Board Questions Flashcards

(437 cards)

1
Q

You receive a phone call at 0200 on Saturday morning/Friday night. It is one of your Soldiers who says that he has been out drinking and needs a ride home. How do you respond?

A

To ensure a soldier’s safety, ask if they are okay and if anyone else is with them. Find out their location and ensure they understand not to drive. If they can, ask them to call an Uber or taxi ride. If not, drive yourself or call someone. Document the incident in counseling, emphasizing drinking prevention, referring to resources, taking appropriate action for underage, emphasizing the right decision, and serving as documentation for future incidents.

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2
Q

Did you check your Soldiers’ rooms today? Why is it important to check your Soldiers’ rooms?

A

Maintain honesty and accountability by checking Soldiers’ rooms daily. Ensure they are functioning properly and maintain their room according to unit standards or barracks SOP. Learn their habits and behaviors to identify potential issues. Maintain government property with respect and avoid damage. Senior leaders should teach and display honesty, as lying is not a death sentence but an opportunity for growth.

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3
Q

One of your Soldiers just failed an ACFT. Describe the steps you would take beginning after the failure.

A

The leader’s responsibility is to counsel soldiers about their physical fitness, explaining the consequences of failure, potential separation, and career limitations. They should not solely focus on passing PT tests, but rather transform them into self-sufficient soldiers. The leader should identify why a Soldier failed and develop a plan to fix it. The leader should motivate the Soldier to achieve the standard, provide necessary tools, and ensure they follow the plan. If the Soldier does not improve, the leader may initiate separation. The leader aims to preserve the Army and nation for future generations.

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4
Q

You’re standing in line in uniform at a restaurant for lunch when someone approaches you and asks, “Aren’t you glad that clown Trump is out of office?” How would you respond?

A

The speaker, representing the Army, emphasizes the importance of protecting the Constitution and defending the people of the United States, regardless of the President. They avoid discussing personal political views as it would be unprofessional and inappropriate.

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5
Q

What was the last book you read professionally?

A

Don’t let this question trip you up! Grab a book from AUSA’s 2023 NCO Reading List and be able to answer honestly.

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6
Q

Describe and define counterproductive/toxic leadership.

A

Toxic leadership, characterized by incompetence, abuse, erratic, corrupt, and self-serving behaviors, hinders mission accomplishment in the Army by preventing a conducive environment.

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7
Q

Describe Abusive behaviors

A

Bullying, berating, conflict, ridiculing, domineering, disrespecting, insulting, condescending, or retaliating are examples of negative behavior towards others.

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8
Q

Define Self-serving behaviors

A

Examples of arrogance include disregarding others, taking credit, distorting information, exaggerating accomplishments, prioritizing one’s own over others’, exhibiting narcissistic tendencies, or a sense of entitlement.

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9
Q

define Erratic behaviors

A

Examples of unapproachable behavior include blaming others, deflecting responsibility, losing temper, inconsistent behavior, insecurity, and being unapproachable.

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10
Q

define Leadership incompetence

A

Examples of unengaged leadership include passiveness, neglect of responsibilities, poor judgment, poor motivation, withholding encouragement, unclear communication of expectations, and refusal to listen to subordinates.

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11
Q

define Corrupt behaviors

A

Examples of misconduct include dishonesty, misuse of government resources, hostile work environment, EEO/SHARP violations, and violations of Title 10, United States Code, AR 600-100, or Uniform Code of Military Justice.

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12
Q

What are unified land operations?

A

The Army leverages strategic initiatives to gain and maintain a relative advantage in land operations through simultaneous offensive, defensive, and stability operations to prevent conflict and promote favorable conflict resolution.

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13
Q

What is Army Doctrine?

A

a body of thought on how Army forces operate as an integral part of a joint force

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14
Q

What are the eight operational variables?

A

Political, economic, military, social, physical environment, infrastructure, information, time

HINT Remember PEMSPIIT

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15
Q

What are the six mission variables?

A

Mission, Enemy, Time, Terrain, Troops, Civil considerations
HINT Remember METT-TC

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16
Q

What are the two most challenging potential enemy threats the U.S. faces?

A

A Nonstate Entity and a Nuclear-Capable Nation-State partnered with one or more Nonstate Actors

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17
Q

What are the two Army Core Competencies?

A

Combined arms maneuver and wide area security

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18
Q

What is combined arms maneuver?

A

Combat power is the strategic use of elements to defeat enemy forces, seize, occupy, and defend land, and gain advantages over the enemy to seize and exploit opportunities.

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19
Q

What is wide area security?

A

Combat power is used in unified action to protect populations, forces, infrastructure, and activities, deny enemy positions, and consolidate gains to retain initiative.

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20
Q

What is mission command?

A

the exercise of authority and direction by the commander using mission orders to conduct unified land operations

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21
Q

What is the foundation of unified land operations built on?

A

Initiative, decisive action, and mission command

HINT Remember MID

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22
Q

What is seizing the initiative?

A

Setting and dictating the terms of action

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23
Q

What are stability operations?

A

Military missions and activities outside the United States are conducted to maintain a safe environment, provide essential services, rebuild infrastructure, and provide humanitarian relief.

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24
Q

What is an operation?

