Board Questions Flashcards
(1688 cards)
1
Q
What does ASAP stand for?
A
Army Substance Abuse Program
2
Q
What is the mission of ASAP?
A
The ASAP’s mission is to strengthen the overall fitness and effectiveness of the Army’s total
workforce and to enhance the combat readiness of its Soldiers.
3
Q
What are the objectives of ASAP?
A
• Increase individual fitness and overall unit readiness.
• Provide services, which are adequate and responsive to the needs of the total workforce and
emphasize alcohol and other drug abuse deterrence, prevention, education, and treatment.
• Implement alcohol and other drug risk reduction and prevention strategies that respond to
potential problems before they jeopardize readiness, productivity, and careers.
• Restore to duty those substance-impaired Soldiers who have the potential for continued military
service.
• Provide effective alcohol and other drug abuse prevention and education at all levels of
command, and encourage commanders to provide alcohol and drug-free leisure activities.
• Ensure all military and civilian personnel assigned to ASAP staff are appropriately trained and
experienced to accomplish their mission.
• Achieve maximum productivity and reduce absenteeism and attrition among DA civilian
employees by reducing the effects of the abuse of alcohol and other drugs.
• Improve readiness by extending services to the total Army.
• Ensure quality customer service.
4
Q
What is meant by deglamorization of alcohol?
A
Personnel will not promote any function glamorizing the use of alcohol through drinking contests,
games, initiations, or the awarding of alcoholic beverages as prizes in contests.
5
Q
What army Regulation covers ASAP?
A
AR 600-85
6
Q
Is ASAP participation mandatory for Individuals that are command referred?
A
ASAP participation is mandatory for all Soldiers who are command referred. Failure to attend a mandatory counseling session may constitute a violation of Article 86 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
7
Q
What will happen to Soldiers who fail to participate in or fail to respond successfully to
rehabilitation?
A
Soldiers who fail to participate adequately in, or to respond successfully to, rehabilitation will be
processed for administrative separation and not be provided another opportunity for rehabilitation
except under the most extraordinary circumstances, as determined by the CD in consultation with
the unit commander.
8
Q
What are the ways that Soldiers can be identified as having a substance abuse problem?
A
Voluntary (self-identification) • Commander / Supervisor Identification • Biochemical Identification • Medical Identification • Investigation and or Apprehension (AR 600-85 / Mar 2006 3-1 / PDF 24)
9
Q
What are the objectives of rehabilitation with ASAP?
A
• Return Soldiers to full duty as soon as possible.
• Identify Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated within the scope of this regulation and to advise their
unit commanders.
• Assist and refer Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated in the ASAP to a treatment facility in the
vicinity where they reside after discharge from the Army.
• Help resolve alcohol and other drug abuse problems in the family, with the ultimate goal of
enabling the Soldier to perform more effectively.
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 4-2 / PDF 27)
10
Q
What are the objectives of bio-chemical testing (also called a urinalysis)?
A
What are the objectives of bio-chemical testing (also called a urinalysis)?
The objectives of Army’s Biochemical Testing Program are to:
• Deter Soldiers, including those members on initial entry on AD after enlistment or appointment,
from abusing drugs (including illegal drugs, other illicit substances, and prescribed medication).
• Facilitate early identification of alcohol and/or other drug abuse.
• Enable commanders to assess the security, military fitness, good order and discipline of their
units, and to use information obtained to take appropriate action (for example, UCMJ,
administrative, or other actions, including referral to the ASAP counseling center for screening,
evaluation, and possible treatment).
• Monitor rehabilitation of those enrolled for alcohol and/or other drug abuse.
• Collect data on the prevalence of alcohol and/or other drug abuse within the Army.
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 8-1 / PDF 36)
11
Q
Commanders may direct drug testing under what conditions?
A
• Unit inspections. (either the entire or part of a unit) • Search and seizures/probable cause. • Competence for Duty. • Rehabilitation. • Mishap or Safety Inspection. • Consent (specimen may be provided voluntarily by a Soldier). • New Entrant. • Medical. (AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 8-3 / PDF 37)
12
Q
All ASAP referrals are accomplished by the Commander or 1SG using what form?
A
Completing and signing the DA 8003 Referral Form.
AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 3-7 / PDF 26
13
Q
Can Soldiers that are enrolled in an ASAP rehabilitation program reenlist?
A
Soldiers currently enrolled in the ASAP rehabilitation program are not allowed to reenlist.
However, Soldiers who need additional service time to complete their enrollment may be
extended for the number of months necessary to permit completion.
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 5-6 / PDF 31)
14
Q
Will Soldiers who are command referred to ASAP be flagged?
A
Yes, IAW AR 600-8-2 (Suspension of Favorable Personnel Action (flags)).
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006 / 5-7 / PDF 31)
15
Q
What Does ACS stand for?
A
Army Community Service
AR 608-1 Dec 2004
16
Q
What does the ACS symbol represent?
A
The heart= giving, the cross= help, the gyroscope= stability
AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 3-10 / PDF 16
17
Q
What is the ACS mission statement?
A
The mission of the ACS center is to—
• Facilitate commander’s ability to provide comprehensive, coordinated, and responsive services
that support readiness of soldiers, civilian employees and their families.
• Maximize technology and resources, adapt to unique installation requirements, eliminate
duplication in service delivery, and measure service effectiveness.
(AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 1-1 / PDF 9)
18
Q
What Army regulation covers ACS?
A
AR 608-1
19
Q
How is ACS staffed for the most part?
A
By volunteers
20
Q
What is the motto of the ACS?
A
Self-help, service and stability.
AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 3-10 / PDF 16
21
Q
Who qualifies for ACS?
A
In the United States, the following personnel are eligible for ACS assistance:
• All active duty and retired military personnel and their family members, if otherwise eligible for
services.
• Members of the Army National Guard and U.S. Army Reserve when on active duty and their
family members, if otherwise eligible for services.
• Army appropriated fund (APF) and nonappropriated fund (NAF) employees and their family
members, if otherwise eligible for services.
• Family members of prisoners of war or personnel missing in action, if otherwise eligible for
services.
• Surviving family members of military personnel who died while on active duty, if otherwise eligible
for services.
In overseas commands, the Commander will determine eligibility according to international
treatise and agreements.
(AR 608-1 Dec 2004 / 1-7 / PDF 9)
22
Q
What can you do to help out ACS?
A
Donate Staple foodstuff to the food lockers, useable household goods, and volunteer your time.
23
Q
What regulation covers the ACES?
A
AR 621-5
24
Q
What regulation covers Army Learning Centers?
A
AR 621-6
25
What are the goals of ACES?
• Develop confident, competent leaders.
• Support the enlistment, retention, and transition of soldiers.
• Provide self-development opportunities for soldiers and adult family members.
• Provide self-development opportunities for DACs.
• Provide self-development opportunities for DAC ACES professional and support staff.
(AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 2-2 / PDF 12)
26
What does TABE stand for?
Test of Adult Basic Education
| AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 4-2 / PDF 17
27
How much of your tuition does the tuition assistance grant pay?
100%
28
Name some federal financial aid programs available to Soldiers through ACES
* Pell Grant
* Perkins Loans
* Guaranteed Student Loans
29
What are some of the basic services offered by the Army Continuing Education Center?
1. Basic Skills Education Program (BSEP)
2. Advanced Skills Education Program (ASEP)
3. High School Completion Program
4. Servicemembers Opportunity Colleges Associates Degree Program (SOCAD)
5. Veteran's Educational Assistance Program (VEAP)/Montgomery G. I. Bill (MGIB)
6. Skill Recognition Programs
7. Command Language Programs (Head start - Gateway)
8. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES)
9. Education Counseling Services
10. Learning Resource Centers
30
What Soldier development programs does ACES provide?
1. Functional Academic Skills Training (FAST).
2. High School Completion Program.
3. English-as-a-Second Language (ESL)
4. Mission-related Language (Head start and Gateway).
5. Mission-required Language.
6. MOS Improvement Training (MOSIT).
(AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 4-1 / PDF 17)
31
What does DANTES stand for?
Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
| AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 3-5 / PDF 16
32
What does DANTES do?
DANTES provides standardized testing services free to military personnel. Family members and
civilians may take DANTES tests but must pay for each test taken.
33
Soldiers with a GT score of less than 110 should be referred to what?
BSEP - Soldiers with a GT less than 100 are normally automatically eligible. Soldiers with a GT
between 100 and 110 may be command referred.
34
Soldiers who begin their active service after what date are eligible to receive the new GI Bill?
July 1985, but they are required to pay $100 per month for the first 12 months
35
What does SOC stand for?
Service members Opportunity Colleges
| AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 2-7 / PDF 14
36
What does SOCAD stand for?
Service members Opportunity College Army Degrees
| AR 621-5 Feb 2004 / 2-7 / PDF 14
37
AER closely coordinates with what other organization?
American Red Cross
| AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 2-13 / PDF 11
38
What is AER?
AER is a private, nonprofit organization to collect and hold funds to relieve distress of members of
the Army and their dependents. AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active
and retired) and their families in time of distress.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 1-6 / PDF 5)
39
What does AER stand for?
Army Emergency Relief
40
What is the Army Regulation that covers AER?
AR 930-4
41
Are you required to contribute to AER to receive help?
No
42
Who does AER help?
• Soldiers on extended active duty and their dependents.
• Members of the Reserve Components of the Army (Army National Guard and U.S. Army
Reserve) on continuous active duty for more than 30 days and their dependents. (This applies to
soldiers on AD for training (ADT) or serving under various sections of title 10, United States
Code).
• Soldiers retired from active duty because of longevity or physical disability, or retired upon
reaching age 60 (Reserve Components) and their dependents.
• Widows (ers) and orphans of soldiers who died while on active duty or after they retired.
(Site: AERHQ.org)
43
How are monetary contributions made to AER?
Cash, check or allotment
| AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 5-6 / PDF 24
44
When is the AER annual fund campaign held army-wide?
March 01 through May 15
| Site: AERHQ.org
45
How does AER provide financial assistance?
AER provides financial assistance by either a loan without interest, a grant or a combination of
both
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 /2-4 / PDF 8)
46
What is the purpose of AER?
AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and their families in
time of distress.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 1-6 / PDF 5)
47
What is the dollar limit on AER loans?
There is no dollar limit. AER Assistance will meet your emergency need.
(Site: AERHQ.org)
48
Failure to repay an AER loan (unless repayment would cause undo hardship) will cause the
Soldier’s name to be placed on an AER restricted list which is disseminated Army-wide. What
does this mean for the Soldier?
Individuals who appear on this list will not be approved for AER assistance without the specific
prior approval of HQ AER.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 2-8 / PDF 9)
49
What is the AER Motto?
"Helping the Army Take Care Of its Own"
| AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 1-6 / PDF 5
50
The minimum amount that can be contributed to AER through allotment is what amount?
1 dollar each month for 3 months
51
How is AER funded?
Through Voluntary Contributions from Soldiers (tax free), through unsolicited contributions,
repayments of loans, and income from investments.
(AR 930-4 Aug 1994 / 5-1 / PDF 14)
52
What is the purpose of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
The Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program reinforces the Army’s commitment to
eliminate incidents of sexual assault through a comprehensive policy that centers on awareness
and prevention, training and education, victim advocacy, response, reporting, and accountability.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-1 / PDF 72)
53
The Army's policy on Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program applies where
and when?
This policy applies—
• Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours.
• To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing).
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-2 / PDF 72)
54
What are the goals of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
• Create a climate that minimizes sexual assault incidents, which impact Army personnel, Army
civilians, and family members, and, if an incident should occur, ensure that victims and subjects
are treated according to Army policy.
• Create a climate that encourages victims to report incidents of sexual assault without fear.
• Establish sexual assault prevention training and awareness programs to educate Soldiers.
• Ensure sensitive and comprehensive treatment to restore victims’ health and well-being.
• Ensure leaders understand their roles and responsibilities regarding response to sexual assault
victims, thoroughly investigate allegations of sexual assault, and take appropriate administrative
and disciplinary action.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-1 / PDF 72)
55
Define sexual assault.
Sexual assault is a crime defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force,
physical threat or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Glossary / PDF 125)
56
Sexual assault includes what acts?
• Rape
• Nonconsensual Sodomy (oral or anal sex)
• Indecent Assault (unwanted, inappropriate sexual contact or fondling)
• Attempts to commit these acts
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Glossary / PDF 125)
57
More than half of sexual assault offenses include what?
Alcohol
58
Prevention of sexual harassment is whose responsibility?
The Commander’s Responsibility
| AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-1 / PDF 69
59
Define the following terms as they apply to the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response
Program: victim, alleged perpetrator, and perpetrator.
Victim - One who has been sexually assaulted.
Alleged Perpetrator - One who has been accused of committing a crime (subject).
Perpetrator - One who has committed a crime (offender).
60
What is the Army’s policy on sexual assault?
• Sexual assault is a criminal offense that has no place in the Army. It degrades mission readiness
by devastating the Army’s ability to work effectively as a team. Every Soldier who is aware of a
sexual assault should immediately (within 24 hours) report incidents. Sexual assault is
incompatible with Army values and is punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice
(UCMJ) and other federal and local civilian laws.
• The Army will use training, education, and awareness to minimize sexual assault; to promote the
sensitive handling of victims of sexual assault; to offer victim assistance and counseling; to hold
those who commit sexual assault offenses accountable; to provide confidential avenues for
reporting, and to reinforce a commitment to Army values.
• The Army will treat all victims of sexual assault with dignity, fairness, and respect.
• The Army will treat every reported sexual assault incident seriously by following proper
guidelines. The information and circumstances of the allegations will be disclosed on a need-to-
know basis only.
• This policy applies—
1. Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours.
2. To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post
housing).
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 8-2 / PDF 72)
61
If someone has been sexually assaulted, to whom may they report the crime?
* Their chain of command.
* Medical Treatment Facility.
* Military Police/Criminal Investigation Division.
* Chaplains.
* Social Work Services.
* Family Advocacy.
* Legal Services.
62
Army Regulation 27-10 outlines the rights of crime victims, what are they?
• The right to be treated with fairness, dignity, and a respect for privacy
• The right to be protected from the accused offender
• The right to be notified of court proceedings
• The right to be present at all public court proceedings related to the assault unless the court
determines that testimony by the victim would be materially affected if the victim heard other
testimony at trial, or for other good cause
• The right to talk to the attorney for the Government in the case
• The right to seek restitution, if appropriate
• The right to information regarding conviction, sentencing, imprisonment, and release of the
offender from custody.
63
What must Commanders do to implement and supprt the Army's Sexual Assault Prevention
and Response Program?
• Ensure that assigned personnel (to include RC personnel under their jurisdiction) are familiar with
the Army policy on sexual harassment.
• Publish and post written command policy statements for the prevention of sexual harassment.
• Continually assess and be aware of the climate of command regarding sexual harassment.
Identify problems or potential problems. Take prompt, decisive action to investigate all complaints
of sexual harassment. Either resolve the problem at the lowest possible level or, if necessary,
take formal disciplinary or administrative action. Do not allow Soldiers to be retaliated against for
filing complaints. Continually monitor the unit and assess sexual harassment prevention policies
and programs at all levels within area of responsibility. Ensure all leaders understand that if they
witness or otherwise know of incidents of sexual harassment, they are obligated to act. If they do
not, they themselves are also engaging in sexual harassment.
• Set the standard
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-2 / PDF 70)
64
What are the categories of sexual harassment and give some examples?
• Verbal – Examples of verbal sexual harassment may include telling sexual jokes; using sexually
explicit profanity, threats, sexually oriented cadences, or sexual comments.
• Nonverbal – Examples of nonverbal sexual harassment may include staring at someone (that is,
“undressing someone with one’s eyes"), blowing kisses, winking, or licking one’s lips in a
suggestive manner.
• Physical Contact - Examples of physical sexual harassment may include touching, patting,
pinching, bumping, grabbing, cornering, or blocking a passageway; kissing; and providing
unsolicited back or neck rubs.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-5 / PDF 70)
65
What does EO stand for?
Equal Opportunity
| AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-1 / PDF 56
66
What is an EOR?
Equal Opportunity Representative
| AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF – 61
67
What rank should an EOR normally be?
SGT (P) through 1LT
| AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 61
68
What are some of the special commemorations / ethnic observances listed in AR 600-20?
1. January – 3rd Monday – Martin Luther King Jr. Birthday
2. February – 1-28/29 - African-American/Black History Month
3. March – 1-31 - Women’s History Month
4. April/May - Sunday to Sunday for Week Incorporating Yom Hashoah - "Days of Remembrance"
for Victims of the Holocaust
5. May – 1-31 - Asian Pacific Heritage Month
6. August – 26 - Women’s Equality Day
7. September/October - 15 Sep.-15 Oct. - Hispanic Heritage Month
8. November – 1-30 - National Native American Indian Heritage Month
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 54)
69
What Army Regulation covers the EO program?
AR 600-20 chapter 6
70
What are the goals of the EO program?
1. Provide EO for military personnel and family members, both on and off post and within the limits
of the laws of localities, states, and host nations.
2. Create and sustain effective units by eliminating discriminatory behaviors or practices that
undermine teamwork, mutual respect, loyalty, and shared sacrifice of the men and women of
America’s Army.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-1 / PDF 56)
71
What are the three policies each commander is required to publish and post on equal
opportunity?
• Written command policy statements for EO
• Prevention of Sexual Harassment
• Equal Opportunity Complaint Procedures
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 58)
72
Soldiers are required to have how many periods of EO training per year?
4 (1 each quarter)
73
Define the term ethnic group.
A segment of the population that possesses common characteristics and a cultural heritage
based to some degree on: faith or faiths; shared traditions, values or symbols; literature, folklore,
or music; an internal sense of distinctiveness; and/or an external perception of distinctiveness.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 /Terms / PDF 126)
74
Define the term racism.
