterus is at risk of ___.
Prolapse (uterus pushed into or even through the vagina) | Risk increases in the presence of a disrupted perineal body or atrophic pelvic floor ligaments and muscles
44
Hegar sign
softening of the uterine isthmus; the cervix feels as though it were separated from the body (early sign of pregnancy)
45
Adult proportion of uterine body to cervix (nulliparous)
2:1
46
Postmenopausal proportion of uterine body to cervix
1:1
47
Nulliparous
Never given birth
48
Pap is short for
papanicolaou
49
hysterectomy
excision of the uterus
50
excision of the uterus
hysterectomy
51
vesicovaginal fistula
abnormal passage between vaginal lumen and lumina of the adjacent bladder
52
endometriosis
presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterus
53
Regional anesthesia reduces innervation from ___.
a spinal, pudendal nerve, or caudal epidural block
54
Spinal anesthesia
the anesthetic agent is introduced with a needle into the spinal subarachnoid space at the L3-L4 vertebral level and it produces complete anesthesia inferior to approximately the waist level. The perineum, pelvic floor, and birth canal are anesthetized
55
Pudendal nerve block
local anesthesia over the S2-S4 dermatomes (the majority of the perineum)
56
Caudal epidural block
must be administered in advance, Anesthetic agen is administered using an in-dwelling catheter in the sacral canal bathes the S2-S4 spinal nerve roots (including pain fibers from the uterine cervix and superior vagina and the afferent fibers form the pudendal nerve) Aware of uterine contractions because pain fibers form the uterine body (superior to the pelvic pain line) ascend to the inferior thoracic-superior lumbar levels
57
Episiotomy
Surgical incision of the perineum and inferoposterior vaginal wall
58
median episiotomy
the perineal body is the major structure incised during a median episiotomy
59
incision of the perineum
episiotomy
60
External hemorrhoids
thromboses in the veins of the external rectal venous plexus covered by skin
61
Internal hemorrhoids
prolapses of rectal mucosa containing the normally dilated veins of the internal rectal venous plexus
62
inflammation of the testis
orchitis
63
orchitis
inflammation of the testis
64
elephantiasis
chronic lymphatic obstruction occurs, parasitic disease, results in enlarged scrotum. (Probably more to this disease)
65
glanular hypospadias
the external urethral orifice is on the ventral aspect of the glans penis
66
When the external urethral orifice is on the ventral aspect of the glans penis
glanular hypospadias
67
Embryological basis of penile and penoscrotal hypospadias
failure of the urogenital folds to fuse on the ventral surface of the penis
68
phimosis
the prepuce fits tightly over the glans and cannot be retracted easily, if at all
69
smegma
the oily secretions of cheesy consistency from the modified sebaceous glands in the prepuce
70
paraphimosis
retraction of the prepuce over the glans penis constricts the neck of the glans so much that there is interference with the drainage of blood and tissue fluid. The glans may enlarge so much that the prepuce cannot be drawn over it and circumcision is commonly performed in such cases.
71
circumcision
surgical excision of the prepuce
72
inability to obtain an erection
impotence
73
vulvar hematoma
localized collection of blood (in the labia majora)
74
Bartholinitis
inflammation of the greater vestibular (bartholin) glands
75
Occlusion of the vestibular gland duct without infection can result in the accumulation of ____, called a ____.
mucin, | Batholin gland cyst
76
Kegel exercises strengthen these muscles
perineal muscles
77
Vaginismus
an emotional (psychosomatic) gynecological disorder encountered clinically when pelvic examination is attempted; involuntary spasms of the perivaginal and levator ani muscles
78
an emotional (psychosomatic) gynecological disorder encountered clinically when pelvic examination is attempted
vaginismus
79
dyspareunia
painful intercourse
80
painful intercourse
dyspareunia