A

A military action, consisting of two of more related tactical actions, designed to achieve a Strategic Objective, in whole or in part

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25
What is a tactical action?
A battle or engagement is a strategic conflict involving lethal or nonlethal actions, aimed at the enemy, terrain, friendly forces, or other entity.
26
What are the characteristics of an Army operation?
Flexibility, integration, lethality, adaptability, depth, synchronization *HINT* Remember F-DIALS
27
What are troop leading procedures (TLPs)?
A dynamic process used by Small-Unit Leaders to analyze a Mission, Develop a Plan, and Prepare for an Operation
28
What are the TLPs?
The mission involves receiving the mission, issuing a warning order, creating a tentative plan, initiating movement, conducting reconnaissance, completing the plan, issuing a warning order, supervising, and refining. *HINT* Remember RIMICCIS (Rim E See Sis)
29
What is the warfighting function?
a group of tasks and systems united by a common purpose that commanders use to accomplish missions
30
What are the warfighting functions?
Mission Command, Movement and maneuver, Intelligence, Fires, Sustainment, Protection
31
What are decisive operations?
Operations that lead directly to the accomplishment of a commander’s purpose
32
What are shaping operations?
Operations that create and preserve conditions for the success of the decisive operation
33
What are sustainment operations?
Operations which enable the decisive operation or shaping operation by generating and maintaining combat power
34
What is operational art?
the pursuit of strategic objectives, in whole or in part, through the arrangement of tactical actions in time, space, and purpose
35
What is the main effort?
the designated subordinate unit whose mission at a given point in time is most critical to overall mission success
36
What is the supporting effort?
designated subordinate units with missions that support the success of the main effort Share this:
37
What covers Army Leadership?
ADP 6-22
38
What is Army Leadership?
Influencing others by providing purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish the mission and improve the organization
39
What is “Mission Command”?
The Army’s approach to command and control that empowers subordinate decision making and decentralized execution appropriate to the situation.
40
What is AR 600-20?
Army Command Policy
41
What are the three levels of leadership?
Direct, organizational, and strategic
42
What are the three leader attributes?
Character, presence, and intellect
43
What are the three leader competencies?
Leads, develops, and achieves
44
What does character refer to?
Who the leader is; their internal identity
45
What does presence refer to?
how others see the leader; their actions, demeanor, and appearance
46
What does intellect refer to?
The ability and knowledge the leader possesses
47
Why do leaders develop others?
to assume greater responsibility and increase expertise
48
What are the four requirements of character?
Army Values, empathy, Warrior Ethos, and discipline
49
What are the four requirements of presence?
Military and professional bearing, fitness, confidence, and resilience
50
What are the five requirements of intellect?
Mental agility, sound judgement, innovation, interpersonal tact, and expertise
51
What are the five requirements and expectations of “lead”?
Leads others, Extends influence beyond the chain of command, Builds trust, Leads by example, and Communicates
52
What is the one requirement and expectation of “achieves”?
Gets results
53
What are the four requirements and expectations of “develops”?
Fosters espirit de corps (a jealous regard for one’s own unit), prepares self, develops others, and stewards the profession
54
What are the three principal ways that leaders can develop others?
Counseling, coaching, and mentoring
55
Name things in a unit which affect morale.
Food, military justice, mail, supply, and billeting
56
What are the two barriers to communication?
Physical and psychological
57
Describe the Be Know Do.
Army leadership requires a leader's character, values, and attributes, as well as their skills in technical and interpersonal aspects. However, effective leadership requires the application of knowledge and action.
58
Provide daily examples of leadership attributes and competencies, such as demonstrating the intellect attribute.
As an infantry team leader, I must demonstrate expertise in physical therapy (PT) daily, ensuring safe and effective exercise execution. Proper execution of kettle bell swings is crucial for maximum benefit and preventable injuries.
59
What is counterproductive/toxic leadership?
the demonstration of leader behaviors that violate one or more of the Army’s core leader competencies or Army Values, preventing a climate conducive to mission accomplishment
60
Describe toxic leadership.
Leadership incompetence as well as abusive, erratic, corrupt, and self-serving behaviors
61
define Abusive behaviors
Bullying, berating, conflict, ridiculing, domineering, disrespecting, insulting, condescending, or retaliating are examples of negative behavior towards others.
62
define Self-serving behaviors
Examples of arrogance include disregarding others, taking credit, distorting information, exaggerating accomplishments, prioritizing one's own over others', exhibiting narcissistic tendencies, or a sense of entitlement.
63
What is the definition of a METL?
METL (Mission Essential Task List) is the doctrinal framework of fundamental tasks for which the unit was designed
64
What are the TLPs (Troop Leading Procedures)?
The process involves receiving the mission, issuing a warning order, creating a tentative plan, initiating movement, conducting reconnaissance, completing the plan, issuing the operations order, and supervising and refining it.
65
What do subordinates provide in order to enable the Commander to assess the readiness of a mission-essential task?
After Action Review (AAR)
66
What are the four steps to an AAR?
The text outlines the expected outcome, what happened, the improvements/sustains, and the next steps for improvement and improvement.
67
What are the codes used to rate task proficiency?
T – Trained, P – Needs Practice, U- Untrained
68
What Army publication is known as “training the force”?
ADP 7-0
69
What does UCMJ stand for?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice
70
What does MCM stand for?
Manual for Courts Martial
71
What does SCM stand for?
Summary Courts Martial
72
What does GCM stand for?
General Court Martial
73
What article in the UCMJ covers nonjudicial punishment?