Any attitude or action of a person or institutional structure that subordinates a person or group
because of skin color or race.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-2 / PDF 57)
75
Describe minority group
Any group distinguished from the general population in terms of race, religion, color, gender, or
national origin.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Terms / PDF 124)
76
What is sexual harassment?
1. Sexual harassment is a form of gender discrimination that involves unwelcomed sexual
advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature
between the same or opposite genders when—
• Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or
condition of a person’s job, pay, career, or
• Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or
employment decisions affecting that person, or
• Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work
performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.
2. Any person in a supervisory or command position who uses or condones implicit or explicit sexual
behavior to control, influence, or affect the career, pay, or job of a Soldier or civilian employee is
engaging in sexual harassment. Similarly, any Soldier or civilian employee who makes deliberate
or repeated unwelcome verbal comments, gestures, or physical contact of a sexual nature is
engaging in sexual harassment.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 7-4 / PDF 70)
77
What is an Affirmative Actions Plan (AAP)?
A management document that consists of statements of attainable goals and timetables. This
document is required of all Army organizations, commands, agencies, and activities down to
brigade (or equivalent) level. It is designed to achieve EO for all military personnel.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / Terms / PDF 119)
78
What action does the Army take against off-post activities, including housing and public
accommodations, which arbitrarily discriminate against members of the Army and their
dependents?
Off limits or off limits sanctions may be applied.
| AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-8 / PDF 65
79
Who is the primary source for solving EO complaints?
Your Unit Chain of Command
| AR 600-20 June 2006 / D-1 / PDF 97
80
What is the Army's written policy on EO?
The U.S. Army will provide EO and fair treatment for military personnel and family members
without regard to race, color, gender, religion, national origin, and provide an environment free of
unlawful discrimination and offensive behavior. This policy—
a. Applies both on and off post, during duty and non-duty hours.
b. Applies to working, living, and recreational environments (including both on and off-post
housing).
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-2 / PDF 56)
81
What is the primary channel for correcting discriminatory practices and for communications on
equal opportunity matters?
Chain of Command
| AR 600-20 June 2006 / D-1 / PDF 97
82
Does every unit have an EO representative?
Yes, each Commander is required to appoint an EOR in the rank of SGT (P) through 1LT.
(AR 600-20 June 2006 / 6-3 / PDF 61)
83
What does AFAP stand for?
Army Family Action Plan
84
What Army Regulation covers the Army Family Action Plan?
AR 608-47
85
When was the AFAP program established?
The AFAP program was established in 1983 as a result of the Chief of Staff, Army (CSA), 1983
White Paper, “The Army Family.”
(AR 608-47 Dec 2004 / 1-4 / PDF 7)
86
The AFAP program creates an information loop between whom?
The Global Army Family and Leadership. The AFAP provides a means for Army constituents to
address and report issues of well-being concern to leadership at regular intervals.
(AR 608-47 Dec 2004 / 3-1 / PDF 12)
87
The AFAP program’s process of improvement begins where?
At the local level, where an annual symposium is held to examine issues of concern that
delegates believe need to be fixed.
(AR 608-47 Dec 2004 / 3-1 / PDF 12)
88
The Army family has been symbolized by the Secretary of the Army as an equilateral triangle.
How is each side of the triangle expressed?
* Base: "Family of Components" (Total Force)
* Second Leg: "Family of Units"
* Third Leg: "Family of People"
89
The philosophy toward the family, based on the Army Family White Paper, consists of three
critical elements. What are they?
1. Partnership
2. Wellness
3. Sense of community
90
What are some things that the AFAP does?
* Gives commanders a gauge to validate concerns and measure satisfaction
* Enhances Army's corporate image
* Helps retain the best and brightest
* Results in legislation, policies, programs and services that strengthen readiness and retention
* Safeguards well-being
91
What types of programs are focused on in the "Family of Components"?
Programs relating to the Active Army, National Guard, Army Reserve and civilian employees
92
What type of programs are focused on in the "Family of Units"?
Programs relating to the unique relationship of soldiers to their units and unit ties to other
components of the command, such as squad to its platoon or the platoon to its company (battery)
93
What is the basis for the Army theme, " The Army family"?
A joint announcement signed by the Secretary and the Chief of Staff of the Army. This
announcement was based on the C/S white paper 1983
94
What types of programs are focused on in the Family of People?
Programs relating to all areas of concern to the service members and their families, including the
military and civilian retiree
95
What are some activities that the American Red Cross offers?
CPR instruction, Blood drives, Swimming lessons, Communication services (by wire), Financial
assistance, Counseling and referral services, Transplantation services, AIDS education, Health
and safety services.
96
What is the major service that Red Cross offers?
Communication between soldiers and their families for both problem solving and emergency
(especially the notification or "red cross message")
97
What Army Regulation covers Red Cross?
AR 930-5
98
What Army Regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
AR 601-280
99
What are some reasons that a soldier may be ineligible for reenlistment?
If the soldier is barred or flagged and if the soldier is enrolled in ASAP
100
What is an SRB?
Selective Reenlistment Bonus
101
What is the minimum number of years that a soldier must reenlist for to be eligible for an SRB?
Three years
| AR 601-280 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 34
102
Can a Soldier request separation if a bar to reenlistment is imposed?
No
103
Describe a Bar to Reenlistment.
Administrative action initiated by the commander to prevent a substandard soldier from reenlisting
or reentering the service
104
A Bar to Reenlistment is reviewed how often?
Every three months or 30 days prior to PCS / ETS
105
Who can initiate a Bar to Reenlistment?
Any commander in the soldier’s chain of command
106
Who is the final approving authority for a Bar to Reenlistment?
A Commander who is one approval level higher than the commanding authority
107
Soldiers SGM and below who have not reenlisted under the indefinite reenlistment program are
required to receive Retention Interviews. When are they done?
* Career Counselor: 30 days from arrival to unit
* Unit Commander 90 days from arrival
* Unit Commander 15-16 months prior to ETS
* Career Counselor 13-14 months prior to ETS
* Career Counselor 4 months prior to ETS
* Reserve Component Career counselor 90-120 days prior to ETS
108
Who may lift a Bar?
The same authority that approved the Bar may lift it with a written recommendation by the unit
Commander
109
What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
A water fire Extinguisher
110
Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
It is the responsibility of each soldier
111
The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
Risk Management
112
What accounts for the majority of accidents?
Carelessness
113
Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
AR 385-40
114
Name 3 safety features commonly found in any barracks.
* Lights in stairwells
* Fire lights (emergency lighting)
* Fire extinguisher and alarms
* Arms room safety procedures
* First aid kits
* CQ
* Safety posters
* Handrails
* Storage of dangerous tools and chemicals
115
What safety features are stressed in the motor pool?
Reduced speed, no smoking except in designated areas, fire extinguishers in buildings and
vehicles, proper utilization of tool safety equipment (goggles, safety toe shoes, etc.)
116
How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for serviceability, and
how can this be determined?
Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of authorized unit
safety personnel
117
What AR covers safety?
AR 385-10
118
Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that were fatal
have occurred this year?
A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
119
Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?
Yes
120
What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
AR 600-8-8
121
What is S-Gate?
S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command.
An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes
their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist
and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information.
122
What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?
DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E
123
How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?
10 days unless the sponsorship is declined
124
What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?
The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The
sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with
the unit or activity and community
125
What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?
1. DA Form 5434.
2. Welcome letter.
3. ACS Relocation Readiness Services.
4. Reception.
5. Orientation.
6. Inprocessing.
126
The primary goal of the Army's QOLP is to promote the development of military group
commitment and cohesiveness, is essential to what?
Readiness (combat effectiveness).
127
What are some examples of the QOLP?
* ACS / AER / ARC / EO
* Postal services
* PX / commissary privileges
* AFN radio and television
* MWR, education services
* Community sports programs
* Recreational facilities
* Banking services
* Clubs
* Gyms (physical fitness centers)
128
What does QOLP stand for?
Quality Of Life Program
129
The Army's Quality of Life program is dedicated to the precept that the Army's number one
operational resource must be taken care of. What is this resource?
The soldier
130
Quality of Life needs and the programs and actions to address them, are categorized under two
general headings. What are they?
1. Living conditions
| 2. Duty environment.
131
Who is the senior enlisted advisor to the BOSS council, and approves members selected to
serve on BOSS committees?
The Installation Command Sergeant Major
132
According to AR 215-1, what does the BOSS program provide?
It provides opportunities for active duty soldiers, with an emphasis on single and unaccompanied
soldiers, to participate in physical, self-development, leisure, and educational related services.
133
What type of program is BOSS?
BOSS is categorized as a category B Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) program.
134
How many officers are on the BOSS council?
Three: President, Vice-President, and Secretary and Treasurer
135
What is the lowest level unit that has a BOSS council representative?
The battery/company level
136
What are the 3 pillars of BOSS?
1. Recreation and Leisure: Activities may be planned by the BOSS committee or by the BOSS
committee working in conjunction with other MWR activities. Service members will assume a lead
role in planning BOSS events. Events should be planned that meet the needs and desires of the
single service member.
2. Community Service: The BOSS committee may elect to participate in community programs or
projects that make a difference in the lives of others, in the community, and ultimately, in
themselves. The service will be voluntary in nature and in accordance with the installation
volunteer program. The program can be implemented in support of existing or established
volunteer programs or programs developed by the BOSS committee.
3. Well Being: For single service members, Well being includes those things that single service
members can directly or indirectly influence to enhance their morale, living environment, or
personal growth and development. The well being issue identified or raised during the BOSS
meetings will be directed to the appropriated command or staff agency for resolution on the
installation.
137
What is CHAMPUS/Tricare?
Civilian Health And Medical Program for the Uniformed Services. It is a cost-sharing program that
is used to provide in-patient and outpatient care for dependants from civilian sources.
138
What Army regulation covers CHAMPUS/Tricare?
AR 40-121
139
Who is Eligible for CHAMPUS/Tricare?
Family members of active duty military personnel, Family members of either deceased or retired
personnel, and retired military personnel and their family members under the age of 65
140
What Does DEERS stand for?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System.
141
What is DEERS used for?
To obtain dependent ID cards for eligible spouse and children
142
What does NCODP stand for?
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
| AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 86
143
What is the goal of NCODP?
The goal of the NCODP is to increase and sustain NCO combat readiness and compliment the
overarching Army Noncommissioned Officer Professional Development Program.
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87)
144
As with all leader training and leader development, who is responsible for NCODP?
The command.
| AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 86
145
NCODP is typically managed by whom?
The CSM or Senior NCO in the organization.
| AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87
146
What are some objectives of NCODP?
• Develop and strengthen the skills, knowledge, and abilities to train, deploy, and lead soldiers in
combat through battle focused training.
• Develop NCOs who are self–aware, adaptive, competent, and confident.
• Realize the full potential of the NCO support channel.
• Foster a unit environment that enhances continued NCO leader development and encourages
self–development as part of a lifelong learning process.
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87)
147
What Army Regulation covers NCODP?
AR 350-1 Chap 4
148
What is the purpose of AR 350-1?
This regulation prescribes policies, procedures, and responsibilities for developing, managing,
and conducting Army training and leader development.
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 1-1 / PDF 13)
149
In order to accomplish battle-focused NCO development, commanders and unit NCOs should
follow what procedures?
• Link NCO development to the current skill level and duty assignments
• Establish a viable unit level NCODP using unit METL as the vehicle to incorporate the following
into each NCO's daily activities.
• Synchronize battle-focused NCODP as a component of operational assignments (experience)
with the other two pillars of leader development (institutional training and self-development)
• Establish a systematic and continuous program
• Integrate the use of leader books (FM 25-l01, app B) to track individual NCO progress
• Emphasize coaching to achieve commitment to excellence in performance
150
A successful NCODP will result in NCOs who can what?
• Demonstrate the skills of current skill level and duty position per AR 611–21 and DA Pam 600–
25.
• Accept the duties and responsibilities of current rank and duty position per AR 600–20, AR 611–
21, and FM 7–22.7.
• Enhance combat performance for the current and next higher rank and duty position per AR 600–
20 and FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22).
• Enhance combat leadership competencies for the current and next higher rank per FM 22–100
(being revised as FM 6–22).
• Train themselves and subordinates to be proficient in METL tasks and associated critical tasks
per FM 7–0, FM 7–1, and FM 7–22.7.
• Coach subordinates to be totally committed to U.S. Army professional ethics, Warrior Ethos, and
the Soldier’s Creed per FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22).
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 4-10 / PDF 87)
151
What is meant by the term "overweight"?
A soldier is considered overweight when his or her percent body fat exceeds the standard
specified in AR 600-9.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / Glossary / PDF 55)
152
Who is responsible for meeting the standards prescribed in AR 600-9?
Every Soldier. (Commissioned Officer, Warrant Officer and Enlisted). Self discipline to maintain
proper weight distribution and high standards of appearance are essential to every individual in
the Army.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 2-1 / PDF 7)
153
What are the primary objectives of the Army Weight Control Program?
Ensure that all personnel:
• Are able to meet the physical demands of their duties under combat conditions
• Present a trim military appearance at all times.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 1-5 / PDF 7)
154
Name some limitations on personnel that are overweight, including Soldiers who become
pregnant while on the weight control program.
1. Are nonpromotable (to the extent such nonpromotion is permitted by law).
2. Will not be assigned to command, command sergeant major or first sergeant positions.
3. Are not authorized to attend professional military schools.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 11)
155
Can a Soldier who has been flagged for being overweight or an APFT failure receive an award?
A Soldier that is flagged for being overweight cannot receive an award.
A Soldier that is flagged for APFT failure can receive an award
(AR 600-8-2 Dec 2004 / 1-15 / PDF 10)
156
When is a determination of percent body fat required to be made on personnel?
• When their body weight exceeds the screening table weight.
• When the unit commander or supervisor determines that the individual's appearance suggests
that body fat is excessive.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 12)
157
What are three reasons why the Army is so concerned about excess body fat?
1. Connotes a lack of personal discipline.
2. Detracts from military appearance.
3. May indicate a poor state of health, physical fitness, or stamina.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 1-5 / PDF 7)
158
When does enrollment in a weight control program begin?
On the day that the soldier is informed by the unit commander that he or she has been entered
into a weight control program.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 12)
159
Tape measures used for taping should be made of what material?
The tape measure should be made of a nonstretchable material, preferably fiberglass; cloth or
steel tapes are unacceptable.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-1 / PDF 21)
160
How often should soldiers in the weight control program weight in?
Monthly to measure progress
| AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 15
161
What is the required weight loss goal for Soldiers on the Army Weight Control Program?
The required weight loss goal of 3 to 8 pounds per month is considered a safely attainable goal to
enable soldiers to lose excess body fat and meet the body fat standards
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 15)
162
What regulation covers the Army Weight Control Program?
AR 600-9
163
Screening table weights and heights are measured to the nearest what?
1 pound or 1 inch
| AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10
164
What three things must happen when a soldier is determined to be overweight?
1. Will be provided exercise guidance, dietary information or weight reduction counseling by health
care personnel, and assistance in behavioral modification, as appropriate, to help them attain the
requirements of the Army.
2. Entered into weight control program by unit commanders
3. Flagged by the Commander under the provisions of AR 600-8-22
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 12)
165
How often should soldiers be weighed?
A soldier should be weighed when they take the APFT or at least every six months
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 9)
166
Define Tape Test:
The method of determining the percent of body fat on a soldier.
167
What circumference sites are used for taping male and female soldiers?
• Male- Abdomen and Neck
• Female- Neck, Waist and Hip (largest portion of the protruding buttock)
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-5 / PDF 45)
168
How many times is each measurement required to be made?
Three times (Each sequential measurement will be within 1⁄2 inch of the next or previous
measurement.)
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-3 / PDF 21)
169
How many people should be utilized in the taping of soldiers?
Two, one to place the tape measure and determine the measurements, the other to assure
proper placement and tension of the tape, as well as to record the measurement on the
worksheet
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / B-1 / PDF 21)
170
If circumstances prevent the weighing of soldiers immediately following the APFT, when can
they be weighed?
If the circumstances preclude weighing soldiers during the APFT, they should be weighed within
30 days of the APFT.
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10)
171
It is a requirement that all TDY and PCS orders contain what statement in regards to weight
control?
“You are responsible for reporting to your next duty station/school in satisfactory physical
condition, able to pass the Army Physical Fitness Test (APFT) and meet weight standards.”
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 2-14 / PDF 9)
172
In regards to percent body fat, all personnel are encouraged to achieve the more stringent
Department of Defense-wide goal of what?
• Males - 18%
• Females - 26%
(AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10)
173
To assist soldiers in meeting the requirements prescribed in AR 600-9, weight-screening tables
are used. The screening weight is based on what two considerations?
Height and age with separate tables for males and females
| AR 600-9 September 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 10
174
When you take the APFT, what is the minimum number of points you must score in each
event?
```
60 points
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 21)
```
175
What FM covers Physical Fitness Training?
FM 21-20
176
What are the three phases of physical conditioning?
1. Preparatory
2. Conditioning
3. Maintenance
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 13)
177
About how long is the preparatory phase?
2 weeks
| FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 14
178
About how long is the conditioning phase?
The conditioning phase ends when a soldier is physically mission-capable and all personal,
strength-related goals and unit-fitness goals have been met.
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 15)
179
What is a MFT?
Master Fitness Trainer. A Master Fitness Trainer (MFT) is a soldier who has completed either the
four-week active-component, two week reserve-component, or U.S. Military Academy’s MFT
course work. Although called “masters,” MFTs are simply soldiers who know about all aspects of
physical fitness training and how soldiers’ bodies function. Most importantly, since MFTs are
taught to design individual and unit programs, they should be used by commanders as special
staff assistants for this purpose.
