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From Flashcardlet > BMS 108 Quiz #3 Study Guide > Flashcards

BMS 108 Quiz #3 Study Guide Flashcards

This flashcard deck was created using Flashcardlet's card creator

0
Q

When checking blood pressure, what sounds are you listening for?

A

Korotkov’s sounds

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1
Q

What is blood pressure measured with?

A

A sphygmomanometer

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2
Q

What is the timing relationship between the onset of the ECG and pulse onset? Why?

A

The beat of the pulse peaks after the depolarization of the ventricles because it takes time to push the blood’s pressure wave from the ventricles to the arteries producing a pulse.

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3
Q

What does ECG measure?

A

Electrical activity of the heart that leads to contraction

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4
Q

What is the atomic mass of an atom?

A

The sum total of its protons and neutrons.

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5
Q

What is atomic mass measured in?

A

Daltons

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6
Q

What is a mole?

A

A term that represents a specific number, in this case - 6.02 x 10 to the 23rd power.

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7
Q

Why is a mole important?

A

A mole is equal in to the molecular weight of a substance expressed in grams instead of daltons.

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8
Q

What is a solute?

A

Any substance that dissolves in water to form a solution.

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9
Q

What is molarity?

A

The measure of a concentration of a particular solute in a solution. Defined as number of moles per liter.

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10
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

The measure of concentration of ALL dissolved solutes in a solution.

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11
Q

What does the pH scale measure?

A

Concentration of hydrogen atoms in a solution.

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12
Q

The pH scale is a _______ scale.

A

logarithmic

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13
Q

If the pH of a solution changes from 1 to 2, how much less acidic does the solution become?

A

ten times less

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14
Q

What is the most important buffer system in the body?

A

The carbonic acid - bicarbonate system

H2CO3 <==> HCO3- + H+

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15
Q

If the concentration of free hydrogen ions (H+) in a solution is 10 -5 pwr, with is the pH?

A

5

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16
Q

What is osmosis?

A

diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane

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17
Q

What is Brownian Motion?

A

random movement of molecules

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18
Q

Movement requires energy. What is the source of energy for the kinetic activity that results in Brownian Motion?

A

Radiant heat or light

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19
Q

Why does lettuce become limp when you add salad dressing to the salad too long before the meal begins?

A

The water from the lettuce is sucked out because the salad dressing is a hypertonic solution.

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20
Q

What is tonicity?

A

Relative % of solutes in a solution (ECF vs. ICF)

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21
Q

What is a hypertonic solution? Hypotonic? Isotonic?

A

Hypertonic - Greater % of solutes in ECF compared to ICF
Hypotonic - Greater % of solutes in ICF compared to ECF
Isotonic - Equal % of solutes in ICF and ECF

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22
Q

Fruit preserves such as jams and jellies are relatively inhospitable to bacterial and fungal growth. Jars of these preserves can be reopened and used many times over, yet they rarely spoil. Use your knowledge of osmosis to explain this phenomenon.

A

Bacteria is being killed because the water in the bacteria is being sucked out of the cell and into the jam. The jam is hypertonic.

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23
Q

Why is salt used to preserve meat and other foods?

A

Salt creates a hypertonic environment around whatever it is preserving like meat.

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24
Q

If you were shipwrecked in the middle of the ocean, why would it be unwise to drink seawater?

A

It would cause too much water to leave your cells because of osmosis. The seawater is hypertonic. This would result in the cells of your body being unable to perform the chemical reactions to keep you alive.

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25
Q

What is a reflex?

A

A rapid, unconscious, stereotyped response to a stimulus.

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26
Q

What is a myostatic reflex?

A

a stretch reflex (e.g. patellar reflex)

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27
Q

Cold, excitement, fear, anticipation, or any other sort of stress usually causes pre-stretching in a muscle. What is this state of heightened responsiveness called?

A

facillitation

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28
Q

What is the Babinski reflex? What is it used to test for?

A

Stroke the sole of the foot with a blunt probe. A normal adult response is to curl the toes (negative Babinski), a positive Babinski is dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning the other four toes. This is normal in newborns but in adults it indicates that the brain’s connection to the spinal column has been severed.

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29
Q

Is the blink reflex present in an unconcious person? What about pupillary reflex?

A

No; yes

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30
Q

For the corneal reflex - do both eyes respond when only one is stimulated? If so, you are seeing a direct response in the stimulated eye and what kind of response in the other, unstimulated eye? What characteristics of a reflex arc allow for this response?