Article 15
74
What are the three types of nonjudicial punishment (Article 15)?
Summarized, Company grade, and Field grade
75
How long after an incident can a company commander impose nonjudicial punishment?
Not more than 2 years from the date of the incident
76
How many articles are in the UCMJ?
146 articles with 12 sub-articles
77
What is the maximum punishment for a Summary Article 15?
A: 1. Extra duties for 14 days. 2. Restriction for 14 days. 3. Oral reprimand or admonition.
78
What form is used for Article 15s?
DA form 2627
79
What are the rights given to soldiers under Article 31?
The right to remain silent, the right to an attorney, the right to a trial
80
What is the maximum punishment for a Company grade Article 15?
1. 7 days correctional custody (PFC and below) 2. Restriction for 14 days. 3. Extra duties for 14 days.
81
Reduction in grade by 1 (E-4 and below)
Forfeiture of 7 days pay.
82
What is the year the UCMJ became law?
1951
83
What is the maximum punishment for a Field Grade Article 15?
1. Correctional custody of 30 days (PFC and below). 2. Restriction for 60 days. 3. 30 days arrest in quarters 4. Extra duties for 45 days. 5. 1 or more grades for E-4 and below, 1 grade for E-5,6 6. Forfeiture of 1/2 month’s pay for 2 months
84
What are the three types of court martial?
Summary, special, and general
85
What is the highest military court?
The court of military appeals
86
What are articles 77 – 134 known as?
Punitive articles
87
Who may impose an Article 15?
Any commanding officer
88
Who may impose a Field grade Article 15?
Any 0-4 or above
89
What is the purpose of the EO program?
The EO Program aims to maximize human potential and ensure fair treatment based on merit, fitness, and capability, supporting readiness.
90
What is discrimination?
Any action that unlawfully or unjustly results in unequal treatment of persons or groups based on race, color, gender, national origin or religion
91
What is an EOA, EOL, EOR?
Equal Opportunity – Advisor (BDE and higher), Leader, Representative (company and BN)
92
What is the Army’s EO/Sexual Harassment Assistance Line number?
1–800–267–9964
93
What regulation governs the investigations of EO Complaints?
AR 15-6
94
What are the two types of EO Complaints?
Formal and Informal
95
What is an Informal Complaint?
any complaint that a Soldier or Family member does not wish to file in writing
96
What are Channels that a person can use to file a formal complaint?
1. Someone in a higher echelon of the complainant’s chain of command 2. Inspector General 3. Chaplain (Confidential) 4. Provost marshal 5. Medical agency personnel 6. Staff judge advocate 7. Chief, Community Housing Referral and Relocation Services Office
97
What is a Formal Complaint?
Formal complaints require specific actions, timelines, and documentation, while complainants file in writing and swear to the accuracy of the information.
98
What is the form used to file a Formal Complaint?
DA Form 7279 (Equal Opportunity Complaint Form)
99
How long do Soldiers have to file a Formal Complaint?
60 days from the incident
100
What does SHARP stand for?
Sexual Harassment Assault Response and Prevention
101
What is the Army’s slogan for the SHARP campaign?
I AM Strong.
102
What does I AM stand for?
Intervene, Act, Motivate
103
What does POSH stand for?
Prevention of Sexual Harassment
104
What is the Army’s Policy on Sexual Harassment?
It is unacceptable conduct and will not be tolerated
105
What are the results of Sexual Harassment?
Sexual harassment destroys teamwork and negatively affects combat readiness
106
What is Sexual Harassment?
Sexual harassment is a form of gender discrimination involving unwanted advances, requests for favors, and sexual conduct between the same or opposite genders.
107
What are the different categories of Sexual Harassment?
1. Verbal 2. Non-Verbal 3. Physical Contact
108
What are the Types of Sexual Harassment?
1. Quid pro quo (this for that) 2. Hostile environment
109
What are the five techniques of dealing with Sexual Harassment?
1. Direct approach 2. Indirect approach 3. Third party 4. Chain of command 5. Filing a formal complaint
110
What is the Army’s definition of Sexual assault?
a crime defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, physical threat or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent
111
What are the three echelons of sexual assault victim advocates (VAs) in a Garrison Environment?
1. The installation sexual assault response coordinator (SARC) 2. Installation victim advocates (IVA) 3. Unit victim advocates (UVAs)
112
What are the two types of reporting of Sexual Assault?
Restricted and Unrestricted
113
What is Restricted reporting?
Restricted reporting allows a confidentially disclosed sexual assault victim to disclose details to identified individuals, receive medical treatment, and counseling without initiating the official investigative process.
114
What is Unrestricted reporting?
Unrestricted reporting allows soldiers who are sexually assaulted to report the incident to current channels, the SARC, or the VA for medical treatment, counseling, and an official investigation.
115
Who can a Soldier report a Sexual Assault to if they want to keep it restricted?
A soldier can file a restricted report with a trusted third party, as long as the information isn't shared with the victim's chain of command or law enforcement.
116
Who can a Soldier report a Sexual Assault to if they want it to be Unrestricted?
chain of command, law enforcement or report the incident to the SARC
117
What form is used to submit a Sexual Harassment Complaint?
DA Form 7746
118
What is a DD Form 2910?
The Department of Defense utilizes a Victim Reporting Preference Statement form, enabling support personnel to counsel victims, inform them of options, and allow them to choose their preferred report.
119
What is retaliation?
The term "wrongfully taking or threatening to take adverse personnel action" refers to the act of withholding or threatening to withhold favorable personnel action against someone who reports or plans to report an offense.
120
What does AR 600-25 Cover?
Military Customs and Courtesies but the Official Title is “Salutes, Honors and Visits of Courtesy”
121
When will personnel Salute indoors?
when reporting to your commander, when reporting to a pay officer, when reporting to a military board, at an indoor ceremony, at sentry duty indoors
122
What are the Six situations when Salutes not required to be rendered or returned when the senior or subordinate?