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / Intro / PDF 9)
180
What does FITT stand for?
Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type (this acronym makes it easy to remember the key factors in
the training program)
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / Intro / PDF 10)
181
What is Da Form 3349?
Physical profile form
182
What is the objective of physical fitness training?
To enhance soldiers’ abilities to meet the physical demands of war.
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 21)
183
What are the three periods of a normal daily exercise routine?
1. Warm-up
2. Conditioning
3. Cool-down
184
What are the commands to get a unit from a normal line formation into an extended rectangular
formation?
1. Extend to the left, march
2. Arms downward, move
3. Left, Face
4. Extend to the left, march
5. Arms downward, move
6. Right, face
7. From front to rear, count off
8. Even numbers to the left, uncover
185
What AR covers the Army Physical Fitness Program?
AR 350-1 Chapter 1 Section 24
| AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 1-24 / PDF 23
186
Soldiers 55 years of age or older have the option of taking the 3 event APFT or what?
The alternate APFT. An alternate APFT is defined as push–ups, sit–ups and an alternate aerobic
event (2.5–mile walk, 800–yard swim, or 6.2–mile bicycle ride).
(AR 350-1 Jan 2006 / 1-24 / PDF 24)
187
What are the seven basic principles of exercise?
1. Regularity
2. Progression
3. Overload
4. Balance
5. Specificity
6. Variety
7. Recovery
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 10)
188
What are the three phases of fitness conditioning?
1. Preparatory
2. Conditioning
3. Maintenance
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 1 / PDF 14)
189
What are the five components of physical fitness?
1. Cardio Respiratory Endurance
2. Muscular Strength
3. Muscular Endurance
4. Flexibility
5. Body Composition
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / Intro / PDF 9)
190
How many scorers should be supplied for the APFT?
A minimum of 1 per every 15 soldiers
| FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 14 / PDF 196
191
What is the DA form 705?
Physical Readiness Test Scorecard
192
Fitness tasks provide the framework for accomplishing all training requirements. The essential
elements of fitness tasks can be cataloged into what four groups?
1. Collective Tasks
2. Individual Tasks
3. Leader Tasks
4. Resources required for training
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 10 / PDF 168)
193
Name the two physical fitness formations?
1. Extended Rectangular
2. Circular
(FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / 7 / PDF 119)
194
What Army Field Manual covers the M136 AT4?
FM 3-23.25 Chapter 2
195
What is the M136 AT4?
The M136 AT4 is a 84mm, lightweight, self-contained, antiarmor weapon. It consists of a free-
flight, fin-stabilized, rocket-type cartridge packed in an expendable, one-piece, fiberglass-
wrapped tube. (FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-1 / PDF 15)
196
From which shoulder is the M136 AT4 fired?
Right shoulder only
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-1 / PDF 15
197
What is the approximate length of the M136 AT4 Rocket?
18 inches
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
198
What is the approximate length of the M136 AT4 Rocket?
18 inches
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
199
What is the length of the M136 AT4?
40 inches
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 15
200
What is the maximum range of the M136 AT4?
2100 meters
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
201
What is the overall weight of the M136 AT4?
14.8 lbs
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
202
What is the maximum effective range of the M136 AT4?
300 meters
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16
203
What is the minimum target engagement range of the M136 AT4?
Training - 30 meters
Combat – 15 meters
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-2 / PDF 16)
204
How many pre-fire checks are there for the M136 AT4 and what are they?
There are 11 pre-fire checks:
1. The rear seal, a brown acrylic plastic plate inside the venturi, is in place and undamaged.
2. The transport safety pin is in place and fully inserted. The lanyard is attached to the transport
safety pin and the launcher. The lanyard should already be wrapped around the launcher
clockwise and the transport safety pin inserted in the retainer hole counterclockwise.
3. The cocking lever is present and in the SAFE (uncocked) position.
4. The plastic fire-through muzzle cover is in place and undamaged. If it is torn or broken, cut it
out and check the launch tube to ensure it is clear of foreign objects. Remove any that you
find by turning the tube muzzle downward and gently shaking the launcher.
5. The launcher has the correct color-coded band.
6. The sights function properly. Open the sight covers to ensure the sights pop up and are
undamaged.
7. The forward safety does not move when you depress it.
8. The red trigger button is not missing.
9. The launcher body has no cracks, dents, or bulges.
10. The carrying sling is not frayed and is attached firmly to the launch tube.
11. The shoulder stop is not broken or damaged, and it unsnaps and folds down.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-11 / PDF 18)
205
If you have a misfire with the M136 AT4, what should you do?
Combat Environment:
• If the M136 AT4 launcher is armed (cocked), keep it pointed away from personnel and equipment
at all times.
• Release the forward safety.
• Remove your right hand from the firing mechanism and cock the weapon again.
• Try to fire again. If the launcher still does not fire, maintain the same firing position and return the
cocking lever to the SAFE (uncocked) position.
• Move the launcher from your shoulder, keeping the launcher pointed toward the enemy. Reinsert
the transport safety pin.
• Break off the sights to identify the misfired launcher.
• Place the launcher on the ground, pointed toward the enemy, and use another launcher. As soon
as you can, dispose of the misfired launcher IAW unit SOP.
Training Environment:
• If the M136 AT4 launcher is armed (cocked), keep it pointed away from personnel and equipment
at all times.
• Shout “Misfire” as soon as the launcher fails to fire, while maintaining the original sight picture.
• Release the forward safety.
• Recock the launcher. Immediately remove right hand from the firing mechanism and push the
cocking lever forward with the heel of the right hand until the lever locks with a loud clicking noise.
• Press the forward safety all the way down and try to fire again. If the launcher still fails to fire,
shout misfire, release the forward safety, and move the cocking lever to the SAFE (uncocked)
position. Move the launcher from shoulder, keeping the weapon pointed toward the target and
cradle the weapon in the left arm.
• Reinsert the transport safety pin, wait two minutes, then carefully lay the launcher on the ground
with the muzzle toward the target.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 2-23 / PDF 26)
206
How large and what does the back-blast area of the M136 AT4 consist of?
The black-blast area is 65 meters in a 90-degree fan behind the weapon. The distances are 5
meters combat and 60 meters training.
207
What is the FM concerning the M16/A2 Rifle?
FM 3-22.9
208
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
Make sure you clear it
209
Name the five phases in Basic Rifle Marksmanship
1. Preliminary Rifle Instruction
2. Downrange Feedback
3. Field Fire
4. Advanced Rifle Marksmanship
5. Advanced Optics, Laser and Iron Sights
210
What is the purpose of a weaponeer?
The weaponeer is capable of simulating all of the BRM live fire scenarios without firing rounds.
Immediate feedback is available for critiquing the soldier's application of the integrated act of
firing while using the weaponeer device to include misfire procedures.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-8 / PDF 84)
211
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
1. Steady Position
2. Proper Aim (Sight Picture)
3. Breathing
4. Trigger Squeeze
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 76)
212
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
1. Individual Foxhole supported
2. Basic Prone unsupported
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-6 / PDF 82)
213
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
1. Sight Alignment
2. Placing of the Aiming Point
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 79)
214
What does the Acronym SPORTS stand for?
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
215
What is remedial action?
Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage or malfunction and
to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
216
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M16/A2.
1. Try to place the weapon on safe
2. Remove the magazine
3. Lock the bolt to the rear
4. Place the weapon on safe if not already done
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
217
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M16/A2.
1. Try to place the weapon on safe
2. Remove the magazine
3. Lock the bolt to the rear
4. Place the weapon on safe if not already done
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
218
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
Immediate action
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
219
What is immediate action?
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without
performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
220
How many times should immediate action be applied to a weapon?
Once. (If Rifle still fails to fire, apply remedial action)
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
221
What is a malfunction?
The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon,
magazine or ammo.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
222
Name the different categories of malfunctions on the M16/A2.
1. Failure to feed, chamber or lock
2. Failure to fire cartridge
3. Failure to Extract
4. Failure to Eject
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
223
What is stoppage?
A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of
operation..
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
224
How do you clear a stoppage?
Apply immediate or remedial action
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
225
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / Glossary / PDF 336)
226
What does CLP stand for?
* Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
* Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication.
* Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming.
227
What does CLP stand for?
* Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
* Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication.
* Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming.
228
What are the 7 types of ammunition that can be used with the M16/A2 Rifle?
1. M193 – Ball
2. M196 – Trace
3. M199 – Dummy
4. M200 – Blank (Violet tip and 7 petal rose crimp)
5. M855 – Ball (Green Tip)
6. M856 – Tracer (Red Tip)
7. M862 – Short Range Training Ammunition (Plastic with a Blue Tip)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-11 / PDF 52)
229
What are the four steps required in order to mechanically zero the M16/A2?
1. Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2).
2. Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (4) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index
line on the left side of the carrying handle.
3. Position the apertures (5) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (6) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 30)
1. Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2).
2. Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (4) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index
line on the left side of the carrying handle.
3. Position the apertures (5) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (6) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 30)
230
What are the steps required in order to battlesight zero the M16/A2?
1. Adjust the elevation knob (1) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (2) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index
line (3) on the left side of the carrying handle. Then adjust the elevation knob one more click
clockwise.
2. Position the apertures (4) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (5) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 31)
231
Describe the weights of the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Without Magazine and Sling - 7.78 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 20 round magazine - 8.48 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 30 round magazine - 8.79 pounds
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
232
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
• Burst - 90 rounds per minute
• Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
233
What is the muzzle velocity of the M16/A2 Rifle?
3,100 feet per second
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
234
Describe the ranges for the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
• Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 550 meters
• Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 800 meters
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
235
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M16/A2 Rifle.
Right hand twist 1/7
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
236
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M16/A2 Rifle?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
237
The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M16A2 Rifle how much?
300 to 800 meters
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 7-31 / PDF 195
238
What is the overall length of the M16/A2 Rifle?
39.63 inches
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
239
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M16/A2 rifle?
1. Feeding
2. Chambering
3. Locking
4. Firing
5. Unlocking
6. Extracting
7. Ejecting
8. Cocking
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-2 / PDF 66)
240
Describe the procedures for clearing the M16/A2 Rifle.
• Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Attempt to place selector lever on SAFE. If
weapon is not cocked, lever cannot be placed on SAFE.
• Remove the magazine by depressing the magazine catch button and pulling the magazine down.
• To lock bolt open, pull charging handle rearward. Press bottom of bolt catch and allow bolt to
move forward until it engages bolt catch. Return charging handle to full forward position. If you
have not done so before, place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Visually (not physically) inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no
ammo.
• With the selector lever pointing toward SAFE, allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper
portion of the bolt catch.
• Place the selector lever on SEMI and squeeze the trigger.
• Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward
position.
• Place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Close the ejection port cover.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-1 / PDF 66)
241
How do you perform a functions check on the M16/A2 Rifle?
1. Place the selector lever on safe. If the selector switch will not go on safe, pull the charging
handle to the rear and release. Place the selector lever on safe. Pull the trigger to the rear, the
hammer should not fall.
2. Place the selector lever on semi. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall.
While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release
the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall.
3. Place the selector lever on burst. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the
trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the
charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear
again. The hammer should fall.
242
What is the FM concerning the M4 Rifle?
FM 3-22.9
243
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
Make sure you clear it
244
Name the five phases in Basic Rifle Marksmanship.
1. Preliminary Rifle Instruction
2. Downrange Feedback
3. Field Fire
4. Advanced Rifle Marksmanship
5. Advanced Optics, Laser and Iron Sights
245
What is the purpose of a weaponeer?
The weaponeer is capable of simulating all of the BRM live fire scenarios without firing rounds.
Immediate feedback is available for critiquing the soldier's application of the integrated act of
firing while using the weaponeer device to include misfire procedures.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-8 / PDF 84)
246
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
1. Steady Position
2. Proper Aim (Sight Picture)
3. Breathing
4. Trigger Squeeze
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 76)
247
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
1. Individual Foxhole supported
2. Basic Prone unsupported
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-6 / PDF 82)
248
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
1. Sight Alignment
2. Placing of the Aiming Point
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 79)
249
What does the Acronym SPORTS stand for?
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
250
What is remedial action?
Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage or malfunction and
to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
251
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M4.
1. Try to place the weapon on safe
2. Remove the magazine
3. Lock the bolt to the rear
4. Place the weapon on safe if not already done
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
252
Describe the proper procedure for applying immediate action with the M4.
1. Slaps gently upward on the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and the magazine follower is not
jammed.
2. Pulls the charging handle fully to the rear.
3. Observes for the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge. (If the weapon fails to eject a
cartridge, perform remedial action.)
4. Releases the charging handle (do not ride it forward).
5. Taps the forward assist assembly to ensure bolt closure.
6. Squeezes the trigger and tries to fire the rifle.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
253
What are the steps required in order to mechanically zero the M4?
1. Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2).
2. Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (4) rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with
the index line (5) on the left side of the carrying handle.
3. Position the apertures (6) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (7) to align the index mark (8) on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 34)
254
What are the steps required in order to battlesight zero the M4?
1. Adjust the elevation knob (1) counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (2) rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with
the index line (3) on the left side of the detachable carrying handle. The elevation knob remains
flush.
2. Position the apertures (4) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down.
Rotate the windage knob (5) to align the index mark (6) on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long
center index line on the rear sight assembly.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 34)
255
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
Immediate action
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
256
What is immediate action?
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without
performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 PDF 57)
257
What is immediate action?
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without
performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 PDF 57)
258
What is a malfunction?
The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon,
magazine or ammo.
(FM 3-22.9 April 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
259
Name the different categories of malfunctions for the M4 Rifle.
1. Failure to feed, chamber or lock
2. Failure to fire cartridge
3. Failure to Extract
4. Failure to Eject
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 58)
260
What is stoppage?
A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of
operation..
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57)
261
How do you clear a stoppage?
Apply immediate or remedial action
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 57
262
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / Glossary / PDF 336)
263
What does CLP stand for?
* Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
* Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication.
* Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming.
264
Describe the M4 Rifle.
A 5.56 mm, magazine fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, semiautomatic or three-round burst, hand-
held, shoulder-fired weapon.
265
What are the 7 types of ammunition that can be used with the M4 Rifle?
1. M193 – Ball
2. M196 – Trace
3. M199 – Dummy
4. M200 – Blank (Violet tip and 7 petal rose crimp)
5. M855 – Ball (Green Tip)
6. M856 – Tracer (Red Tip)
7. M862 – Short Range Training Ammunition (Plastic with a Blue Tip)
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-11 / PDF 52)
266
Describe the weights of the M4 Rifle without magazine and sling, with sling and loaded 20 round
magazine and with sling and loaded 30 round magazine.
• Without Magazine and Sling - 6.49 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 20 round magazine - 7.19 pounds
• With Sling and a loaded 30 round magazine - 7.50 pounds
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
267
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M4 Rifle.
• Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
• Burst - 90 rounds per minute
• Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
268
What is the muzzle velocity of the M4 Rifle?
2,970 feet per second
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
269
Describe the ranges for the M4 Rifle.
• Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
• Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 500 meters
• Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 600 meters
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
270
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M4 Rifle.
Right hand twist 1/7
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27
271
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
272
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
273
What is the overall length of the M4 Rifle?
• Buttstock Closed - 29.75 inches
• Buttstock Open - 33.00 inches
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 27)
274
What are the four positions for the buttstock of the M4 Rifle?
1. Closed
2. 1/2 Open
3. 3/4 Open
4. Full Open
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 33)
275
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M4 rifle?
1. Feeding
2. Chambering
3. Locking
4. Firing
5. Unlocking
6. Extracting
7. Ejecting
8. Cocking
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-2 / PDF 66)
276
What part of the M4 Rail Adapter System may be removed to perform PMCS?
Only the Lower Assembly
| FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 2-2 / PDF 35
277
Describe the procedures for clearing the M4 Rifle.
• Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Attempt to place selector lever on SAFE. If
weapon is not cocked, lever cannot be placed on SAFE.
• Remove the magazine by depressing the magazine catch button and pulling the magazine down.
• To lock bolt open, pull charging handle rearward. Press bottom of bolt catch and allow bolt to
move forward until it engages bolt catch. Return charging handle to full forward position. If you
have not done so before, place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Visually (not physically) inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no
ammo.
• With the selector lever pointing toward SAFE, allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper
portion of the bolt catch.
• Place the selector lever on SEMI and squeeze the trigger.
• Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward
position.
• Place the selector lever on SAFE.
• Close the ejection port cover.
(FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-1 / PDF 66)
278
How do you perform a functions check on the M4 Rifle?
1. Place the selector lever on safe. If the selector switch will not go on safe, pull the charging
handle to the rear and release. Place the selector lever on safe. Pull the trigger to the rear, the
hammer should not fall.
2. Place the selector lever on semi. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall.
While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release
the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall.
3. Place the selector lever on burst. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the
trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the
charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear
again. The hammer should fall.
279
Once done installing the M18A1, how far behind the mine should the wire be secured?
1 meter
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
280
Describe the M18A1
A curved, rectangular-shaped weapon, with an olive drab molded case of fiberglass filled
polystyrene (plastic). In the front portion of the case is a fragmentation face containing steel
spheres embedded in a plastic matrix. The back portion of the case behind the matrix contains a
layer of explosives.
281
What is the M18A1 primarily used for?
It was designed for use against mass infantry attacks
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 2 / PDF 10
282
What is the first step in installing the M18A1?
Inspect the components
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
283
How much does the M18A1 weigh?
3.5 lbs
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 16
284
What color is a "training" M18A1?
Blue
285
How long is the wire that the M4 blasting cap is connected to?