A

Yes; Consensual; The opthamalic sensory nerve has two synapses in the sensory nucleus of CN 5 - one for the ipsilateral facial motor nerve and another for the contralateral facial motor nerve via the motor nucleus of CN 7.

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31
Q

The pupillary reflex is consensual. If the consensual response was missing, waht would this imply about the neurological health of the subject?

A

That there was damage to the oculomotor nerve to the contralateral eye.

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32
Q

Why is it harder to balance with your eyes closed?

A

You are taking away one of the sensory inputs to the cerebellum that help you maintain balance. Which means the cerebellum has to rely more on proprioreceptors and the vestibular apparatus.

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33
Q

Why is it harder to balance with your eyes closed and head tilted back?

A

You are throwing off your vestibular apparatus in addition to taking away visual information from the cerebellum.

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34
Q

What is the vestibulo-ocular reflex?

A

Slight, involuntary movements of the eye essential for stabilizing vision during head movement.

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35
Q

What is post-rotary nystagmus?

A

When your eyes flick back and forth after stopping a period of rotation.

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36
Q

What is the mammalian dive reflex?

A

This reflex induces breath holding, decreased heart rate, vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the extremities, increase in blood pressure and decrease in overall metabolic rate.

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37
Q

How is the strength of a lens measured?

A

Strength (diopters) = 1/focal length (meters)

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38
Q

What is the term for normal vision? nearsightedness? farsightedness?

A

emmetropia; myopia; hyperopia

39
Q

What is age-related loss of near vision called?

A

presbyopia

40
Q

Should reading glasses that correct for presbyopia have a convex or concave shape? Explain.

A

Convex; A convex shape helps bend light to a focal point on the retina instead of behind the retina.

41
Q

Does color blindness affect visual acuity?

A

No; Cones handle acuity and you still have the same amount.

42
Q

Why is red-green color blindness more common in men than women?

A

Red-green colorblindness is a x-linked recessive trait. Since men only have one x chromosome, there is no chance of another x chromosome having a normal, dominant gene.

43
Q

What is a Rinne Test?

A

Striking a tuning fork and placing it from your ear on your mastoid process. The fork should be louder on the mastoid process because on vibration.

44
Q

How do we locate sounds?

A

With timing and volume.

45
Q

What is the evolutionary benefit of olfactory adaptation?

A

Reduces sensory information to the brain, allowing the brain to be more efficient; Changes in the environment become more noticeable.

46
Q

What is a twitch?

A

brief muscle contraction in response to a brief threshold stimulus

47
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

Increased strength of contraction via increased frequency of stimulus

48
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

Increased muscle contraction via increased stimulation intensity (recruiting more motor units)

49
Q

Why does temporal summation increase the strength of a contraction?

A
  1. lack of slack in the muscle

2. Ca++ leftover by stim. #1 will increase the number of crossbridges in stim. #2

50
Q

What is tetany?

A

A sustained contraction

51
Q

Describe what happens during the latent period from the time the motor nerve fires to contraction.

A

AP travels down LMN&raquo_space; VG Ca++ channels open in synaptic knob&raquo_space; ACh released and binds to nAChR&raquo_space; Na+ floods into cell, causing depolarization&raquo_space; AP travels along sarcolemma and down T-tubules&raquo_space;SR releases Ca++ allowing myosin and actin to form crossbridges.

52
Q

Explain how epinephrine increases HR?

A

Opens more HCN channels, which cause Na+ to rush into the cell faster, increasing HR by depolarizing the SA Node cells to threshold faster.

53
Q

Does epinephrine increase or decrease HR?

A

increase

54
Q

Does pilocarpine increase or decrease HR? How?

A

Decrease; stimulates the release of ACh

55
Q

Does acetylcholine increase or decrease HR?

A

Decrease

56
Q

Does Atropine increase or decrease HR? How?

A

Increase; Atropine is a competitive inhibitor of ACh

57
Q

Does eserine increase or decrease HR? How?

A

Decrease; Eserine inhibits AChE, causing ACh to hang around longer in the synaptic cleft.

58
Q

What does ECG measure?

A

rate and rhythm of the heart

59
Q

Describe the events associated with each of the following wave forms - P, QRS, T.

A

P - depolarization of the atria
QRS - ventricular depolarization
T - ventricular repolarization

60
Q

What is an ectopic focus?

A

Abnormally irritable region of the atrial myocardium, ventricular myocardium or conduction system that spontaneously discharges APs independent of the SA node.