(1) In civilian attire. (2) Engaged in routine work if the salute would interfere. (3) Carrying articles with both hands so occupied as to make saluting impracticable. (4) Working as a member of a detail, or engaged in sports or social functions where saluting would present a safety hazard. (5) In public places such as theaters, churches, and in public conveyances. (6) In the ranks of a formation
123
What Courtesy must be performed on Independence day?
a salute to the Union (50 guns) will be fired at 1200 hours on Independence Day at all Army installations
124
What Courtesy must be performed on Memorial day?
at 1200 hours the national salute (21 guns) will be fired at all installations
125
When must the Army Song be played?
The Army song concludes all reviews, parades and honor guard ceremonies
126
What is the origin of the hand salute?
The Hand Salute, a gesture of respect, may have originated in late Roman times as a way to show respect to public officials and knights. It evolved to touching the hat by 1820 and is still used today.
127
When would enlisted members salute each other?
reporting to an enlisted president of a board and when reporting in formation
128
How far away should you be before rendering the hand salute to an Officer?
Approximately 6 paces
129
Who should salute an Officer in a group of soldiers not in formation?
The first person to see the officer should call the group to attention and everyone should salute
130
On what side do you walk when walking with a person senior to you?
on the senior person’s left
131
What songs correspond to the raising and lowering of the flag?
Reveille for the raising and Retreat and To The Color for the lowering (salute only during To The Color)
132
What does AR 623-3 cover?
Evaluation standards for all ranks, Officers, Warrant Officers, and enlisted Soldiers
133
What is a DA Form 2166-8?
NCOER
134
What is a DA Form 2166-8-1?
NCOER Counseling and Support Form
135
What is the DA Form 1059?
Service School Academic Evaluation Report
136
What will the NCOER rating chain consist of?
will consist of the rated NCO, the rater, the senior rater, and the reviewer
137
What is the primary reference for procedural guidance on preparing evaluation reports?
DA Pam 623–3
138
What are the different types of NCOER’s?
1. Change of Rater 2. Annual 3. Extended Annual 4. Change of Duty 5. Depart Temporary Duty, Special Duty, or Temporary Change of Station 6. Temporary Duty, Special Duty, or Temporary Change of Station 7. Relief for Cause 8. Complete the Record 9. Senior Rater Option
139
What are the five F’s of field sanitation?
Fingers, feces, food, flies, fluids
140
What are two ways to purify water?
Iodine tablets or boiling
141
What are the four types of waste?
Human, liquid, garbage, rubbish
142
What is potable water?
Water that is safe to drink
143
What is palatable water?
Water that tastes good, but may be unsafe to drink
144
What three rules cover water discipline in the field?
1. drink only from approved sources 2. conserve water 3. do not contaminate water sources
145
What are the three most common poison plants?
Ivy, oak, sumac
146
What diseases are carried by flies?
typhoid, dysentery, cholera
147
What diseases are carried by mosquitoes?
malaria, dengue, yellow fever, encephalitis, filariasis
148
What are some methods of disposing human waste?
straddle trench, mound latrine, burn out latrine, deep pit, bore hole latrines, pail latrines, urine soak pits
149
What are the measurements of a straddle trench?
1 ft wide, 4 ft long, 2 1/2 feet deep
150
What is counseling?
Counseling is the process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the subordinate’s demonstrated performance and potential
151
What are the three categories of developmental counseling?
Performance, Event-oriented, Professional growth
152
Which form is developmental counseling conducted on?
DA Form 4856
153
What Army Regulation covers counseling for NCOs?
AR 623-3
154
What does documenting short and long term goals create?
An Individual Development Plan (IDP)
155
What are the five characteristics of an effective counselor?
Purpose, Flexibility, Respect, Communication, Support
156
What are the five qualities of an effective counselor?
Respect for subordinates, Self-Awareness, Cultural Awareness, Empathy, Credibility
157
What are the three basic counseling skills?
active listening, responding, appropriate questioning
158
What are the four stages of the counseling process?
1. Identify the need for counseling 2. Prepare the counseling session 3. Conduct the counseling 4. Follow-up
159
Who should always be counseled?
Soldiers who are not meeting the standard
160
What are the four basic components of a counseling session?
1. Open the session 2. Discuss the issues 3. Develop a plan of action 4. Record and close the session
161
What are the three approaches to counseling?
Directive, non-directive, combination
162
What Army publication covers counseling?
ATP 6-22.1
163
What are the three crucial leader development components or the three leader development lines of effort?
Training, education, and experience
164
What is leader development?
Leader development is a continuous process rooted in Army Values, fostering competent, committed, and professional leaders through training, education, experiences, and peer-development relationships.
165
Explain the ends concept of leader development.
Ends -A process that aligns training, education, and experience to prepare leaders who exercise mission command in order to prevail in unified land OPS.
166
Explain the ways concept of leader development.
Ways – Central to this strategy is that leaders at all levels understand their responsibility for continually developing other leaders.
167
Explain the means concept of leader development.
Means – Means includes will, time, people, and funding. (Will and time are the two most important).
168
What are the definitions of the institutional domains?
The Army Staff, supporting organizations, and schools offer training for Soldiers and civilians, including advanced civil schooling, industry training, and fellowships to supplement leader education.
169
What are the definitions of the operational domains?
Encompasses all training and education in deployable units. After-action reviews, coaching, counseling, sharing, and mentoring are important parts of developing leaders. Self-Development – Includes planned and goal-oriented learning
170
What are the definitions of the self development domains?
Self-development is a goal-oriented learning method that enhances knowledge and self-awareness, bridging learning gaps between operational and institutional domains, and can be structured, guided, or personal. optional, or self-initiated.
171
