Board Prep Micro Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

Clostridium perfringes toxin

A

alpha toxin with gas gangrene
this virulence factor contains lecithinase and phospholipase c
causing the lysis of phospholipids

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2
Q

Lysogenic transduction

A

the viral genome enters the of bacterium A. When the bacterium replicates some of the DNA is incorporated into the bacteriophage and can affect Bacterium B
cholera toxin and diphtheria toxin

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3
Q

Sudden onset fever followed days later by a rash that spreads in a peripheral to central pattern

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)
Weil-Felix test is classic diagnoistic test: based on cross-reactivity btwn Rickettsia and certain serotypes of Proteus
The Somatic O antigen is capable of cross-reacting with anti-Rickettsia antibodies causing agglutination

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4
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A

rapidly evolving infection of the fascia. The M protein allows bacteria to evade phagocytosis and move rapidly through tissue

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5
Q

BCG vaccination

A

clear chest radiograph should not be treated for TB if a PPD yields response of less than 10 mm

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6
Q

Black non healing eschar and surrounding edema

A
Cutaneous Anthrax (B. anthracis, sport forming gram-positive rod)
Anthrax edema toxin is an adenylate cyclase that increases intracellular cAMP
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7
Q

Bordetella pertussis toxin MOA

A

activated adenylate cyclase

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8
Q

Clostridium botulinum Toxin MOA

A

inhibits the release of acetylcholine at synaptic vesicles

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9
Q

C. Diphtheriae (and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) toxin MOA

A

ADP-ribosylation of EF-2

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10
Q

Clostridium tetani toxin MOA

A

Inhibits the release of GABA and glycine (inhibitory neurotransmitters)

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11
Q

Shigella dysenteriae, E. Coli O157:H7 toxin MOA

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by degrading ribosome subunit 60S

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12
Q

S. Aureus

A

Alpha toxin forms holes in the membrane. Beta toxin degrades sphingomyelin

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13
Q

Positive PPD with no risk factors

A

> 15 mm of induration needed for treatment

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14
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

is an acid-fast bacterial stain
Think Mycobacterium
prophylaxis with azithro and clarithro with CD4+ counts under 50

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15
Q

Sterile pyuria

A

N. Gonorrhea is intracellular and is not detected on urinalysis or standard urinary culture

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16
Q

Distinguishing S. mutans from S. pneumoniae

A

S. mutans are optochin resistant, alpha hemolytic and insoluble in bile
S. Pneumoniae is sensitive to optochin and bile soluble

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17
Q

Anaerobic bacteria above the diaphragm

A

use clindamycin

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18
Q

N. Meningitis

A

can be differentiated from other meningitis due to the petechial skin rash

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19
Q

HIV positive brain biopsy

A

think about varicell and herpes encephalitis which present with Cowdry’s type A inclusion bodies

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20
Q

Intraerythrocytic protozoan transmitted by the Ixodes tick

A
Babesiosis activates compliment
fever, chills, myalgias, GI, dark-colored urine
not usually have rash
Maltese cross
typically have low C3, C4, and CH50
21
Q

Viral myocarditis

A

Most common cause is Coxsackie B which is a SS linear non-enveloped RNA virus
new murmur from either mitral or tricuspid regurg
biopsy of mononuclear cell infiltration of the endomyocardium

22
Q

Bartonella henselae in HIV

A

causes bacillary angiomatosis in HIV+ patients, painless red-purple lesions that bleed easily

23
Q

ancylotoma duodenale

A

roundworm fecally excreted and dermally acquired
few acute problems
nutritional insuffiencies secondary to intestinal malabsorption

24
Q

trypanosoma cruzi

A

appears as a flagellated protozoan on peripheral blood smear

achalasia

25
Cryptosporidiosis
chronic, watery, non-bloody diarrhea malabsorption and vitamin deficiency acid-fast oocysts in stool
26
HIV tax
conical, envelope, rna
27
visceral leishmaniasis
sand-fly disease, southeast asia, nonspecific syndrome | fever, weight loss, malaise, and splenomegaly
28
Dracunculiasis
guinea worm copepods that ingest larvae, traverses GI mucosa and matures in abd cavity then travels subcutaneously to erupt as a blister in lower mucosa purulent thin whitish filament
29
HiB
virulence factor is IgA protease
30
Plasmodium Falciparum treatment
artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) | dihydroartemisinin and piperaquine moa unknown
31
rhinocerebral mucormycosis
caused by zygomycetes (mucor, rhizopus) seen in DM pt. black nasal discharge
32
Histoplasma
most common cause of chronic mediastinitis ahead of TB and radiation
33
Quellung rxn
detects encapsulated organisms: | HiB, Strep pneumoniae, N. Meningitidis, Klebsiella, Salmonella
34
Adenovirus
URI, conjunctivitis, aseptic meningitis, ear infection rarely hemorrhagic cystitis in young children double stranded naked linear DNA
35
Pneumocystis pneumonia and Toxoplasma gondii HIV prophylaxis
TMP-SMX
36
Transformation
uptake of free-floating DNA by competent bacteria
37
echinococcosis granulosus
hepatic cysts | treat with albendazole
38
Legionella pneumophila
detected using urinary antigen test gram neg rod stain with silver
39
R.Rickettsii
invasion of bacteria into vascular endothelial cells
40
Rotavirus
non-enveloped, double-stranded RNA
41
HPV
non-enveloped double-stranded circular DNA virus
42
Reactive arthritis
possible causative pathogens: | chlamydia trachomatis, yersinia, salmonella, shigella, campylobacter, e. coli, c. diff, chlamydia pneumoniae
43
Coccidioidomycosis
thick-walled, non-budding spherules treat systemic=amphotericin B mild= fluconazole/itraconazole
44
Erysipelas
erythematous, raised, well-demarcated rah Strep pyogenes most common treat with oral amoxicillin
45
S. pneumoniae virulence factor
polysaccharide capsule
46
Rubeola
paramyxovirus that has giant cell pneumonia as a sequelae
47
Tularemia
can be transmitted by inhalation and is a potential bioweapon
48
Tropical Spastic Paraparesis
caused by HTVL-1 that presents w. LE pins and needles, bladder problems, and sexual problems dx. presence of retroviral proteins
49
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Gram-negative, aerobic, non-lactose fermenting and oxidase positive rod Exotoxin A inactivates EF2