61
Q

What is the electrical axis of the heart?

A

Net direction of the electrical activity of the heart

62
Q

Explain how Aortic Valve Stenosis is related to ECG finding of Left Axis Deviation.

A

Aortic Valve Stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve caused by hypertrophy of the myocardium. This buildup of tissure causes left axis deviation because the larger ventricular myocardium needs more electrical stimulation to contract.

63
Q

What is hypertension? What is the minimum BP criterion for hypertension?

A

chronic high blood pressure; 140/90 mm Hg

64
Q

What two factors influence Mean Arterial Pressure?

A

Diastolic Pressure + Pulse Pressure

Pulse Pressure = Systolic Pressure - Diastolic Pressure

65
Q

What is hematology?

A

The study of blood

66
Q

What is a erythrocyte?

A

A red blood cell

67
Q

What is a neutrophil?

A

The most numerous of white blood cells

68
Q

What is a lymphocyte?

A

The second most common white blood cell. They make up the body’s specific immune system, including B cells, cytotoxic T cells and Helper T cells.

69
Q

What is a monocyte?

A

These are the largest leukocyte. Monocytes differentiate into phagocytic macrophages when they exit the blood stream.

70
Q

What are eosinophils?

A

Leukocytes that secrete powerful chemicals that kill worms and parasites.

71
Q

What are basophils?

A

The rarest of leukocytes. Granules within the basophils contain histamine and heparin that mediate inflammatory response.

72
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

AKA platelets

73
Q

What clinical condition might cause an elevated level of lymphocytes?

A

Infection

74
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

% of RBCs in the blood

75
Q

What is the normal range value of hematocrit in men? women?

A

40-50%; 38-45%

76
Q

What is polycythemia vera?

A

A condition that results from the overproduction of RBCs

77
Q

What clinical condition is associated with a low hematocrit? What are the signs and symptoms of this condition?

A

Anemia; Anemia is a below normal oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. A person with anemia may experience fatigue, chills, shortness of breath and increased heart rate. Signs include low hematocrit, low iron and low RBC count.

78
Q

What are the signs of polycythemia?

A

Abnormally high hematocrit, high blood viscosity, low O2 capacity and high BP

79
Q

What are the four blood types?

A

A, B, AB, O

80
Q

Why does agglutination occur with improperly matched blood?

A

Specific antigen antibodies are binding together RBCs with those specific antigens.

81
Q

A Rh+ man mates with a Rh- woman and their first child is Rh+. Is the child at risk for Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn? What about a second child from the same couple?

A

No; Mom isn’t exposed to fetal blood until after birth; Yes, since the mom was exposed to Rh+ blood, she now has anti-Rh antibodies so her second child is at risk for Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn.

82
Q

A person has type O- blood. To whom may they safely donate blood? From whom may they safely receive blood?

A

A, B, AB, O, both - and +

83
Q

A person has type B+ blood. To whom may they safely donate blood? From whom may they safely receive blood?

A

B+ or AB+

84
Q

A person has type AB+ blood. To whom may they safely donate blood? From whom may they safely receive blood?

A

AB+; A, B, AB, O, both - and +

85
Q

What blood type is a universal donor?

A

O-

86
Q

What blood type is the universal acceptor?

A

AB+

87
Q

What does HIV primarily attack?

A

T helper lymphocytes

88
Q

What is the sign for AIDS?

A

T-Cell count below 200/ml of blood

89
Q

What 3 tests are used to detect HIV?

A

ELISA, Western Blot and Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

90
Q

What are ELISA and Western Blot designed to detect? PCR?

A

anti-HIV antibodies; viral RNA or DNA

91
Q

What does ELISA stand for?

A

Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbant Array

92
Q

Why is it essential for ELISA to have a positive and negative control?

A

To tell us that the experimental system is working and that positive and negative results are at least possible under our experimental conditions.

93
Q

What is a false positive? false negative?

A

A false positive is a test result that indicates a person is HIV positive when in fact they are not. A false negative is a negative result when the subject is actually positive.

94
Q

What types of drugs are used to inhibit viral replication in HIV+ individuals?

A

Antiviral drugs (reverse transcription inhibitors and protease inhibitors)

95
Q

How does HIV replicate?

A

HIV inserts it’s viral RNA into the host cell and makes DNA from the RNA template (reverse transcription)

DNA based on the viral genome is inserted into host DNA and uses transcription machinery to replicate itself

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