What are the three variations of self-development?
structured self-development, guided self-development, optional learning
172
What are the four core roles of the NCO?
1) Leads by example. 2) Trains from experience. 3) Enforces and maintains standards. 4) Takes care of Soldiers, their Families, and equipment.
173
What are the six vital learning areas for NCOs?
The Army profession, Professional Competence, Team building, Fitness and resiliency, Learning, Adaptibility
174
What is the ACT?
The Army Career Tracker
175
What is the purpose of ACT?
ACT is a single point-of-entry for career and leadership development, supporting military and civilian personnel's personal and PD goals. It allows users to manage career objectives, monitor progress, and arrange individual developmental opportunities throughout the Soldier life cycle.
176
What is the EPMS?
The Enlisted Personnel Management System. An evolutionary system that balances the needs of the Army with the developmental requirements of the enlisted force.
177
What are the three subsystems that compose that EPMS?
Strength management, Career development, and evaluations
178
What are the eight-steps in the EPMS personnel life-cycle function?
personnel structure, acquisition, distribution, development, deployment, compensation, sustainment, and transition
179
What regulation covers the Army Materiel Maintenance Policy?
AR 750-1
180
What are the four levels of maintenance?
Unit, direct support, general support, and depot
181
What does PMCS stand for?
Preventative maintenance checks and service
182
When does PMCS need to be performed?
before, during, and after the operation of a piece of equipment and at scheduled weekly and monthly intervals
183
What is a TM?
Technical manual – used for outlining the specific scope of repairs on equipment
184
What is the DA Form 2404/DA Form 5988-E?
Equipment Inspection and Maintenance Worksheet
185
What does TAMMS stand for?
The Army Maintenance Management System
186
What is PLL?
Prescribed Load List
187
How long does a basic PLL sustain a unit?
15 days
188
Class 1
seepage of fluid NOT great enough to form drops
189
Class 2
seepage of fluid great enough to form drops but not great enough to cause the drops to fall during inspection
190
Class 3
seepage of fluid great enough to form drops and drip during inspection
191
What Army publication covers TAMMS?
DA PAM 750-8 CH 3
192
What is the maximum range of the M249 SAW?
3600 meters (m)
193
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 on an area target?
Tripod – 1,000 meters ; Bipod – 800 meters
194
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 on a point target?
Tripod – 800 meters ; Bipod 600 meters
195
What does SAW stand for?
Squad Automatic Weapon
196
What is the weight of the M249?
16.41 lbs
197
What is the length of the M249?
40.87 inches
198
Describe the M249.
The M249 machine gun is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt or magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position
199
What are the rates of fire for the M249?
Sustained, Rapid , Cyclic
200
Sustained – M249
100 rounds per minute, 6-9 round bursts every 4-5 seconds (barrel change every ten minutes)
201
Rapid –M249
200 rounds per minute, 6-9 round bursts every 2-3 seconds (barrel change every two minutes)
202
Cyclic –M249
650-850 rounds per minute (barrel change every minute)
203
What are the cycles of functioning for the M249?
Feeding, Chambering, Locking, Firing, Unlocking, Extracting, Cocking
204
Name the 3 assault firing positions for the M249.
Shoulder, Hip, Underarm
205
What are the two unique features of an M249?
It accepts M4 magazines and has a regulator to change the rate of fire
206
What is the weight of the M240B?
27.6 lbs
207
Describe the M240B.
The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position
208
What are the rates of fire for the M240B?
Sustained, Rapid, Cyclic
209
Sustained – M240B
100 rounds per minute, 6-9 round bursts every 4-5 seconds (barrel change every ten minutes)
210
Rapid – M240B
200 rounds per minute, 10-13 round bursts ever 2-3 seconds (barrel change every two minutes)
211
Cyclic – M240B
650-950 rounds per minute (barrel change every minute)
212
What is the maximum range of the M240B?
3,725 meters (m)
213
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B on point targets?
Tripod – 800 meters , Bipod – 600 meters
214
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B on area targets?
Tripod – 1,100 meters, Bipod – 800 meters
215
What is the length of the M240B?
49 inches
216
What is the distance of tracer burnout for the M240B?
900 meters
217
What optic is used for machine guns?
Elcan M145
218
What are the three classifications of fire?
Respect to the ground, weapon, and target
219
What weapon systems are covered in FM 3-22.68?
M60, M249, M240B
220
When was the NCO Corps born?
14 JUNE 1775 with the birth of the Continental Army
221
What three country traditions formed the foundation of our NCO Corps?
French, British, and Prussian
222
Who standardized the duties and responsibilities of the NCO Corps?
Inspector General Friedrich von Steuben in 1778 at Valley Forge
223
What was the name of the book that standardized the duties of the NCO Corps?
“Regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States”, commonly referred to as the blue book
224
What part of the blue book is still with us today?
TC 3-21.5 Drill and Ceremonies
225
What are the three pillars of leader development?
Institutional training, operational assignments, and self-development
226
What is duty?
something you must do by virtue of your position and is a legal and moral obligation
227
What three types of duties do NCOs have?
Specified, directed, and implied *HINT* Remember SID
228
What are specified duties?
Follow Army regulations, DA general orders, UCMJ, soldier's manuals, Army Training and Evaluation Program publications, and MOS job descriptions to ensure proper duty execution.
229
What are implied duties?
Duties which are not specifically written down, but are implied because they will improve the functioning of the unit
230
What are directed duties?
Directed duties include quarters (CQ), sergeant of guard, staff duty officer, company training NCO, and NBC NCO, which are not listed in the unit's organization charts.
231
What is general military authority?
General military authority is authority extended to all soldiers to take action and act in the absence of a unit leader or other designated authority
232
What is responsibility?
being accountable for what you do or dont do
233
What is authority?
legitimate power of leaders to direct Soldiers or take action within the scope of their position