100 ft
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 16
286
Name the components that are in the bandoleer of the M18A1
| The M7 bandoleer has two pockets. One pocket contain the mine and the other contains:
```
• M40 test set
• M57 firing device
• M4 Electric Blasting cap Assembly
• Instructions
(FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 17)
```
287
Where will you find the instructions for the employment of the M18A1?
Under the flap of the bandoleer
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 1 / PDF 17
288
What color is a "live" M18A1?
Green
289
What is the effective frontal range of the M18A1?
When detonated, the M18A1 mine will deliver spherical steel fragments over a 60° fan-shaped
pattern that is 2 meters high and 50 meters wide at a range of 50 meters
(FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 2 / PDF 10)
290
Who keeps the M57 firing device while the M18A1 is being installed?
The individual installing the mine
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / Section 3 / PDF 19
291
What Field Manual covers the M18A1?
FM 23-23
292
What are the two sites used on the M18A1 to aim it?
Knife-edge and slit-type peep sights
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
293
When aiming the M18A1 using the slit-type peepsight, how far above the ground do you aim?
2 and 1/2 meters above the ground
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
294
When aiming the M18A1 using the knife edge sight, how far above the ground do you aim?
You aim at ground level
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5
295
What type of explosive is used in the M18A1?
1.5 lbs composition C4 (plastic explosive)
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 7 / PDF 16
296
One M40 test set is included with how may M18A1 claymores?
1 in each case of 6
297
What is the killing zone of the M18A1?
About 20 to 30 meters
| FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 10 / PDF 18
298
How far is the danger area to the rear of the M18A1?
16 meters (The mine firing position should be in a foxhole or covered position at least 16
meters to the rear or the side of the emplaced mine.)
(FM 23-23 Jan 1966 / 12 / PDF 5, 6)
299
What is the M2 .50 Cal machine gun used for?
Defend against low-flying hostile aircraft, support the infantryman in both attack and defense,
destroy lightly armored vehicles, provide protection for motor movements, vehicle parks and train
bivouacs, and reconnaissance by fire on suspected enemy positions
300
What is the weight of the M2 .50 Cal machine gun?
84 lbs
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
301
Which FM covers the M2 .50 Cal?
FM 3-22.65
302
What is the importance of correct headspace adjustment on the .50 Cal machine gun?
Incorrect headspace adjustment can cause a malfunction of the gun and lead to sluggish
operation or failure to function freely.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-1 / PDF 61)
303
What is the length of the barrel of the .50 Cal?
45 inches
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
304
What is the maximum range of the .50 Cal?
6,764 meters
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
305
What is the muzzle velocity of the .50 Cal?
3,050 ft per sec
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
306
What is the description of the .50 Cal, HB, M2 Machine Gun?
The Browning machine gun caliber .50 HB, M2 is a belt-fed, recoil-operated, air-cooled, crew-
served machine gun. The gun is capable of single shot, as well as automatic fire, and operates on
the short recoil principle.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 10)
307
What is the maximum effective range of the .50 Cal against point and area targets?
• Point targets Single shot- 1,500 meters
• Area shot- 1,830 meters
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12)
308
To control the rate of fire on the M2, the gunner may use what methods of fire?
```
• Single shot
• Slow
• Rapid
• Cyclic
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 85)
```
309
Describe the Single Shot method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Place the gun in the single-shot mode and engage the target with aimed shots. The machine gun
is accurate out to 1,500 meters.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 85)
310
Describe the Slow method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Slow fire consists of less than 40 rounds per minute, in bursts of five to seven rounds, fired at 10-
to 15-second intervals.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 85)
311
Describe the Rapid method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Rapid fire consists of more than 40 rounds per minute, fired in bursts of five to seven rounds, at
5- to 10-second intervals.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 86)
312
Describe the Cyclic method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
Cyclic fire is when the weapon fires 450 to 550 rounds per minute.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 5-10 / PDF 86)
313
What is the length of the .50 Cal, overall?
Approximately 65.13 inches
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
314
What is the cyclic rate of fire of the M2 .50 Cal?
450-550 rounds a minute
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 12
315
What type of front sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
A semi-fixed blade type with cover
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 10
316
What type of rear sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
A leaf type rear sight graduated in both yards and mils
| FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-2 / PDF 10
317
What are the common malfunctions of the M2 .50 Cal?
• Failure to function freely
• Uncontrolled automatic fire
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-1 / PDF 61)
318
What are the common stoppages of the M2 .50 Cal?
```
• Failure to feed
• Chamber
• Lock
• Fire
• Unlock
• Extract
• Eject
• Cock
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-2 / PDF 61)
```
319
What are the ten major components and assemblies of the M2 .50 Cal?
1. Barrel Group
2. Carrier Assembly
3. Back plate Group
4. Receiver Group
5. Bolt Stud
6. Cover Group
7. Barrel Buffer Body
8. Barrel extension group
9. Bolt Group
10. Driving Spring Rod Assembly
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 1-3 / PDF 14)
320
What are the proper procedures for performing immediate action on the M2 .50 Cal?
If machine gun fails to fire, take the following action:
1. Wait 5 seconds; a hangfire may be causing the misfire. In the next 5 seconds, pull the bolt to the
rear (check for ejection and feeding of belt), release it, re-lay on the target, and attempt to fire. If
the bolt-latch release and trigger are depressed at the same time, the bolt goes forward and the
weapon should fire automatically.
2. If the gun again fails to fire, wait another 5 seconds, pull the bolt to the rear (engage with the bolt
latch if applicable), and return the retracting slide handle to its forward position. Open the cover
and remove the belted ammunition. Inspect the gun to determine the cause of stoppage.
A hangfire or cookoff can cause injury to personnel or damage to the weapon. To avoid these, the
gunner must take the following precautions:
1. Always keep the round locked in the chamber the first 5 seconds after a misfire occurs. This
prevents an explosion outside of the gun in event of a hangfire.
2. If the barrel is hot, the round must be extracted within the next 5 seconds to prevent a cookoff.
When more than 150 rounds have been fired in a 2-minute period, the barrel is hot enough to
produce a cookoff.
3. If the barrel is hot and the round cannot be extracted within the 10 seconds, it must remain locked
in the chamber for at least 5 minutes, to guard against a cookoff.
4. Keep the gun cover closed during the waiting periods.
(FM 3-22.65 Mar 2005 / 4-3 / PDF 63)
321
If you turn the M203 windage screw one increment, how far does that move the strike of the
round at 200 meters?
1 and 1/2 meters
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-9 / PDF 62
322
What is the maximum range of the M203?
About 400 meters
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
323
What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a fire team sized area target?
350 meters
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
324
What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a vehicle or weapon point target?
150 meters
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
325
What is the minimum arming range of the 40 mm round fired from the M203?
14 to 38 meters
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
326
What is the rate of fire of the M203?
5 to 7 rounds per minute
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-2 / PDF 17
327
What Field Manual covers the M203?
FM 3-22.31
328
What is the casualty radius of a M203 40 mm HE round?
5 meters (FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-6 / PDF 59)
329
What are the 4 fundamentals of M203 marksmanship?
1. Steady Position
2. Aiming
3. Breathing
4. Trigger Control
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-1 / PDF 38)
330
The M203 uses several fixed type, low velocity 40 mm rounds. Name some of the common
types of rounds used.
1. M433 – High Explosive Dual Purpose
2. M406 – High Explosive
3. M83A1 (white), M661 (Green), M662 (Red) – Star Parachute
4. M585 – White Star Cluster
5. M713 (Red Smoke), M715 (Green Smoke), M716 (Yellow Smoke) – Ground Marker
6. M781 – Practice
7. M651 – Tactical CS
8. Buckshot
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-4 / PDF 22)
331
What are the two common malfunctions of the M203?
1. Failure to cock
2. Failure to lock
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 4-1 / PDF 34)
332
What are the five common stoppages of the M203?
1. Failure to fire
2. Failure to extract
3. Failure to eject
4. Failure to chamber
5. Safety Fails to stay in position
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 4-2 / PDF 35)
333
What are the two types of sights on the M203?
1. Leaf
2. Quadrant
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-3 / PDF 18)
334
Describe the M203.
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding
barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to an M16 rifle series, or the M4 carbine series
with the M203A1, and M4 carbine series with the rail system.
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 15)
335
At what range do you zero the M203?
200 meters
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 5-9 / PDF 61
336
How must you maintain the M203 Grenade Launcher in varying climates?
• Extreme Heat: Lubricate with CLP, grade 2.
• Damp or Salty Air: Clean the weapon and apply CLP, grade 2, frequently.
• Sandy or Dusty Air: Clean the weapon and apply CLP, grade 2, frequently. Remove excess CLP
with a rag after each application.
• Temperatures Below Freezing: When the weapon is brought in from a cold area to a warm area,
keep it wrapped in a parka or blanket, and allow it to reach room temperature gradually. If
condensation forms on the weapon, dry and lubricate it at room temperature with CLP, grade 2,
before returning it to cold weather. Otherwise, ice will form inside the mechanism.
(FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 3-7 / PDF 29)
337
How long should you wait before opening the breach to unload the weapon if you happen to
have a misfire with the M203?
30 seconds
| FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 / 4-3 / PDF 36
338
What is the weight of the M240B?
Approximately 27.6 pounds
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
339
What Field Manual covers the M240B?
FM 3-22.68 Chapter 3
340
Describe the M240B.
The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the
open bolt position.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 82)
341
What is the sustained rate of fire for the M240B?
100 Rounds per minute fired in 6 to 9 round bursts and 4 to 5 seconds between bursts. Barrel
change every 10 minutes.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
342
What is the rapid rate of fire for the M240B?
200 Rounds per minute fired in 10 to 13 round bursts and 2 to 3 seconds between bursts. Barrel
change every 2 minutes.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
343
What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M240B?
650 to 950 Rounds per minute fired in continuous bursts. Barrel change every minute.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 84)
344
What is the maximum range of the M240B?
3725 meters
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
345
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B with tripod and T&E?
1100 meters
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
346
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for an area target?
Tripod – 1,100 meters
Bipod – 800 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
347
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target?
Tripod – 800 meters
Bipod – 600 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83)
348
What is the length of the M240B?
49 inches
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
349
What is the maximum tracer burnout for the M240B?
900 meters
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 83
350
What types of ammunition can be used with M240B?
```
• M80 – Ball
• M61 – Armor Piercing
• M62 – Tracer
• M63 – Dummy
• M82 – Blank
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-3 / PDF 86)
```
351
What are the proper clearing procedures for the M240B?
1. Move the safety to the fire “F” position.
2. With his right hand, (palm up) pulls the cocking handle to the rear, ensuring the bolt is locked to
the rear (bipod mode).
3. Return the cocking handle to its forward position.
4. Place the safety on safe “S.”
5. Raise the cover assembly and conduct the four-point safety check for brass, links, or ammunition.
• Check the feed pawl assembly under the cover.
• Check the feed tray.
• Lift the feed tray and inspects the chamber.
• Check the space between the face of the bolt and chamber to include the space under
the bolt and operating rod assembly.
6. Close the feed tray and cover assembly and place the safety to the fire “F” position. Pull cocking
handle to the rear, and pull the trigger while manually riding the bolt forward. Close the ejection
port cover.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-6 / PDF 90)
352
What are the proper procedures for performing a function check on the M240B?
1. Places the safety on “F.”
2. Pulls the cocking handle to the rear, locking the bolt to the rear of the receiver.
3. Returns the cocking handle to the forward position.
4. Places the safety on “S,” and closes the cover.
5. Pulls the trigger. (Bolt should not go forward).
6. Places the safety on “F.”
7. Pulls the cocking handle to the rear, pulls the trigger, and rides the bolt forward.
8. Closes the ejection port cover.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 3-11 / PDF 108)
353
What is the maximum range of the M249 (SAW)?
3,600 meters
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
354
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 with tripod and T+E?
1,000 meters
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
355
What is the maximum range of the M249 against an area target for both tripod and bipod?
Tripod – 1,000 meters
Bipod – 800 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
356
What is the maximum range of the M249 against a point target for both tripod and bipod?
Tripod – 800 meters
Bipod – 600 meters
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
357
What does S.A.W. stand for?
Squad Automatic Weapon
358
What is the weight of the M249?
16.41 pounds
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
359
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M249?
1,000 rounds (in 200 round drums)
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
360
What is the length of the M249?
40.87 inches
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8
361
Describe the M249.
The M249 machine gun is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt or magazine-fed, automatic
weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 7)
362
What FM covers the M249?
FM 3-22.68
363
What are the rates of fire for the M249?
• Sustained rate is 100 rounds per minute
• Rapid rate is 200 rounds per minute
• Cyclic rate is 650 to 850 rounds per minute
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
364
What are the proper procedures for clearing the M249?
1. Moves the safety to the fire “F” position by pushing it to the left until the red ring is visible.
2. With his right hand, palm up, pulls the cocking handle to the rear, locking the bolt in place.
3. While holding the resistance on the cocking handle, moves the safety to the SAFE position by
pushing it to the right until the red ring is not visible. (The weapon cannot be placed on safe
unless the bolt is locked to the rear.)
4. Returns and locks the cocking handle in the forward position.
5. Raises the cover and feed mechanism assembly, and conducts the five-point safety check for
brass, links, or ammunition:
(1) Checks the feed pawl assembly under the feed cover.
(2) Checks the feed tray assembly.
(3) Lifts the feed tray assembly and inspects the chamber.
(4) Checks the space between the bolt assembly and the chamber.
(5) Inserts two fingers of his left hand in the magazine well to extract any ammunition or
brass.
6. Closes the cover and feed mechanism assembly and moves the safety to the “F” position. With
his right hand, palm up, returns the cocking handle to the rear position. Presses the trigger and at
the same time eases the bolt forward
365
What are the 8 major groups of the M249?
1. Operating Rod Group
2. Barrel Group
3. Handguard Group
4. Buttstock and Buffer Assembly Group
5. Trigger Mechanism Group
6. Gas Cylinder Group
7. Bipod Group
8. Receiver Group
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-6 / PDF 19)
366
The M249 is loaded, fired, unloaded and cleared from what bolt position?
The open bolt position
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-13 / PDF 33
367
What are the steps to the cycle of functioning for the M249?
```
• Feeding
• Chambering
• Locking
• Firing
• Unlocking
• Extracting
• Cocking
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-16 / PDF 35)
```
368
How do you adjust for windage with the M249?
Adjustments for windage are made by traversing the rear sight right and left along the sliding
scale.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-17 / PDF 37)
369
How do you adjust for elevation with the M249?
Adjustments for elevation (range) require the automatic rifleman to turn the elevation knob
(closest to the buttstock) on the rear sight to the desired range setting.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-17 / PDF 37)
370
Name 3 assault firing positions used with the M249
1. Shoulder
2. Hip
3. Underarm
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 8)
371
What are two unique features of the M249?
It has a regulator to change the rate of fire, and it is fed by M16 magazines as well as belt fed
372
What is the FM that covers the M60?
FM 3-22.68
373
What is the weight of the M60?
23 Pounds
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
374
What is the maximum effective range of the M60?
1,100 meters with Tripod and T+E
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
375
What feature of the M60 allows the user to change the barrels rapidly?
A fixed headspace
376
What are the sustained, rapid and cyclic rates of fire for the M60?
Sustained – 100
Rapid – 200
Cyclic – 550
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 50)
377
What is the most effective rate of fire for the M60?
6-9 round bursts with 4-5 seconds between bursts.
378
What is the tracer burnout range for the M60?
900 meters
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
379
What is grazing fire?
Horizontal fire in the vicinity of the knee to the waist high area on the enemy
380
What is the maximum range of grazing fire for the M60 over level or uniformly sloped terrain?
600 meters
| FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49
381
What is always the Number 1 target on an M60 range card?
The FPL (Final Protective Line)
382
What are the 5 types of ammunition used with the M60?
1. M80 - Ball
2. M62 - Tracer
3. M61 - Armor piercing
4. M63 - Dummy
5. M82 - Blank
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 49)
383
What weapon is scheduled to replace the M60 machine gun?
The M240B
384
Describe the M60.
The M60 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-fed, automatic machine gun that fires from
the open-bolt position.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 48)
385
The M60 is fired with the bolt in what position?
The open bolt position
386
How often should the barrel be changed on the M60?
• Sustained rate of fire- every 10 minutes
• Rapid rate of fire- every 2 minutes
• Cyclic-every minute
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 50)
387
Name 2 common malfunctions of the M60
1. Sluggish operation
| 2. Runaway gun
388
What should you do if you have a "runaway gun" with the M60 Machine Gun?
Break the belt
389
How many barrels are issued with the M60?
2 barrels
390
What are the proper procedures to clear the M60 Machine Gun?
1. Moves the safety lever to the “F” position.
2. With his right hand, palm up, pulls the cocking handle in the rear. Moves the safety lever to the
“S” position. Returns and locks the cocking handle in the forward position.
3. Raises the cover and conducts the four-point safety check for brass, links, or ammunition.
(1) Checks the feed pawl assembly under the cover.
(2) Checks the feed tray.
(3) Lifts the feed tray and hanger assembly and inspects the chamber.
(4) Checks the space between the face of the bolt and the chamber.
4. Closes the cover and moves the safety lever to the “F” position. Pulls the cocking handle to the
rear position. Pulls the trigger and at the same time eases the bolt forward by manually riding the
cocking handle forward.
5. Places the safety lever on “S” and raises the cover. (If not disassembling the gun, keep the cover
down.)
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-5 / PDF 56)
391
How do you perform a function check on the M60?
1. Open the cover and pull the cocking handle to the rear.
2. Place the safety on “S” position.
3. Return the cocking handle to the forward position.
4. Close the feed tray cover.
5. Place the safety on “F” position.
6. Grasp the cocking handle with the right hand, pull the trigger with the left hand, and ease the bolt
forward.
(FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / 2-10 / PDF 68)
392
How many spring-loaded fins are attached to the M72A2/A3 LAW?
6
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-4 / PDF 42
393
What is the muzzle velocity of the M72A2 and M72A3?
475 fps
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
394
Describe the M72A2/A3 LAW
The M72A2/A3 LAW is a lightweight, self-contained, antiarmor weapon consisting of a rocket
packed in a launcher . It is man-portable, may be fired from either shoulder.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-1 / PDF 41)
395
What is the length of the Launcher of the M72A2 and the M72A3?
• Closed- 24.8 inches
• Fully extended- 34.67 inches
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42)
396
About the Rocket in the M72A2 and the M72A3, how long is it and how much does it weigh?
• Length- 20 inches
• Weight- 2.2 lbs
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42)
397
What FM covers the use of the M72 LAW?
FM 3-23.25 Chapter 5
398
What is the Minimum range of the M72A2 and the M72A3 in a combat environment?
10 meters
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
399
What is the Maximum Range of the M72A2 and the M72A3?
1000 meters
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
400
What is the Maximum Effective range of the M72A2 and the M72A3?
• Stationary target- 200 meters
• Moving Target- 165 meters
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42)
401
Because the M72-series LAW is issued as a round of ammunition rather than as a weapon,
inspection is limited to a visual examination of the sealed unit. How do you inspect the M72
series LAW?
• Check the body for dents, cracks, or bulges.
• Check the rubber boots covering the trigger bar and barrel detent for
• Ensure the arming handle is present and on SAFE and that the pull
• Check the data plate for the phrase, W/COUPLER.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-16 / PDF 46)
402
What is the first thing that you should do before engaging a target with the LAW?
Determine its range
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-34 / PDF 56
403
What kind of projectile is fired form the LAW?
A 66 mm high explosive, antitank (HEAT), percussion ignited, fin-stabilized, fixed munitions
rocket.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-6 / PDF 42)
404
What is the first step in preparing the LAW for use?
Inspect its overall condition
| F FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-25 / PDF 52
405
What is the weight of a complete M72A2?
5.1 lbs
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
406
What is the weight of a complete M72A3?
1.5 lbs
| FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-5 / PDF 42
407
If you have a misfire with the M72A2/A3 LAW, what should you do?
Combat Environment:
• Squeeze the trigger again immediately.
• If the launcher still fails to fire, place the trigger arming handle on SAFE.
• Partly collapse the launcher, than extend it to cock it again.
• Place it on your shoulder, check the backblast area again, and then arm, aim, and fire the
launcher.
• If the LAW still fails to fire, squeeze the trigger again and return the trigger arming handle to
• SAFE. Collapse the launcher, set it aside, and try another one. As soon as possible, dispose of
the misfired LAW IAW unit SOP.
Training Environment:
• Squeeze the trigger again.
• If the launcher still fails to fire, keep the launcher on your shoulder, announce “Misfire,” and wait
10 seconds. Place the trigger arming handle on SAFE.
• Move the launcher from your shoulder and wait one minute.
• Extend the launcher to cock it again, check the backblast area, place the launcher back on your
shoulder, pull the arming handle to the ARM position, aim, and squeeze the trigger bar.
• If the launcher again fails to fire, wait 10 seconds before returning the trigger arming handle to the
SAFE position.
• Keep the launcher trained on the target area at least one minute; DO NOT collapse the launcher.
• Move the launcher to a safe area and dispose of it IAW unit SOP.
(FM 3-23.25 Jan 2006 / 5-28 / PDF 55)
408
What is the weight of the M9 pistol with an empty magazine?
2.1 Pounds
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
409
Describe the M9 pistol.
The M9 pistol is a 9-mm, semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil-operation, double-action weapon
chambered for the 9-mm cartridge.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1 / PDF 9)
410
Describe the magazine for the M9.
A standard staggered box magazine designed to hold 15 rounds
411
What is the weight of the M9 pistol with a 15 round magazine?
2.6 pounds
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
412
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M9?
45 Rounds
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
413
How many rounds can a magazine designed for the M9 hold?
15 Rounds
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
414
What are the two types of ammunition used by the M9?
1. Cartridge, 9-mm ball, M882 with/without cannelure).
2. Cartridge, 9-mm dummy, M917.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-3 / PDF 12)
415
What Field Manual covers the M9?
FM 3-23.35
416
What are the proper clearing procedures for the M9?
1. Place the decocking/safety lever in the SAFE down position.
2. Hold the pistol in the raised pistol position.
3. Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine from the pistol.
4. Pull the slide to the rear and remove any chambered round.
5. Push the slide stop up, locking the slide to the rear.
6. Look into the chamber to ensure that it is empty.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-4 / PDF 13)
417
What are the steps required to perform a function check for the M9?
1. Clear the pistol in accordance with the unloading procedures.
2. Depress the slide stop, letting the slide go forward.
3. Insert an empty magazine into the pistol.
4. Retract the slide fully and release it. The slide should lock to the rear.
5. Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine.
6. Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the SAFE position.
7. Depress the slide stop. When the slide goes forward, the hammer should fall to the forward
position.
8. Squeeze and release the trigger. The firing pin block should move up and down and the hammer
should not move.
9. Place the decocking/safety lever in the fire POSITION.
10. Squeeze the trigger to check double action. The hammer should cock and fall.
11. Squeeze the trigger again. Hold it to the rear. Manually retract and release the slide. Release the
trigger. A click should be heard and the hammer should not fall.
12. Squeeze the trigger to check the single action. The hammer should fall.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-9 / PDF 15)
418
What are the steps to the cycle of operation of the M9?
1. Feeding
2. Chambering
3. Locking
4. Firing
5. Unlocking
6. Extracting
7. Ejecting
8. Cocking
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-13 / PDF 17)
419
How do you perform immediate action for the M9?
1. Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the FIRE position.
2. Squeeze the trigger again.
3. If the pistol does not fire, ensure that the magazine is fully seated, retract the slide to the rear,
and release.
4. Squeeze the trigger.
5. If the pistol again does not fire, remove the magazine and retract the slide to eject the chambered
cartridge. Insert a new magazine, retract the slide, and release to chamber another cartridge.
6. Squeeze the trigger.
7. If the pistol still does not fire, perform remedial action.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
420
How do you perform remedial action for the M9?
1. Clear the pistol.
2. Inspect the pistol for the cause of the stoppage.
3. Correct the cause of the stoppage, load the pistol, and fire.
4. If the pistol again fails to fire, disassemble it for closer inspection, cleaning, and lubrication.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
421
What are the major components of the M9?
```
• Slide and Barrel assembly
• Recoil spring and Recoil Spring guide
• Barrel and Locking Block Assembly
• Receiver
• Magazine
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 11)
```
422
What is the maximum range of the M9?
1800 meters
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
423
What is the maximum effective range of the M9?
50 meters
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
424
What are the three safety features found on the M9?
1. Decocking
2. Safety Lever
3. Firing Pin Block
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10)
425
What is the weight of the M11 pistol with an empty magazine?
26.1 Ounces
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
426
Describe the M11 pistol.
The M11 pistol is a 9-mm, semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil-operation, double-action weapon
chambered for the 9-mm cartridge.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1 / PDF 9)
427
Describe the magazine for the M11.
A standard staggered box magazine designed to hold 13 rounds
428
What is the weight of the M11 pistol with a 13 round magazine?
29.1 Ounces
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
429
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M11?
39 Rounds
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
430
How many rounds can a magazine designed for the M11 hold?
13 Rounds
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
431
What are the two types of ammunition used by the M11?
1. Cartridge, 9-mm ball, M882 with/without cannelure).
2. Cartridge, 9-mm dummy, M917.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-3 / PDF 12)
432
What Field Manual covers the M11?
FM 3-23.35
433
What are the proper clearing procedures for the M11?
1. Place the decocking/safety lever in the SAFE down position.
2. Hold the pistol in the raised pistol position.
3. Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine from the pistol.
4. Pull the slide to the rear and remove any chambered round.
5. Push the slide stop up, locking the slide to the rear.
6. Look into the chamber to ensure that it is empty.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-4 / PDF 13)
434
What are the steps required to perform a function check for the M11?
1. Clear the pistol in accordance with the unloading procedures.
2. Depress the slide stop, letting the slide go forward.
3. Insert an empty magazine into the pistol.
4. Retract the slide fully and release it. The slide should lock to the rear.
5. Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine.
6. Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the SAFE position.
7. Depress the slide stop. When the slide goes forward, the hammer should fall to the forward
position.
8. Squeeze and release the trigger. The firing pin block should move up and down and the hammer
should not move.
9. Place the decocking/safety lever in the fire POSITION.
10. Squeeze the trigger to check double action. The hammer should cock and fall.
11. Squeeze the trigger again. Hold it to the rear. Manually retract and release the slide. Release the
trigger. A click should be heard and the hammer should not fall.
12. Squeeze the trigger to check the single action. The hammer should fall.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-9 / PDF 15)
435
What are the steps to the cycle of operation of the M11?
1. Feeding
2. Chambering
3. Locking
4. Firing
5. Unlocking
6. Extracting
7. Ejecting
8. Cocking
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-13 / PDF 17)
436
How do you perform immediate action for the M11?
1. Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the FIRE position.
2. Squeeze the trigger again.
3. If the pistol does not fire, ensure that the magazine is fully seated, retract the slide to the rear,
and release.
4. Squeeze the trigger.
5. If the pistol again does not fire, remove the magazine and retract the slide to eject the chambered
cartridge. Insert a new magazine, retract the slide, and release to chamber another cartridge.
6. Squeeze the trigger.
7. If the pistol still does not fire, perform remedial action.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
437
How do you perform remedial action for the M11?
1. Clear the pistol.
2. Inspect the pistol for the cause of the stoppage.
3. Correct the cause of the stoppage, load the pistol, and fire.
4. If the pistol again fails to fire, disassemble it for closer inspection, cleaning, and lubrication.
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-15 / PDF 18)
438
What are the major components of the M11?
```
• Slide and Barrel assembly
• Recoil spring and Recoil Spring guide
• Barrel and Locking Block Assembly
• Receiver
• Magazine
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 11)
```
439
What is the maximum range of the M11?
1800 meters
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
440
What is the maximum effective range of the M11?
50 meters
| FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10
441
What are the three safety features found on the M11?
1. Decocking
2. Safety Lever
3. Firing Pin Block
(FM 3-23.35 June 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 10)
442
What size projectile is fired from the MK19?
40 mm
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / PDF 1
443
What is a special feature of the barrel of the MK19?
It is designed to not overheat even after prolonged firing
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF –8
444
What is a MK64, MOD7?
The gun cradle for the MK19
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 39
445
Describe the MK19.
An air-cooled, blowback operated, belt-fed machine gun that is fed by a disintegrating metallic-
link belt and fires 40mm grenade cartridges
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 7)
446
What is the length of the MK19?
43.1 inches
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 12
447
What is the maximum range of the MK19?
2,212 meters
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13
448
What is the maximum effective range of the MK19?
• Point - 1,500 meters
• Area - 2,212 meters
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13)
449
What are the rates of fire for the MK19?
• Sustained- 40 rds/min
• Rapid- 60 rds/min
• Cyclic- 325-375 rds/min
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13)
450
What is the muzzle velocity of the MK19?
798ft per second
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13
451
What are the two most common malfunctions of the MK19?
• Runaway gun
• Sluggish action
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / C-4 / PDF 142)
452
When taking immediate action for a "runaway gun" with the MK19, should you ever break the
ammo belt?
No
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / C-4 / PDF 144
453
One click in rear site windage equals how many change?
1 mil
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 8
454
What mounts are available for the MK19?
```
• M3 Tripod
• M4 Pedestal
• M66 Ring
• HMMWV Weapons Platform
• M113 APC Commander's cupola
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 12)
```
455
Describe the sight system for the MK19.
The MK19 has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly and a leaf-type rear
sight (with an adjustable range plate) mounted on a spring dovetail base. The rear sight range
plate is incremented in 100-meter intervals from 300 to 1500 meters. Range changes are made
using either the slide release or the elevation wheel. The rear sight is also adjustable for windage
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 8)
456
What is the weight of the MK19 weapon system?
```
• System weight (Gun, Cradle and Tripod with feed throat) = 143 lbs
• MK19 with feed throat = 78 lbs
• MK64 = 21 lbs
• M3 (tripod) = 44 lbs
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 12)
```
457
What are the approved methods of destruction for the MK19?
```
• Mechanical means
• Burning
• Gunfire
• Demolition
• Disposal
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 2-9 / PDF 37)
```
458
What FM covers the MK19?
FM 3-22.27
459
What is the average recoil force of the MK19?
500 lbs
| FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 13
460
What is the type of ammunition fired from the MK19?
```
• M430 (HEDP)
• M383 (HE)
• M918 (TP)
• M922 (DUMMY)
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 1-2 / PDF 10)
```
461
What are the 6 steps in the MK19 cycle of operation?
1. Charging
2. Extracting (delinking)
3. Cocking
4. Firing
5. Blowback
6. Automatic Feeding
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 15)
462
What are the proper procedures to clear a MK19?
In a Firing Situation:
1. Move the safety switch to S (SAFE).
2. Open the top cover assembly. If all the ammunition has NOT been fired, the bolt is to the rear and
a round is on the bolt face. If the bolt is forward, lock it to the rear
3. Take the ammunition from the feed tray by reaching beneath the feed tray and pressing the
primary and secondary positioning pawls. While pressing the position pawls, slide the linked
rounds out of the MK 19 through the feed throat.
4. Insert a section of the cleaning rod or bayonet through either side of the receiver rail. Place it on
top of the live round or cartridge case, as close to the bolt face as possible, and push down. This
action forces the round out of the MK 19.
5. Lower and pull both charger handles to the rear.
6. Inspect the chamber and bolt face to ensure that no live rounds are in the weapon.
7. Place the safety switch on F (FIRE) (Figure 2-6).
8. Maintain rearward pressure on the charging handle, press the trigger and ease the bolt forward.
9. Place the safety switch on S (SAFE).
In a Non-Firing Situation:
1. Place the safety switch on S (SAFE) (Figure 2-6).
2. Open the top cover assembly.
3. Lower one or both charger handles.
4. Pull the charger handle slightly to the rear.
5. Allow sufficient space between the face of the bolt and the chamber to see both.
6. Check for live ammunition.
7. Ride the bolt forward.
8. Return the charger handle to its original upright position.
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / 2-3 / PDF 18)
463
What are the proper procedures for performing immediate action on the MK19?
During peacetime and training:
1. The gunner ensures the safety of other personnel and clears the weapon of ammunition by
performing the following steps in sequence:
• Clear the area of personnel.
• Pull bolt to the rear. If the bolt does not go to the rear, go to BOLT JAMMED.
• Catch the live round as it is ejected.
• Push the charging handles forward and up.
• Put the gun on S (SAFE) and check for any bore obstructions.
• If bore is clear, move safety switch from the S (SAFE) to the F (FIRE) position, and
attempt to fire.
• If nothing happens, put gun on S (SAFE) and wait 10 seconds.
• Pull the bolt to the rear.
• Catch the live round as it is ejected.
• Open the top cover and clear the ammunition.
• Check bore for any obstructions.
2. Charge the MK 19 in the normal manner and check to see the primary pawls have clicked up
behind the cartridge in front of the bolt face and that the secondary pawls have clicked up behind
the next round before firing. The feed pawls should click up within the 1-inch of charging handle
travel.
3. If the primary and secondary pawls do not click up within the last 1-inch of charging travel, follow
these procedures:
• Turn the MK 19 into unit level maintenance.
• Record ammo lot number, type of ammo, number of rounds fired, serial number of the
MK 19 and indicate whether ammo is linked with one-piece or two-piece links.
During Combat:
1. Press charger handle locks and rotate charger handles down.
2. Pull charger handles to the rear until the bolt sears.
3. Push charger handles forward and rotate charger handles up and lock.
4. Relay and fire.
5. Turn in live rounds that cycled through the weapon as instructed by current directives.
(FM 3-22.27 Nov 2003 / C-1 / PDF 139)
464
What is a hand grenade?
The hand grenade is a hand-held, hand-armed and hand-thrown weapon
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 7)
465
What is the effective casualty-producing radius of the M67 hand grenade?
15 meters
466
What are the components of a hand grenade?
• Body
• Filler
• Fuse Assembly
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 8)
467
What are the three characteristics of all hand grenades?
1. Employment range is short
2. Small effective casualty radius
3. Delay element permits safe throwing
468
What FM covers Grenades and Pyrotechnic Signals?
FM 3-23.30
469
In what five areas can the hand grenade assist the individual soldier in the accomplishment of
the mission?
```
• Producing casualties
• Signaling
• Screening
• Producing incendiary
Riot control
```
470
What are the six types of hand grenades?
1. Fragmentation – The grenades are used to produce casualties by high-velocity projection of
fragments.
2. Illuminating – This grenade is used to provide illumination of terrain and targets.
3. Chemical – These grenades are used for incendiary, screening, signaling, training, or riot control.
4. Offensive – This grenade is used for blast effect.
5. Practice and Training – These grenades are used for training personnel in use, care and handling
of service grenades.
6. Nonlethal – This grenade is used for diversionary purposes or when lethal force is not desired.
471
How do you inspect unpacked grenades or grenades stored in ammunition pouches?
1. Inspect unpacked grenades daily to ensure that the safety pins are present.
2. Check the body for rust or dirt.
3. Make sure the lever is not broken or bent.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 2 / PDF 25)
472
What types of grenades should every soldier be able to identify?
* M67 Fragmentation
* M18 Colored Smoke
* AN-M8 HC Smoke
* AN-M14 TH3 Incendiary
* ABC-M7A2, ABC-M7A3 CS Riot Control
473
About the M67 Fragmentation Grenade:
• Body - steel sphere with scored steel spring for fragmentation
• Filler - 6.5 ounces of Composition B.