234
What are the two types of authority?
Command and general military
235
What is command authority?
the authority leaders have over soldiers by virtue of rank or assignment
236
What manual describes legal aspects for the authority of an NCO?
Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)
237
What are the two categories of inspections?
In-ranks and in-quarters
238
What is an in-quarters inspection?
include personal appearance, individual weapons, field equipment, displays, maintenance and sanitary conditions
239
What is an in-ranks inspection?
An in-ranks inspection is of personnel and equipment in a unit formation
240
What does PCC/PCI stand for?
Precombat Checks/Inspections
241
What is unique about a squad or team leader?
This NCO is the first link in both the NCO support channel and chain of command and takes orders from both the Platoon Sergeant and Platoon Leader
242
What is subordinate to and supportive of the Chain of Command?
The NCO Support Channel
243
When was the NCO Support Channel formally recognized?
DEC 1976 in AR 600-20
244
What are the four fundamental tasks in supervising subordinates?
Assign the task, set standards, inspect progress, determine if standards have been met
245
What are the five types of power?
Legal, Reward, Coercive, Referent, Expert
246
What is legal power?
power derived from law and regulation
247
What is reward power?
power derived from capacity of leader to provide rewards for good performance
248
What is coercive power?
power which influences a person to behave in a manner contrary to how they wish to behave at that time
249
What is referent power?
power derived from a leader’s personality and is effective to the extent the leader is respected and admired
250
What is expert power?
power derived from leader’s knowledge, skills, and capabilities
251
What does PRT stand for?
Physical Readiness Training
252
What FM covers Physical Readiness Training (PRT)?
FM 7-22
253
What does C-METL stand for?
Core Mission Essential Task List
254
What does D-METL stand for?
Direct Mission Essential Task List
255
What does WTBD stand for?
Warrior Tasks and Battle Drills
256
What is the principle that all Army training is based on?
“Train as you will fight”
257
What is the objective of PRT?
To develop Soldiers’ physical capabilities to perform their duty assignments and combat roles in accordance with their units’ METL
258
What fundamental skills to PRT activities include?
Fundamental skills like climbing, crawling, jumping, landing, and sprinting are crucial for success in complex obstacle negotiation, combatives, and military movement.
259
What are the critical components of physical readiness?
Physical components, structural capabilities, and movement skills
260
What are the structural capabilities?
load tolerance, flexibility, static balance, body composition, bone density
261
What are the physical components?
muscular strength and endurance, aerobic and anaerobic endurance, and power
262
What are the movement skills?
agility, coordination, dynamic balance, kinesthesia, pace, perception, reaction time
263
What are the training phases of H2F?
Initial and sustaining
264
What is reconditioning?
A PRT phase with the goal of restoring Soldiers’ physical fitness levels that enable them to safely progress to their previous level of physical conditioning
265
What principles does PRT follow? Hint: PIP
Precision, progression, and integration
266
Discuss sleep readiness.
Soldiers need 7-8 hours of sleep per night for performance, with optimal timing of sleep and caffeine use. Sleep replaces lost sleep.
267
What is strength?
The ability to overcome resistance
268
What is endurance?
The ability to sustain activity
269
What is aerobic? Hint: AIR LIGHT activity
Low-intensity activity for a long duration
270
What is anaerobic? Hint: high intensity for short duration
High-intensity activity for a short duration
271
What is mobility?
The functional application of strength and endurance
272
Who should be able to explain and demonstrate all PRT activities?
Officers, NCOs, and PRT leaders
273
Tell me about our H2F program.
Unit specific. Know the location, names of coaches, and services available.
274
What elements does a PRT session consist of? *HINT* PAR
Preparation, activities, and recovery
275
What does H2F stand for?
Holistic Health and Fitness
276
What are the principles of H2F and what do they mean?
Optimization, Individualization, and Immersion
277
What does Optimization mean?
Optimization is the proper combination of PT with health to achieve the best performance.
278
What does Individualization mean?
Individualization means Soldiers receive personal feedback and coaching.
279
What Immersion mean?
Immersion means the H2F program affects all aspects of a Soldier’s life from PT, to duty hours, and off-duty hours.
280
What are the five H2F domains?
Physical readiness, mental readiness, nutritional readiness, sleep readiness, and spiritual readiness
281
Discuss spiritual readiness.
Spiritual readiness is crucial in the H2F System, influencing individuals and organizations' resiliency. Leaders should support spiritual readiness practices, creating a climate of dignity and respect. Understanding common practices helps in individual development, sustainment, maintenance, and repair.
282
Discuss mental readiness.
Soldiers' mental readiness is crucial for performance optimization, developed through education, training, and practice. The H2F System combines training techniques to develop individual and unit mental readiness.
283
General Order No. 1:
“I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.”
284
General Order No. 2:
“I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner.”
285
General Order No. 3:
“I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies and anything not covered in my instructions to the commander of the relief.”
286
Who created the blue book?
Friedrich Wilhelm von Steuben
287
Whose the SHARP REP?
SFC Miles
288
Who is the EO REP?
SFC Harris
289
How often are Soldiers screened for body fat standards?
Every six months
290
What is the Time in Service and Time in Grade for Promotion to SPC?
TIS: 24 months TIG 4 Months
291
What AR covers BOSS program
AR 215-1
292
Will Soldiers who are Command referred to ASAP be flagged?
Yes Under AR 600-8-2 (FLAGS)
293
What WAR did the first infantry division enter in 1917?
World War 1
294
What are three approaches to counseling?
Directive, non-directive, combined
295
What AR covers Leave and Passes?
AR 600-8-10
296
What is the reason that the flag is worn on the right side of the Army Uniform?
to give the affect of the flag flying in the breezes the soldier moves forward.
297
Name three principal ways that leaders can develop others via feedback?
counseling, coaching, and mentoring
298
Define Leadership?
leadership is influencing people by providing purpose, direction, and motivation during the mission and to improve the organization
299
What TC covers Physical Readiness Training?
TC 3-22.20
300
What is the TIS and TIG for Promotion to PFC?
TIS 12 months TIG 4 months
301
FM 7-22 covers?
Physical Fitness
302
What AR covers Army Training and Leader Development?
AR 350-1
303
What is AERs Purpose?
AER assist soldiers and their families, and army retires to see the options they qualified for.
304
What Da Form covers Physical Readiness Test Scorecard?
DA Form 705
305
When did 1st Infantry Division take part in the allied invasion North Africa?
November 1942
306
When was the 1st Division formed?
1917
307
What AR covers SUSPENSION OF FAVORABLE PERSONNEL ACTIONS (FLAG) ?
AR 600-8-2
308
What AR covers Army Casualty Program?
AR 600-8-1
309
What AR covers Red Cross?
AR 930-5
310
What AR covers ABCP?
AR 600-9
311
What does the Gyroscope stand for?
Stability
312
What chapter in AR 670-1 goes over grooming standards?
Chapter 3
313
What does AER stand for?
Army Emergency Relief
314
What are the three symbols for ACS?
Heart, Cross, Gyroscope
315
What does the Heart mean?
Giving
316
What does PMCS stand for?
Preventive Maintenance Checks and Services
317
Is long hair allowed during PT?
Yes, so long as it is not a safety hazard.
318
Name three ways a soldier can be reduced in rank for misconduct?
Article 15, Court Martial, Conviction by Civil Court
319
What AR covers AER loans?
AR 930-4
320
What does RAM stand for? (No not General RAMM)
Risk Assessment Matrix
321
What AR covers Enlisted Promotions and Reductions?
AR 600-8-19
322
What does FM 6-22 Appendix B cover?
Counseling
323
What FM covers Map Reading and Land Navigation?
FM 3-25.26
324
What does AR 350-1 cover?
Army Training and Leaders Development
325
General Order #3
I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions to the commander of the relief.
326
General Order #2
I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner.
327
What are the Six NCO Core Competencies?
Readiness, Leadership, Training management, Communications, Operations, and Program Management
328
What are the tenets of effective training?
Must be Commander driven, Rigorous, Realistic, and to the standard and under the conditions that units expect to operate during combat operator.
329
What are the three types of court material?
General, Summarized, Special
330
What Army Field Manual covers the M136 AT4?
FM 3-23.25 Chapter 3
331
What are the two principals of SUDCC?
Treatment and Clinical Care
332
What are the categories of sexual harassment and give some example?
Verbal, Non-Verbal, Physical Contact
333
What must the Commander do when a Soldier exceeds the body fat standards?
Soldier will be flagged in accordance with AR 600-8-2 and enrolled in the ABCP.
334
What regulation covers EO, SHARP, and MRT?
AR 600-20 Army Command Policy
335
What are three methods of instructions used to teach drill to the soldiers?
Step by step, talk -through: and by the numbers
336
What is the army slogan for the SHARP campaign?
I am Strong
337
What does SUDCC stand for?
Substance Use Disorder Clinical Care
338
What is the only approved method for estimating body fat percentage?
Circumference Base Tape Method
339
What does AFAP stand for?
Army Family Action Plan
340
What AR covers ASAP?
AR 600-85
341
What is the female body fat assessment worksheet?
DA Form 5501
342
What is the male body fat assessment worksheet?
DA Form 5500
343
What are the five domains for Holistic Health and Welfare?
Physical, Nutritional, Spiritual, Sleep, Mental
344
What does ASAP stand for?
Army Substance Abuse Program
345
When was 1-63 constituted? What company were they and what Battalion?
3 May 1942 in the Army of the United States as Company A, 745th Tank Battalion
346
1-63 was Activated 15 August 1942 at what camp?
Camp Bowie, Texas
347
When was 1-63 inactive, and where were they inactive?
27 October 1945 at Camp Kilmer, New Jersey
348
Redesignated 14 September 1948 as Company____________
A, 63d Heavy Tank Battalion, an element of the 1st Infantry Division
349
Activated what day in October 1948 in Germany?
10th
350
Reorganized and redesignated on ___________ Company A, 63d Tank Battalion
10 October 1950
351
Assigned in February 1996 to the 1st Infantry Division and activated in Germany on what day?
16th
352
Redesignated on what day of October 2005 as the 1st Battalion, 63d Armored Regiment?
1st
353
Inactivated what day in July 2006 in Germany and relieved from assignment to the 1st Infantry Division
15th
354
What army tactics, and procedures publications governs army field feeding system and class 1 operations?
ATP 4-41 ( formerly FM 10-23)
355
What is the purpose of the Army Field Feeding System?
The AFFS system provides flexible tactical feeding methods to commanders, considering mission, enemy, terrain, weather, troops, time, civil considerations, and logistical support on the battlefield.
356
What the the acronym CFSDP stand for?
Commander's Food Service Discipline Program
357
What is the feeding standard associated with the Army's field feeding system( AFFS)?
The AFFS has an approved feeding standard of three quality meals per day, achieved through a combination of individual and group operational rations.
358
What situations are considered ideal to utilize individual operational rations?
Individual operational rations are used when mission conditions dictate group operational rations cannot be issued or prepared.
359
What situations are considered ideal to utilize group operational rations
These meals are best used when units are located in more stable or uncontested regions on the battlefield or area of operations
360
When is the push system used regarding delivery of operational rations in an area of operations(AO)?
A push system of class 1 distribution is used to initially fill the supply pipeline during the early stages of an operational deployment.
361
Who is responsible for unit field food service operations?
The commander
362
What is the primary purpose and duty of the food service officer?
The FSO serves as a liaison between the commander and SFOS, coordinating with the unit's food advisor in all matters related to food service operations.
363
What is the approved feeding standard for the AFFS? (How many meals a day is required?)
3 meals per day
364
The FSC can be set up in _____ and be prepared for movement in _____?
1 Hr and 30 Min
365
What are the minimum dimensions needed to set up an MKT for normal operations?