• Fuse - M213.
• Weight - 14 ounces.
• Safety clip - yes.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw the M67 grenade 35 meters. The effective
casualty producing radius is 15 meters and killing radius is 5 meters.
• Color/markings – The M67 grenade has an olive drab body with a single yellow band at the top.
Markings are in yellow
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 12)
474
About the M18 Colored Smoke Grenade:
• Body - sheet steel cylinder with four emission holes at the top and one at the bottom which allow
smoke to escape when the grenade is ignited. (recently manufactured grenades do not have
bottom holes.)
• Filler - 11.5 ounces of colored smoke mixture (red, green, yellow, and violet).
• Fuse - M201A1.
• Weight - 19 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities - The average Soldier can throw the M18 grenade 35 meters. The grenade burns
for 50 to 90 seconds with an average burn time of 60 seconds.
• Color/markings – The M18 grenade is alight green with black markings. The top of the grenade
indicates the smoke color.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 13)
475
About the AN-M8 HC Smoke Grenade:
• Body – sheet, steel cylinder.
• Filler - 19 ounces of Type C, HC smoke mixture.
• Fuse - M201A1.
• Weight - 24 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw the AN-M8 grenade 30 meters. The grenade
emits a dense cloud of white smoke for 105 to 150 seconds. The AN-M8 Grenade produces
harmful hydrochloric fumes that irritate the eyes, throat and lungs. It should not be used in
closed-in areas unless soldiers are wearing protective masks.
• Color/markings – The AN-M8 grenade has a light green body with black markings and a white
top.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 15)
476
About the AN-M14 TH3 Incendiary:
• Body - sheet metal.
• Filler - 26.5 ounces of thermate (TH3) mixture.
• Fuse - M201A1.
• Weight - 32 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw the AN-M14 TH3 25 meters.. A portion of the
thermate mixture is converted to molten iron, which burns at 4,000 degrees Fahrenheit. It will fuse
together the metallic parts of any object that it contacts. Thermate is an improved version of
thermite, the incendiary agent used in hand grenades during World War II. The thermate filler of
the AN-M14 grenade burns for 40 seconds and can burn through a 1/2-inch homogeneous steel
plate. It produces its own oxygen and will burn under water.
• Color/markings - gray with purple markings and a single purple band (current grenades). Under
the standard color-coding system, incendiary grenades are light red with black markings.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 20)
477
About the ABC M7A2 and ABC M7A3 CS Riot Control:
• Body – Sheet metal with four emission holes at the top and one at the bottom.
• Filler – The ABC M7A2 has 5.5 ounces of burning mixture and 3.5 ounces of CS in gelatin
capsules. The ABC M7A3 has 7.5 ounces of burning mixture and 4.5 ounces of CS pellets
• Fuse – M201A1 MOD2
• Weight – 15.5 ounces.
• Safety clip - no.
• Capabilities – The average Soldier can throw either of these grenades 40 meters. Both
grenades produce a cloud of irritant agent for 15 to 35 seconds.
• Color/markings – Both grenades have gray bodies with red band and red markings.
(FM 3-23.30 June 2005 / 1 / PDF 17)
478
What is the purpose of the D.A. Military Awards Program?
The objective of the DA Military Awards Program is to provide tangible recognition for acts of
valor, exceptional service or achievement, special skills or qualifications, and acts of heroism not
involving actual combat.
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-12 / PDF 11)
479
What is the highest peacetime award for valor?
The Soldiers Medal
| AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 3-12 / PDF 28
480
During peacetime, who is the approving authority for the Soldier's Medal?
HQ Perscom
| AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / Table 3-1 / PDF 33
481
What is an Award?
A decoration, medal, badge, ribbon, or appurtenance bestowed on an individual or a unit
482
What is a decoration?
An award to an individual for a specific act of gallantry or service
483
What is DA Form 7013?
Certificate of Appreciation
484
What are the six groups that individual awards can be categorized into?
1. Decorations
2. Good Conduct Medal
3. Service Medals
4. Service Ribbons
5. Badges and Tabs
6. Certificates and Letters
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-13 / PDF 11)
485
What is the highest award given by the Army in time of war?
The Medal of Honor
486
What is engraved on the reverse side of the Medal of Honor?
The grade, name, and organization of the awardee are engraved on the reverse of the Medal of
Honor.
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-32 / PDF 15)
487
What is engraved on the reverse side of every Decoration or Good Conduct Medal other than
the Medal of Honor?
The name of the awardee only
| AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-32 / PDF 15
488
How many stars are on the blue silk shield that the Army Medal of Honor is suspended from?
13
489
Who is the approving authority for the Medal of Honor?
The U.S. Congress
490
Who awards the Medal of Honor?
The President of the United States
| AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-31 / PDF 14
491
What is the word inscribed on the suspension bar of the Medal of Honor?
"Valor"
492
Whose profile is on the Medal of Honor?
Minerva, the roman goddess of wisdom and righteous war
493
What is the order of precedence for the wearing of individual awards?
1. U.S. Military Decorations
2. U.S. Non-Military Decorations
3. Prisoner of War Medal
4. Good Conduct Medal
5. U.S. Army Reserve Components Achievement Medal
6. U.S. Service Medals and Service Ribbons
7. U.S. Merchant Marine Decorations
8. Foreign Decorations (Does not include Service Medals and Ribbons)
9. Non-U.S. Service Medals and Ribbons
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-40 / PDF 16)
494
Name the ribbon awarded to members of the US Army for successful completion of the Basic
and AIT?
The Army Service Ribbon
495
What is the DA Form 2442?
Certificate of Achievement
496
What is the time limit for recommending an award?
Two Years
497
How many "V" devices may be worn on a ribbon?
Not more than 1
498
The “V” Device is authorized for wear on what decorations?
* Distinguished Flying Cross
* Bronze Star Medal
* Air Medal
* ARCOM
* Joint Service Commendation Medal
499
How many different weapons are authorized component bars?
19
500
For what is the Good Conduct Medal given?
For exemplary behavior, efficiency, and fidelity
501
What three words are inscribed on the front of the Good Conduct Medal?
Honor, Efficiency, and Fidelity
502
Who is the approving authority for the Good Conduct Medal?
The Company Commander
503
How often can you get the Good Conduct Medal?
Every 3 years
504
Who are the final approving authorities for the AAM, ARCOM, MSM, LM and DSM?
* AAM = Lieutenant Colonel and above
* ARCOM = Colonel and above
* MSM = Major General and above
* LM = Lieutenant General and above
* DSM = U.S. Army Chief of Staff
505
Who can make recommendations for an award?
Any person having knowledge of an outstanding act or achievement
506
To whom is the Purple Heart awarded?
To anyone, military or civilian, wounded or killed in action against an armed enemy
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 2-8 / PDF 18)
507
What is the second highest award for valor?
The Distinguished Service Cross
508
What was the first medal awarded in the U.S. Army?
The Purple Heart
509
In the order of precedence, what are the U.S. Unit Awards authorized for wear on Army
Uniforms?
1. Presidential Unit Citation (Army, Air Force).
2. Presidential Unit Citation (Navy).
3. Joint Meritorious Unit Award.
4. Valorous Unit Award.
5. Meritorious Unit Commendation (Army).
6. Navy Unit Commendation.
7. Air Force Outstanding Unit Award.
8. Coast Guard Unit Commendation.
9. Army Superior Unit Award.
10. Meritorious Unit Commendation (Navy).
11. Navy “E” Ribbon.
12. Air Force Organizational Excellence Award.
13. Coast Guard Meritorious Unit Commendation.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-6 / PDF 290)
510
What was the Purple Heart initially awarded for?
It was awarded for valor in the revolutionary war
511
What is a DA Form 4950?
Good Conduct Medal Certificate
512
What decoration has George Washington's picture on it?
The Purple Heart
513
Who is the approving authority for the Army Achievement Medal?
The battalion commander
514
What is a DA Form 87?
Certificate of Training
515
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the AAM?
For Military Achievement
516
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the ARCOM?
For Military Merit
517
What is a Fourragere?
A ropelike device worn to signify the award of a foreign decoration
518
When can a unit award be worn?
When serving with a unit that received an award or if you were assigned to the unit when the
award was assigned
519
Name the four Special Skills Tabs.
1. Ranger
2. Special Forces
3. Presidents Hundred
4. Sapper
520
What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
AR 670-1
521
Name three appurtenances.
1. Oak leaf clusters
2. “V” Devices
3. Numerals
4. Clasps
5. Service Stars
6. Arrowhead
7. Berlin Airlift Device
8. Ten-Year Device
9. “M” Device
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-12 / PDF 301)
522
If the number of authorized oak leaf clusters exceeds four and will not fit on a single ribbon,
what will happen?.
A second ribbon is authorized for wear. When the second ribbon is worn, it is placed after the first
ribbon; the second ribbon counts as one award. Personnel may wear no more than four oak leaf
clusters on each ribbon. If the receipt of future awards reduces the number of oak leaf clusters
sufficiently (that is, a silver oak leaf for five awards), personnel will remove the second ribbon and
place the appropriate number of devices on a single ribbon.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-12 / PDF 301)
523
What DA Form is used to recommend /request an award?
DA Form 638
524
What Army Regulation governs Awards and Decorations?
AR 600-8-22
525
When was the Medal of Honor established?
1862
| AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 3-6 / PDF 27
526
Why is the Purple Heart different than all the other decorations?
While clearly an individual decoration, the Purple Heart differs from all other decorations in that
an individual is not “recommended” for the decoration; rather he or she is entitled to it upon
meeting specific criteria.
(AR 600-8-22 Feb 1995 / 1-40 / PDF 16)
527
What are the three U.S. Army Combat Badges?
1. Combat Infantryman Badge (CIB)
2. Combat Action Badge (CAB)
3. Combat Medical Badge (CMB)
528
Who is eligible to be awarded the Combat Infantryman Badge (CIB)?
Personnel in the grade of Colonel or below with an infantry or special forces military occupational
specialty who have satisfactorily performed duty while assigned as a member of an
infantry/special forces unit, brigade or smaller size, during any period subsequent to 6 December
1941 when the unit was engaged in active ground combat. There is specific criteria for each
conflict that must also be met.
529
What are the four specific eligibility requirements for the Combat Action Badge (CAB)?
1. May be awarded to any soldier.
2. Soldier must be performing assigned duties in an area where hostile fire pay or imminent danger
pay is authorized.
3. Soldier must be personally present and actively engaging or being engaged by the enemy, and
performing satisfactorily in accordance with the prescribed rules of engagement.
4. Soldier must not be assigned/attached to a unit that would qualify the soldier for the CIB/CMB.
530
Can the Combat Action Badge be awarded to members of the other U.S. Armed Forces and
foreign Soldiers?
Yes, provided they were assigned to a U.S. Army unit and meet the four specific eligibility
requirements for the award of the CAB.
531
May Soldiers may be awarded the CIB, CMB and CAB for the same qualifying period?
Yes, provided the criteria for each badge is met. However, subsequent awards of the same
badge within the same qualifying period are not authorized.
532
Who is eligible to be awarded the Combat Medical Badge (CMB)?
The following medical personnel, assigned or attached by appropriate orders to an infantry unit of
brigade, regimental, or smaller size, or to a medical unit of company or smaller size, organic to an
infantry unit of brigade or smaller size, during any period the infantry unit is engaged in actual
ground combat are eligible for award of the badge, provided they are personally present and
under fire during such ground combat:
1. Subsequent to 6 December 1941 – Army Medical Department (Colonels and below), the Navy
Medical Department (Captains and below), the Air Force Medical Service (Colonels and below),
assigned or attached to the Army, who have satisfactorily performed medical duties.
2. Subsequent to 19 December 1989 – Special Forces personnel possessing military occupational
specialty 18D (Special Operations Medical Sergeant) who satisfactorily performed medical duties
while assigned or attached to a Special Forces unit during any period the unit is engaged in
actual ground combat, provided they are personally present and under fire. Retroactive awards
are not authorized.
3. Subsequent to 16 January 1991 – Personnel outlined in (1) above, assigned or attached to Armor
or ground Cavalry units of brigade or smaller size, who satisfactorily performed medical duties
while the unit is engaged in actual ground combat, provided they are personally present and
under fire. Retroactive awards are not authorized.
4. Subsequent to 11 September 2001 – Personnel outlined in (1) and (3) above, assigned or
attached to or under operational control of any ground Combat Arms units (not to include
members assigned or attached to Aviation units) of brigade or smaller size, who satisfactorily
performed medical duties while the unit is engaged in actual ground combat provided they are
personally present and under fire. Retroactive awards are not authorized.
Awards will not be made to general or flag officers. Specific eligibility requirements by geographic
area are listed in Army Regulation 600-8-22.
533
What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
AR 670-1
534
Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the Utility Uniform?
The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in the breeze as the wearer moves forward.
535
Why are all Soldiers in the U.S. Army now authorized to wear the Reverse-Side Full-Color U.S. Flag Cloth Replica upon gaining permission from their commander?
The Nation is at war and will be for the foreseeable future. As an expeditionary Army, our Soldiers' commitment to fight and win our Nation's War, at home and abroad, is best exemplified by permanently wearing the U.S. Flag insignia on the utility uniforms.
536
What AR covers the issue and sale of personal clothing?
AR 700-84
537
When is the only time that commercially designed protective headgear is authorized for wear
with uniform?
When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but once the travel is complete protective
headgear must be removed and army headgear donned
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-17 / PDF 33)
538
When must Identification Tags be worn?
When directed by the commander, engaged in field training, in an aircraft, or OCONUS
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-16 / PDF 33)
539
What does "ECWCS" stand for?
Extended Cold Weather Clothing System
540
What are the ranks that shoulder boards come in?
Corporal through SGM of the Army and also the Officer Ranks.
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-8 / PDF 227
541
What is a CVC uniform?
Combat Vehicle Crewman's Uniform (Tanker's Uniform)
542
Exposed pens in pockets are allowed on which uniforms?
```
• Hospital duty Uniforms
• Food Service Uniforms
• Flight uniforms
• CVC Uniforms
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-14 / PDF 32)
```
543
How is the beret properly worn?
The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the forehead, 1 inch
above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped
over to the right ear, extending to at least the top of the ear, and no lower than the middle of the
ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the
edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the
head; therefore, soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 3-5 / PDF 41)
544
Who is authorized to wear insignia of branch on the Patrol cap?
Chaplains
545
When is the wear of Army uniforms prohibited?
• In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests, or when engaged in
off-duty civilian employment.
• When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public
demonstrations, except as authorized by competent authority.
• When attending any meeting or event that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist
organization.
• When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army.
• When specifically prohibited by Army regulations.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-10 / PDF 31)
546
Soldiers will wear headgear with the Army uniform except under which circumstances?
• Headgear is not required if it would interfere with the safe operation of military vehicles.
• The wear of military headgear is not required while in or on a privately owned vehicle (to include a
motorcycle, bicycle, or convertible automobile), a commercial vehicle, or on public conveyance
(such as a subway, train, plane, or bus).
• Soldiers will not wear headgear indoors unless under arms in an official capacity, or when
directed by the commander, such as for indoor ceremonial activities.
• Male and female soldiers are not required to wear headgear to evening social events (after
Retreat) when wearing the Army blue and white uniforms, the enlisted green dress uniform, the
Army green maternity dress uniform (females only), or the mess and evening mess uniforms.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 1-10 / PDF 31)
547
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293)
548
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
549
Where are unit awards worn on the male Class A uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8
above the right breast pocket flag
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 299)
550
Where are unit awards worn on the female Class A uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the
bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 300)
551
What are the dimensions of the dress uniform nameplate?
1 x 3 x 1/16 of an inch
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-24 / PDF 271
552
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Class A uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower
portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
553
How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Class A uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a
similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform
to individual body-shape differences.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
554
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the male Class A uniform?
The wearers left
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
555
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the female Class A uniform?
The wearers right
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
556
How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Class A Uniform?
No more than 3
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
557
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?
No more than 3
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
558
How are service ribbons worn on the male Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293).
559
How are service ribbons worn on the female Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
560
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Class A Uniform?
The RDI centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or
foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the
RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-23 / PDF 268)
561
How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Class A uniform?
Enlisted males wear their branch insignia centered on the left collar, with the bottom of the disk
approximately 1 inch above the notch, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside
edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 254)
562
How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Class A uniform?
Enlisted females wear their branch insignia on the left collar. The insignia is worn so the bottom of
the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5⁄8
inch up from the notch, with the centerline of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the
lapel.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 255)
563
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Class A uniform?
The bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is placed approximately 1 inch above the notch, centered on
the right collar, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
564
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Class A uniform?
the bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is centered on the right collar, approximately 5⁄8 inch up from
the collar and lapel seam, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
565
How are service stripes placed on the Class A uniform?
The service stripes are worn centered on the outside bottom half of the left sleeve on the Army
green uniform coat. The service stripe is placed at an angle of 45 degrees with the lower end
toward the inside seam of the sleeve, and it is placed 4 inches from the bottom of the sleeve. For
each additional period of 3 years honorable service, another service stripe is added above and
parallel to the first stripe, with a 1/16-inch space between stripes
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 274)
566
One service stripe represents how many years?
3
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 275
567
What is the most noticeable difference between the Army Blue Service Uniform trousers worn
by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC and those worn by NCOs in the ranks of CPL through
SMA?
The trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC will not have a gold stripe along
the legs which can be found on the trousers worn by CPL through SMA.
568
As a “rite of passage” when a Soldier progresses in rank and enters the NCO Corps, what is
added to the Army Blue Service Uniform?
The trousers will have a gold stripe added and the wear of the beret will be replaced with a
Service Cap.