30ft*30ft*11ft
366
According to the Tri-Service Food Code (TB MED 530), when using an IFC, all foods not consumed within four hours must be?
Discarded
367
How many soldiers are needed to correctly operate the KCLFF?
2
368
What is the required in order to operate the FSC?
Fuel, Water, Generator
369
During field kitchen operations, which individual is i. Charge and must know all aspects of the field feeding operations?
Culinary Management NCO
370
The KCLFF has the capacity to support _____ for one meal each day.
250
371
What is the primary purpose of the FSC?
Clean and sanitize
372
When refrigeration services are restricted, what ration has been designed to sustain the army in highly mobile field situations?
UGR H+S
373
How many soldiers will one FSC fully support?
800
374
How many days of rations will the MTRCS hold for 800 personal?
3 days
375
An alternate method to sanitize equipment and utensils when temperature cannot be maintained in the sanitation sink is by?
Chlorine Iodine
376
On a full tank of fuel, how long can the MBU-V3 run on the minimum and maximum settings, respectively?
Minimum is 20 hrs Max is 5 hrs
377
What must be used when deep frying on the M59 Field range?
Long and short arm protectors
378
What forms are used when performing PMCS of any piece of equipment?
DA form 2404/ 5988 E
379
Who must ensure the unit has all authorized field kitchen equipment?
Commander
380
What is the first menu item on the serving line in a field feeding environment?
Salad
381
What is the primary meal used during CBRN operations?
MRE
382
The KCLFF-E allows a culinary specialist to cook limited quantities of UGR-A rations for how many personnel?
150 personnel
383
How long will the 2KW Generator continuously run with a full tank of fuel?
4.8 hrs
384
How many MBUs can one power converter simultaneously support?
8
385
What must be replaced on the modern burner unit after 300 hrs of operations?
Fuel and air filter
386
Who advices the commander on the characteristics of a good field site?
Culinary management NCO
387
What is the field standard for showering as a soldier in hot, arid climate according to ATP 4-41?
2
388
What is used to remove hot tray packs from hot water and transfer them into insulated food containers?
Neoprene gloves
389
What are the three main elements of the army field feeding system? (AFFS)
Ration equipment personnel
390
What are the components of an effective hand washing station?
Wash, rinse, sanitize
391
When working in a field kitchen, what are the common accidents that may occur?
Collisions, falls, burns
392
What are the dimensions of the CK when closed and ready for transport?
8ft*8ft*20ft
393
When storing semi-perishable food, the racks or container must be how many inches above the ground?
4 inches
394
When feeding a company-sized unit at a forward location, what field equipment would be used?
KCLFF
395
When setting up the ck for operation, how many personnel are required?
4 and 1 supervisor
396
According to ATP 4-41, how many culinary specialist are required to prepare UGR-H&S for 250 Personnel?
2
397
How far away should the FSC be located from the kitchen according to ATP 4-41?
50 ft
398
How many baking racks come with each accessory outfit?
3
399
What is the primary heat source for sanitation equipment within the army field feeding system?
MBU
400
What is the only mandatory meal supplement ?
Milk
401
How many soldiers will one UGR-A module feed?
50
402
How many tray packs can be loaded into the heater tank of the KCLFF/ KCLFF-E
24
403
When setting up the FSC-2 what type of tent is used?
MGPT
404
How far from the fuel storage area must you be to light/smoke ignite an open flame?
50 ft
405
Whose responsibilities is it to advice the commander in areas of food service?
Food service advisor
406
How many soldiers can the MKT feed?
300
407
How many quarts of boiling water do you use to preheat the ICF?
2 qts
408
What is they fuel capacity of the MBU?
2 u.s. gallons
409
How many MBU-V3 May be powered through one power converter ?
3
410
What is the temperature of the second sink in the FSC?
120-140
411
How many tray packs can fit into the KCLFF heater tank?
24
412
The KCLFF is operated by how many soldiers?
2 soldiers
413
A module that provides a complete high quality hot meal for 18 soldiers?
UGR-E
414
How many personnel does it take to setup the FSC 2?
4
415
What is the primary power source for the MBU?
2K generator
416
What equipment provides the ability to heat on the move
Assault kitchen
417
What is the average meal preparation time for the CK?
3 hra
418
What is the objective of the AFFS?
Right meal right place right time
419
Tri-Service Food Code
TB530
420
FM 21-10
Field Hygiene and Sanitation
421
UGR stands for ?
Unitized Group Rations
422
What FM covers Training the Force?
FM 7-0
423
What is meant by performance oriented training?
soldiers learn best by training hands on
424
What is the Army's number one priority?
Training
425
The Army Time Management System is composed of what three phases?
Green, Amber, Red
426
Training is ______ we do, not ______ we do.
what, something
427
What is training?
The instruction of personnel to enhance their ability to perform specific military functions and their associated individual collective tasks.
428
What is the OPTEMPO of an organization?
the annual operating miles or hours for the major equipment system in a battalion-level or equivalent organization
429
What are the types of evaluations?
informal, formal, internal, external
430
What does realistic training inspire?
Fostering initiative, enthusiasm, and eagerness to learn is crucial for enhancing competence, confidence, and excellence.
431
To accomplish their training responsibility, what six things must commanders do?
The training process should be conducted according to mission requirements, Army standards, and efficiency levels, with resources provided and plans executed to produce proficient individuals and units.
432
An AAR is not called what?
A critique
433
What is the goal of combat level training?
to achieve combat level standards
434
What are the three types of training plans?
long range, short range, near term
435
Who is responsible for maintaining all assigned equipment in a high state of readiness in support of training or combat employment?
soldiers and leaders
436
What does evaluation of training measure?
the demonstrated ability of soldiers, commanders, leaders, battle staffs, and units against the Army standard
437
What does multiechelon training allow?
simultaneous training and evaluation on any combination of individual and collective tasks at more than one echelon