569
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293)
570
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
571
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Army Blue Service Uniform?
The RDI centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or
foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the
RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-23 / PDF 268)
572
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Army Blue Service
Uniform?
The RDI centered 1⁄2 inch above the nameplate, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign
badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned
to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-23 / PDF 269)
573
Where are unit awards worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8
above the right breast pocket flag
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 299)
574
Where are unit awards worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the
bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-11 / PDF 300)
575
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower
portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
576
How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a
similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform
to individual body-shape differences.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306)
577
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the male Army Blue Service
uniform?
The wearers left
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
578
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the female Army Blue Service
uniform?
The wearers right
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 27-2 / PDF 177
579
How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Army Blue Service
Uniform?
No more than 3
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
580
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?
No more than 3
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-16 / PDF 306
581
How are service ribbons worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered
above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 293).
582
How are service ribbons worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge
of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-
shape differences
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 29-7 / PDF 294)
583
How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?
Enlisted males wear their branch insignia centered on the left collar, with the bottom of the disk
approximately 1 inch above the notch, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside
edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 254)
584
How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Army Blue Service uniform?
Enlisted females wear their branch insignia on the left collar. The insignia is worn so the bottom of
the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5⁄8
inch up from the notch, with the centerline of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the
lapel.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-12 / PDF 255)
585
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
The bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is placed approximately 1 inch above the notch, centered on
the right collar, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
586
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
the bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is centered on the right collar, approximately 5⁄8 inch up from
the collar and lapel seam, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-4 / PDF 208)
587
How are service stripes placed on the Army Blue Service uniform?
The service stripe is worn centered from seam-to-seam on the outside bottom half of both
sleeves. The first stripe is sewn on an angle of 30 degrees, with the lower end inserted in the
front inside seam, 1⁄4 inch above the cuff braid. The upper end of the stripe is inserted in the back
seam of the sleeve. Each additional stripe is spaced 1⁄8 inch apart from the last, and above the
first stripe.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 275)
588
One service stripe represents how many years?
3
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 28-27 / PDF 275
589
Which items are considered part of the ACU ensemble and also authorized for wear with the
BDU?
* Rigger Belt
* Moisture Wicking T-Shirt (tan)
* Green socks
* Army Combat Boots – Hot weather and Temperate weather (tan)
590
Can the Black all-weather coat be worn as a raincoat while wearing BDUs?
Yes, but only in a Garrison environment when organizational rain gear has not been issued
591
What is the proper distance of the shoulder patch from the seam of the shoulder on the BDU?
1/2 inch
592
How is the Reverse-Side Full-Color U.S. Flag Insignia placed on the BDU Uniform?
If the Soldier has a Shoulder Sleeve Insignia-Former Wartime Service (SSI-FWTS) (Also
commonly called a "combat patch), the insignia is placed 1/8 inch below the SSI-FWTS. If the
Soldier does not have a SSI-FWTS, the insignia is placed 1/2 inch below the right shoulder seam.
593
What is the estimated lifetime of the new ACU?
```
6 months. (ACU is made with the same nylon/cotton rip-stop fabric as the current Enhanced Hot
Weather BDU (EHWBDU). The current EHWBDU has an estimated wear life of six months.)
```
594
Explain the new digitized pattern.
The new pattern is designed to work in the three primary combat environments, -- Woodland,
Desert and Urban. Though not optimized for any particular environment, it is effective in all three.
595
Describe the rank and grade insignia on the ACU.
The rank and grade will be black embroidery on the digitized fabric with hook fastener, expect
major and 2nd lieutenant; which will be bronze embroidery with hook fastener. The olive drab
areas of the warrant officer rank will be foliage green.
596
Can embroidered badges be worn on the ACU?
No, embroidered badges will not be worn on the ACU.
597
Describe the Name tape / U.S. Army tape for the ACU.
The U.S. Army Tape will be black embroidery on the digitized fabric with hook fastener. The
finished length will be 5 inches.
598
How is the Name tape / U.S. Army tape worn on the ACU?
Immediately above and parallel with the slanted chest pocket flaps
599
Describe the rank insignia dimensions used on the ACU.
Private through Colonel – 2 inches by 2 inches with hook fastener
Brigadier General and Major General – 2 inches by 2 inches overall with hook fastener
Lieutenant General – 2 inches by 3 1⁄4 inches with both hook and loop fasteners attached.
General Officer – 3⁄4 inch stars point to vertex 1/8 inch apart
600
Soldiers may wear up to five skill badges on the ACU. All skill badges will be worn above the
U.S. Army tape in order of precedence from the wearers left. How would you wear 1,2,3,4, or and 5
skill badges?
1 Badge – Worn 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape.
2 Badges – Worn vertically 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape with 1⁄4 inch
between badges.
3 Badges - Worn vertically 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape with 1⁄4 inch
between badges.
4 Badges – Worn vertically and side by side in stacks of two, 1/8 inch above and centered on the
U.S. Army tape, with 1.4 inch between badges vertically and 1⁄2 inch between badges horizontally.
5 Badges - Worn vertically and side by side in stacks of two, 1/8 inch above and centered on the
U.S. Army tape, with 1.4 inch between badges vertically and 1⁄2 inch between badges horizontally.
The 5th badge is placed 1⁄4 inch above and centered on the top two badges.
601
Branch insignia will not be worn with the ACU with one exception. Who is allowed to wear
branch insignia and how is it worn?
U.S. Army Chaplaincy religious denomination insignia may be worn 1/8 inch above and centered
on the name tape. The insignia will be pin on only.
602
How will the SSI (Unit Patch) and the SSI-FWTS (Combat Patch) be worn on the ACU?
The SSI will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the left sleeve
of the coat.
The SSI-FWTS will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the
right sleeve of the coat.
603
How will the U.S. Flag insignia be worn on the ACU?
The U.S. Flag insignia is worn on the right shoulder pocket flap of the ACU coat.
604
How many skill tabs can be worn on the ACU?
No more than 3
605
How are skill tabs worn on the ACU?
Centered on the shoulder pocket flap of the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the left
shoulder of the ACU coat in order of precedence IAW AR 670-1.
606
Can a Soldier wear the Black All weather coat as a raincoat with the ACU?
Yes, but only in a Garrison environment.
607
How is the ACU patrol cap worn with the ACU?
Personnel wear the patrol cap straight on the head so that the cap band creates a straight line
around the head, parallel to the ground. The patrol cap will fit snugly and comfortably around the
largest part of the head without distortion or excessive gaps. The cap is worn so that no hair is
visible on the forehead beneath the cap. At their discretion, individuals may wear the earflaps
down during cold weather, except in formation when the commander may prescribe wear policy
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 3-5 / PDF 42)
608
What type of rank is authorized to be worn on the ACU patrol cap?
Sewn or Pin on rank.
609
How is the name tape worn on the ACU Patrol Cap?
The name tape will be worn centered on the hook and loop pad on the back of the ACU Patrol
Cap.
610
When the ACU trouser leg is bloused, what is the maximum distance that it may extend down
the boot?
The bloused trouser legs should not extend below the third eyelet from the top of the boot..
611
Describe the proper process for washing the ACU.
1. Wash in cold water and mild detergent containing NO optical brighteners or bleach.
2. Tumble dry at low heat (not to exceed 130 degrees fahrenheit)
3. Remove immediately from dryer and fold flat or place on a rustproof hanger to ensure heat from
the dryer does not set wrinkles.
4. To drip dry, remove from the washer/water and place on a rustproof hanger. Do not wring or
twist.
612
What are the components of the IPFU?
1. Jacket, running, gray and black.
2. Pants, running, black.
3. Trunks, running, black, moisture-wicking.
4. T-shirt, gray, short sleeve, moisture-wicking.
5. T-shirt, gray, long sleeve, moisture-wicking.
6. Cap, knit, black
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-2 / PDF 85)
613
When authorized by the Commander, may the IPFU be worn on and off post and on and off
duty?
Yes, Soldiers may wear all or part of the IPFU with civilian attire off the installation, when
authorized by the commander.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-4 / PDF 85)
614
What is the only insignia authorized for wear on the IPFU according to AR 670-1?
The Physical Fitness Badge
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-5 / PDF 85
615
How is the Physical Fitness Badge properly placed on the IPFU?
When the physical fitness badge is worn, it is sewn on the upper left front side of the IPFU T-shirt.
On the IPFU running jacket, the insignia is sewn centered 1⁄2 inch above the word “Army.”
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-5 / PDF 85)
616
Are Soldiers authorized to wear commercially purchased gray or black spandex shorts under
the IPFU trunks?
Yes, The length of the shorts must end above the knee or higher. The commercial shorts must be
plain, with no logos, patterns, or obtrusive markings. Soldiers are not required to buy the spandex
shorts.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-3 / PDF 85)
617
Who are the only Soldiers authorized to wear the IPFU shirt outside of the trunks?
Pregnant Soldiers
| AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-6 / PDF 85
618
Can Commanders authorize the wear of commercial items be worn with the IPFU?
Commanders may authorize the wear of commercial running shoes, calf-length or ankle-length,
plain white socks with no logos, gloves, reflective belts or vests, long underwear, and other items
appropriate to the weather conditions and type of activity. If soldiers wear long underwear or other
similar items, they must conceal them from view when wearing the running jacket and pants of
the IPFU.
(AR 670-1 Feb 2005 / 14-3 / PDF 85)
619
When was the NCO support channel formally recognized?
20 December 1976
620
What is Sergeant's Business?
To train and lead soldiers
621
What is a Sergeant?
A leader
622
Explain the Chain of Command
The succession of commanders superior to subordinates through which command is exercised
623
Define Responsibility
Being accountable for what you do
624
How does the Chain of Command support the NCO support channel?
By legally punishing those who challenge a sergeant's authority
625
Define Duty.
Duty is a legal or moral obligation to do what should be done without being told to do it
626
What is the role of the CSM?
Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Battalion commander
627
How does a Commander exercise command?
Through subordinate commanders
628
When was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
4 July 1966
629
Is the CSM in the Chain of Command?
No (but he supervises the NCO support channel)
630
What are key elements of command?
Authority and Responsibility
631
What is the NCO Support Channel?
It is the channel of communication that reinforces the Chain of Command
632
What must a Sergeant have in order to accomplish Sergeant's Business?
The Skill, ability and Leadership to train soldiers for combat and lead them into combat
633
Who is the only member of both your chain of command the your NCO support channel?
Your first line supervisor, section, squad or team leader
634
What does FM 6-22 cover?
Army Leadership (Competent, Confident and Agile)
635
What does FM 7-0 cover?
Training the force
636
Define Leadership.
Leadership is influencing people—by providing purpose, direction, and motivation—while
operating to accomplish the mission and improving the organization.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / A-1 / PDF 145)
637
What is purpose?
Purpose gives subordinates the reason to act in order to achieve a desired outcome.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 12)
638
What is direction?.
Providing clear direction involves communicating how to accomplish a mission: prioritizing tasks,
assigning responsibility for completion, and ensuring subordinates understand the standard.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-10 / PDF 12)
639
What is motivation?
Motivation supplies the will to do what is necessary to accomplish a mission.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-12 / PDF 12)
640
Describe the "Be, Know and Do".
Army leadership begins with what the leader must BE, the values and attributes that shape a
leader’s character. Your skills are those things you KNOW how to do, your competence in
everything from the technical side of your job to the people skills a leader requires. But character
and knowledge—while absolutely necessary—are not enough. You cannot be effective, you
cannot be a leader, until you apply what you know, until you act and DO what you must.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-1 / PDF 11)
641
What are the thee principal ways that leaders can develop others through which they provide
knowledge and feedback?
1. Counseling
2. Coaching.
3. Mentoring.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-67 / PDF 216)
642
A leader’s effectiveness is dramatically enhanced by understanding and developing what
areas?
1. Military Bearing
2. Physical Fitness.
3. Confidence
4. Resilience.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
643
What is military bearing?
Projecting a commanding presence, a professional image of authority.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
644
What is physical fitness?
Having sound health, strength, and endurance, which sustain emotional health
and conceptual abilities under prolonged stress..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
645
What is confidence?
Projecting self-confidence and certainty in the unit’s ability to succeed in whatever
it does; able to demonstrate composure and outward calm through steady control over emotion..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
646
What is resilience?
Showing a tendency to recover quickly from setbacks, shock, injuries, adversity, and
stress while maintaining a mission and organizational focus..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 5-3 / PDF 51)
647
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout
Soldiers’ and leaders’ careers?
1. Institutional training.
2. Training, education, and job experience gained during operational assignments.
3. Self-development.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-53 / PDF 89)
648
What are the Leader Actions?
1. Influencing – getting people (Soldiers, Army civilians, and multinational partners) to do what is
necessary.
2. Operating – the actions taken to influence others to accomplish missions and to set the stage for
future operations.
3. Improving – capturing and acting on important lessons of ongoing and completed projects and
missions.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-7 / PDF 12)
649
What are the three levels of leadership?
1. Direct - Direct leadership is face-to-face, first-line leadership.
2. Organizational - Organizational leaders influence several hundred to several thousand people.
They do this indirectly, generally through more levels of subordinates than do direct leaders.
3. Strategic - Strategic leaders include military and DA civilian leaders at the major command
through Department of Defense levels. Strategic leaders are responsible for large organizations
and influence several thousand to hundreds of thousands of people.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 1-1 / PDF 11)
650
What are the Army Values?
```
• Loyalty
• Duty
• Respect
• Selfless Service
• Honor
• Integrity
• Personal Courage
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 2-7 / PDF 16)
```
651
Attributes of an Army leader can best be defined as what an Army leader is. What are the
attributes of an Army leader?
1. A leader of character
2. A leader with presence.
3. A leader with intellectual capacity.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / A-2 / PDF 145)
652
Core leader competencies are what an Army leader does. What are the core leader
competencies?
1. An Army leader leads
2. An Army leader develops
3. An Army leader achieves.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / A-2 / PDF 145)
653
Why must leaders introduce stress into training?
Using scenarios that closely resemble the stresses and effects of the real battlefield is essential
to victory and survival in combat.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 10-43 / PDF 113)
654
What are intended and unintended consequences?
• Intended Consequences are the anticipated results of a leader’s decisions and actions.
• Unintended consequences arise from unplanned events that affect the organization or
accomplishment of the mission..
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 9-12 / PDF 100)
655
What is communication?
A process of providing information
| FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 7-87 / PDF 78
656
Name the two barriers of communications
1. Physical
| 2. Psychological
657
Name some physical barriers of communication
* Noise of battle
| * Distance
658
What is counseling?
Counseling is the process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the subordinate’s
demonstrated performance and potential.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-1 / PDF 157)
659
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
1. Event counseling
2. Performance counseling
3. Professional growth counseling
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-3 / PDF 157)
660
Character is essential to successful leadership. What are the three major factors that
determine a leaders character?
1. Army Values
2. Empathy
3. Warrior Ethos
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 2-15 / PDF 18)
661
What are the 7 steps to problem solving?
1. ID the problem
2. Gather information
3. Develop criteria
4. Generate possible solutions
5. Analyze possible solutions
6. Compare possible solutions
7. Make and implement the decision
(FM 5-0 Jan 2005 / 2-23 / PDF 46)
662
What is reverse planning?
Reverse planning is a specific technique used to ensure that a concept leads to the intended end
state.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 9-18 / PDF 101)
663
To assess subordinates, leaders you must-
• Observe and record subordinates’ performance in the core leader competencies.
• Determine if the performances meet, exceed, or fall below expected standards.
• Tell subordinates what was observed and give an opportunity to comment.
• Help subordinates develop an individual development plan (IDP) to improve performance.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-59 / PDF 90)
664
What are the team building stages?
1. Formation
2. Enrichment
3. Sustainment
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-97 / PDF 216)
665
Name some things in a unit that affect morale
* Mess
* Military justice
* Mail
* Supply
* Billets
666
What are Beliefs?
Beliefs derive from upbringing, culture, religious backgrounds, and traditions.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 4-59 / PDF 46)
667
What Field Manual covers counseling?
FM 6-22 Appendix B
668
What are the characteristics of effective counseling?
1. Purpose: Clearly define the purpose of the counseling.
2. Flexibility: Fit the counseling style to the character of each subordinate and to the relationship
desired.
3. Respect: View subordinates as unique, complex individuals, each with a distinct set of values,
beliefs, and attitudes.
4. Communication: Establish open, two-way communication with subordinates using spoken
language, nonverbal actions, gestures, and body language. Effective counselors listen more than
they speak.
5. Support: Encourage subordinates through actions while guiding them through their problems.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-24 / PDF 160)
669
What are the three approaches to counseling?
1. Directive
2. Non-directive
3. Combined
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
670
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Directive counseling.
Advantages:
• Quickest method.
• Good for people who need clear, concise direction.
• Allows counselors to actively use their experience.
Disadvantages:
• Doesn't encourage subordinates to be part of the solution.
• Tends to treat symptoms, not problems.
• Tends to discourage subordinates from talking freely.
• Solution is the counselor's, not the subordinate's.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
671
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Non-Directive counseling.
```
Advantages:
• Encourages maturity.
• Encourages open communication.
• Develops personal responsibility.
Disadvantages:
• More time-consuming
• Requires greatest counselor skill.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
```
672
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Combined counseling.
```
Advantages:
• Moderately quick.
• Encourages maturity.
• Encourages open communication.
• Allows counselors to actively use their experience.
Disadvantages:
• May take too much time for some situations.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
```
673
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
1. Event counseling
2. Performance counseling
3. Professional growth counseling
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-3 / PDF 157)
674
What are some examples of Event counseling?
1. Instances of superior or substandard performance.
2. Reception and Integration Counseling.
3. Crisis Counseling
4. Referral Counseling
5. Promotion Counseling
6. Separation Counseling
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-4 / PDF 157)
675
What areas would you cover in a reception and integration counseling?
• Chain of command familiarization..
• Organizational standards.
• Security and safety issues.
• Noncommissioned officer (NCO) support channel (who is in it and how it is used).
• On- and off-duty conduct.
• Personnel/personal affairs/initial and special clothing issue.
• Organizational history, structure, and mission.
• Soldier programs within the organization, such as Soldier of the Month/Quarter/Year, and
educational and training opportunities.
• Off limits and danger areas.
• Functions and locations of support activities.
• On- and off-post recreational, educational, cultural, and historical opportunities.
• Foreign nation or host nation orientation.
• Other areas the individual should be aware of as determined by the leader.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-9 / PDF 158)
676
What are the 4 stages of the Counseling Process?
1. Identify the need for counseling.
2. Prepare for counseling.
3. Conduct counseling.
4. Follow up.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-41 / PDF 165)
677
What are the steps required to prepare for counseling?
```
• Select a suitable place.
• Schedule the time.
• Notify the subordinate well in advance.
• Organize information.
• Outline the counseling session components.
• Plan the counseling strategy.
• Establish the right atmosphere.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-43 / PDF 165)
```
678
A counseling session consists of what 4 basic components?
```
• Opening the session.
• Discussing the issues.
• Developing the plan of action.
• Recording and closing the session.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-52 / PDF 168)
```
679
What is counseling?
Counseling is the process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the subordinate’s
demonstrated performance and potential.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-1 / PDF 157)
680
How many human needs are there?
4 (Physical, Social, Security and Higher (Religious))
681
What is tact?
A keen sense of what to do or say in order to maintain good relations with others and to avoid
offense
682
What is the objective of counseling?
For one person to help another
683
What are the 7 steps to problem solving?
1. ID the problem
2. Gather information
3. Develop criteria
4. Generate possible solutions
5. Analyze possible solutions
6. Compare posible solutions
7. Make and implement the decision
(FM 5-0 Jan 2005 / 2-23 / PDF 46)
684
What is communications?
Communications is the flow or exchange of information and ideas from one person to another.
685
Faulty communications causes most problems. True or false?
True
686
Leaders should seek to develop and improve what three leader counseling skills?
1. Active Listening
2. Responding
3. Questioning
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-27 / PDF 160)
687
To insure that they understand the message sent to them, the receiver should send what back
to the transmitter?
Feedback
688
What are the qualities of an effective counselor?
1. Respect for subordinates
2. Self-awareness
3. Cultural awareness
4. Empathy
5. Credibility
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8-75 / PDF 92)
689
In communications, your exchange of information has three important parts. What are they?
1. Message
2. Content
3. Context
690
Name some good conditions that make for good discipline
* High performance standards
* Loyalty to superiors and subordinates
* Competitive activities
* Tough training
* Open channel of communications
691
What course of action should a supervisor take when a subordinate has been performing
below his/her usual standards?
1. Counsel about substandard performance.
2. Attempt to define the problem with the soldier.
3. Afford opportunity and time to solve the problem.
4. Make a written statement of counseling
692
What are the stresses that influence behavior?
* Fear
* Hunger
* Illness
* Anxiety
* Fatigue
693
By neglecting the welfare of your soldiers, you will probably do what?
Lose their respect and loyal cooperation
694
What form is used for counseling?
DA Form 4856
| FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-63 / PDF 170
695
When is the directive approach in counseling most likely to be used?
When time is short, when the LEADER knows what to do, when the counseled soldier has limited
problem-solving abilities.
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-38 / PDF 164)
696
Is it a requirement that a leader counsel his/her subordinates?
Yes. A leader who neglects to counsel his subordinates is negligent in his performance of duty
697
Is performance counseling limited to bad performance?
No. Counseling may also be for good performance
698
What are some counseling techniques leaders may explore during the nondirective or
combined counseling approaches?
1. Suggesting Alternatives
2. Recommending
3. Persuading
4. Advising
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-39 / PDF 164)
699
What are some techniques leaders may use during the directive approach to counseling?
1. Corrective Training
2. Commanding
(FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / B-40 / PDF 164)
700
What FM covers the duties, responsibilities and authorities of a NCO?
FM 7-22.7.
701
What is Responsibility?
Responsibility is being accountable for what you do or fail to do.
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-14 / PDF 53)
702
What does Individual Responsibility make a soldier accountable for?
It makes them accountable for the personal conduct.
| FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-18 / PDF 54
703
What is Command Authority?
Command authority is the authority leaders have over soldiers by virtue of rank or assignment.
Command authority originates with the President and may be supplemented by law or regulation.
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-22 / PDF 55)
704
What are the two most important responsibilities of a leader?
Mission accomplishment and the welfare of the soldiers.
| FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 1-52 / PDF 39
705
What does Command Responsibility make a soldier accountable for?
Command responsibility refers to collective or organizational accountability and includes how well
the unit performs their missions. For example, a company commander is responsible for all the
tasks and missions assigned to the company; his superiors hold him accountable for completing
them. Commanders give military leaders the responsibility for what their sections, units, or
organizations do or fail to do. NCOs are therefore responsible to fulfill not only their individual
duties, but also to ensure that their team and unit are successful. The amount of responsibility
delegated to you depends on your mission, the position you hold and your own willingness to
accept responsibility.
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-16 / PDF 54)
706
Where would a soldier find a noncommissioned officer's role in reference to the chain of
command?
AR 600-20
707
The authority of command that one individual exercises over others is acquired as a result of
what?
Grade and assignment.
708
What is a NCO's principle duty and responsibility?
Training.
709
Name some basic responsibilities of a NCO?
* Maintaining discipline
* Maintaining government property
* Training soldiers
* Ensuring the welfare of the soldiers
* Executing the mission
710
What is authority?
Authority is the legitimate power of a leader to direct those subordinates to him or to take action
within the scope of his position.
711
Every soldier has two responsibilities. What are they?
1. Individual responsibilities
| 2. Command responsibilities.
712
What is power?
Power is the ability, either physical, mental or moral to have a positive control over the actions of
others.
713
What are the five types of power?
1. Legal
2. Reward
3. Coercive
4. Referent
5. Expert.
714
What is legal power?
The power derived from law and regulation.
715
What is reward power?
The power derived from the capacity of the leader to provide desired rewards to a soldier for good
performance.
716
What is coercive power?
The power which influences a person to perform or behave in a manner contrary to how that
person desires to behave at the time.
717
What is referent (charismatic) power?
The power derived from the leader's personality and is effective as a means of influencing
soldiers to the extent they respect and admire the leader.
718
What is expert power?
The power derived from the leader's accumulation of knowledge, skills and capabilities.
719
How do you determine the amount of supervision needed to accomplish a task?
By considering your soldiers' competence, motivation and commitment to perform the task.
720
To insure your soldiers understand and are carrying out the task, you should do what?
Supervise the task.
721
What is general military authority?
General military authority is authority extended to all soldiers to take action and act in the
absence of a unit leader or other designated authority. It originates in oaths of office, law, rank
structure, traditions and regulations. This broad-based authority also allows leaders to take
appropriate corrective actions whenever a member of any armed service, anywhere, commits an
act involving a breach of good order or discipline. For example, if you see soldiers in a brawl, you
have the general military authority (and the obligation) to stop the fight. This authority applies
even if none of the soldiers are in your unit.
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-24 / PDF 56)
722
What are the four fundamental steps in supervising subordinates in the accomplishment of a
task?
1. Assign the task
2. Set standards
3. Check progress
4. Determine if standards have been met (follow-up)
723
What is supervision?
Keeping a grasp of the situation and ensuring that plans and policies are being followed; the art of
checking without undue harassment.
724
What are the three different types of duties?
1. Specified
2. Directed
3. Implied duties
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-10 / PDF 53)
725
What is a specified duty?
Specified duties are those related to jobs and positions. Directives such as Army regulations,
Department of the Army (DA) general orders, the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ),
soldier’s manuals, Army Training and Evaluation Program (ARTEP) publications and MOS job
descriptions specify the duties. For example, AR 600-20 says that NCOs must ensure that their
soldiers get proper individual training and maintain personal appearance and cleanliness.
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-11 / PDF 53)
726
What is a directed duty?
Directed duties are not specified as part of a job position or MOS or other directive. A superior
gives them orally or in writing. Directed duties include being in charge of quarters (CQ) or serving
as sergeant of the guard, staff duty officer, company training NCO and NBC NCO, where these
duties are not found in the unit’s organization charts.
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-12 / PDF 53)
727
What is an implied duty?
Implied duties often support specified duties, but in some cases they may not be related to the
MOS job position. These duties may not be written but implied in the instructions. They’re duties
that improve the quality of the job and help keep the unit functioning at an optimum level. In most
cases, these duties depend on individual initiative. They improve the work environment and
motivate soldiers to perform because they want to, not because they have to. For example, while
not specifically directed to do so, you hold in-ranks inspections daily to ensure your soldiers’
appearance and equipment are up to standards.
(FM 7-22.7 Dec 2002 / 2-13 / PDF 53)
728
Who is the 1st Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (SEAC)?
SGM William Joseph Gainey.
| http://www.jcs.mil/bios/bio_gainey.html
729
When did the 1st Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Chairmen Joint Chiefs of Staff (SEAC) assume
the position?
October 01, 2005.
| http://www.jcs.mil/bios/bio_gainey.html
730
What grade is the Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (SEAC)?
The SEAC holds the grade of E-9 and is equal in seniority to the Services SEAs.
(http://www.jcs.mil/bios/bio_gainey.html)
731
How many SMA have there been?
13.
732
Name the five most recent Sergeant Majors of the Army:
* Sergeant Major of the Army Kenneth O. Preston
* Former Sergeant Major of the Army Jack L. Tilley
* Former Sergeant Major of the Army Robert E. Hall
* Former Sergeant Major of the Army Gene C. McKinney
* Former Sergeant Major of the Army Richard A. Kidd
733
Who was the first Sergeant Major of the Army?
Sergeant Major Willion O. Wooldridge.
734
What year was the Sergeant Major of the Army Established?
1966.
735
The Sergeants Major Course began in what year?
1973 (January).
736
The history of the Noncommissioned Officer began in what year with the birth of the
Continental Army?
1775.
737
Who wrote the "Regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States",
also commonly called the "Blue Book" and thus standardized NCO duties and responsibilities in
1778?
Inspector General Friedrich von Steuben
738
During the year 1778, what were the NCO ranks during that period?
* Corporals
* Sergeants
* First Sergeants
* Quartermaster Sergeants
* Sergeants Major
739
Three NCOs received special recognition for acts of heroism during the American Revolution.
Each received the Badge of Military Merit, a purple heart with a floral border and the word "merit"
inscribed across the center. In practice this award was the precursor to the Medal of Honor
introduced during the Civil War. What were their names?
* Sergeant Elijah Churchill
* Sergeant William Brown
* Sergeant Daniel Bissell
740
During what year did the War Department make the first reference to noncommissioned officer
chevrons?
1821.
741
What publication published in 1829 provided instructions for training of noncommissioned
officers?
The Abstract of Infantry Tactics
742
The 417 page unofficial publication called the Noncommissioned Officers Manual, was
published in what year?
1909.
743
During what year did the symbol of NCO rank, the chevron, rotate to what we would today call
point up and become smaller in size?
1902.
744
During the period of World War 1, the First Sergeants often carried a book in their pockets that
contained administrative files. This book, which today may be known as a "leaders book"
contained the names of everyone in the company and their professional history (AWOLs, Work
Habits, Promotions, etc.). This book was passed from First Sergeant to First Sergeant, staying
within the company and providing the unit historical information. What was this book called?
A Black Book.
745
During what year did the AR 350-90 establish army-wide standards for NCO Academies?
1957.
746
In 1958 the Army added two grades to the NCO Ranks, these pay grades would "provide for a
better delineation of responsibilities in the enlisted structure". What were the two new pay
grades?
E8 and E9.
747
During what year did PLDC first become a mandatory prerequisite for promotion to Staff
Sergeant?
1986
748
What Army Regulation prescribes the policies for completing evaluation reports that support
the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)?
AR 623-3
749
What DA Pamphlet prescribes the procedures for completing evaluation reports that support
the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)?
DA Pam 623-3
750
What does the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS) identify?
The ERS identifies officers and noncommissioned officers who are best qualified for promotion
and assignments to positions of higher responsibility. ERS also identifies Soldiers who should be
kept on active duty, those who should be retained in grade, and those who should be eliminated.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 8)
751
Under the ERS a Soldier is evaluated on performance and potential. In this system, what three
kinds of evaluations are given?
1. Duty evaluations. Either the DA Form 67–9 or DA Form 2166–8 is used for these evaluations.
2. School evaluations. Either the DA Form 1059 and DA Form 1059–1 is used for these evaluations.
3. DA evaluations. Selection boards and personnel management systems are used for these
evaluations. Duty and school evaluations are single time-and-place evaluations and are used to
make DA evaluations. DA evaluations cover the entire career of an officer and noncommissioned
officer.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 8)
752
DA evaluations focus on an individual Soldier’s potential. They are judgments on their ability to
perform at current and higher grades, and they are also made to judge whether an officer or NCO
should be retained and given greater responsibility in their present grade. In making DA
evaluations, what three factors are considered?
1. Army requirements for leaders: officers and noncommissioned officers frequently change. At
times, the Army has a need for leaders with certain backgrounds, experience, and expertise. The
size of the Army leader corps by law in terms of strength by grade. Army needs limit the number
of selections and assignments that can be made. Thus, a leader’s potential is partially determined
by how they compare with their peers.
2. Duty performance. Performance of duty is an extremely important factor in determining a leader’s
potential. Duty performance is judged by how well a Soldier performs their assigned tasks and
how well they meet Armyprofessional values uniquely established for each respective corps.
3. Leader qualifications. It must be considered in order to meet Army needs for outstanding leaders
of troop or technical units, supporting staff managers, and technical specialists. One
consideration in determining qualifications is the different skills and backgrounds required by
different specialties. Another consideration is a Soldier’s individual progress through specialist
fields to positions of greater responsibility. In addition, their length of service, civil schooling,
military schooling, or other unique skills required by the Army are considered.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 8)
753
What is the basic structure of the ERS?
• Allows the rater to give shape and direction to the rated officer or noncommissioned officer’s
performance.
• Provides a chain-of-command evaluation of a Soldier’s performance and potential.
• Allows the entire evaluation reporting process to be reviewed.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 9)
754
What is the ERS Process designed to do?
• Set objectives for the rated Soldier that supports the organization’s overall achievement of the
mission.
• Review the rated Soldier’s objectives, special duties, assigned tasks, or special areas of
emphasis and update them to meet current needs.
• Promote performance-related counseling to develop subordinates and better accompish the
organization’s mission.
• Evaluate the rated leader’s performance.
• Assess the rated leader’s potential.
• Ensure a review of the entire process.
• Noncommissioned officer’s organizational rating chain use DA Form 2166–8; and DA Form
2166–8–1.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 9)
755
What will a rating chain for an NCO consist of?
```
• Rated NCO
• Rater
• Senior Rater
• Reviewer
(AR 623-3 May 2006 / 2-3 / PDF 18)
```
756
Can an NCO that is on a recommended list for promotion or frocked to one of the top three
NCO grades (first sergeant (1SG), SGM, or CSM) and is serving in an authorized position for the
new grade, rate any NCO under their supervision, if after the rater’s promotion he/she will be
senior in pay grade or date of rank to the rated NCO?
Yes
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 2-5 / PDF 20
757
What is an NCOER?
Rating chain members use the DA Form 2166–8 (NCOER) to provide DA with performance and
potential assessments of each rated NCO. The DA Form 2166–8 also provides evaluation
information to ensure that sound personnel management decisions can be made and that an
NCO’s potential can be fully developed.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 40)
758
How many types of NCOERs are there?
There are 7:
1. Annual
2. Change of Rater
3. Relief for Cause
4. Complete the Record
5. 60 Day Rater Option
6. 60 Day Senior Rater Option
7. Temporary Duty, Special Duty or Compassionate Reassignment
759
What is the minimum period of time for rater qualification?
3 Rated Months
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 2-5 / PDF 19
760
What is the minimum period of time for senior rater qualifications?
2 months
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 2-7 / PDF 21
761
When will a member of an allied force meet senior rater qualifications?
Never
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 2-4 / PDF 19
762
What form is used for the NCO
Counseling/Checklist Record?
| DA Form 2166-8-1
763
What are some of the uses of an NCOER?
The information in evaluation reports, the Army’s needs, and the individual Soldier’s qualifications
will be used together as a basis for such personnel actions as school selection, promotion,
assignment, military occupational specialty (MOS) classification, command sergeant major (CSM)
designation, and qualitative management.
(AR 623-3 May 2006 / 1-8 / PDF 16)
764
What is a rating scheme?
A rating scheme is the published rating chain of the NCO’s rating officials (rater, senior rater, and
reviewer).
(AR 623-3 May 2006 / Glossary / PDF 116)
765
What forms are used for the NCOER?
* DA 2166-8-1, NCO Counseling Checklist/Record
| * DA 2166-8, NCO Evaluation Report.
766
What is the minimum time period before the initial counseling must be done?
Within the first 30 days of the rating period, effective date of lateral appointment to corporal, or
promotion to sergeant, the rater will conduct the first counseling session with the rated NCO
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 36)
767
The initial counseling is slightly different than future counselings in that it primarily focuses
on what areas?
Communicating performance standards to the rated NCO. It should specifically let the rated NCO
know what is expected during the rating period. The rater shows the rated NCO the rating chain
and a complete duty description, discusses the meaning of the values and responsibilities
contained on the NCOER, and explains the standards for success.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 36)
768
Who is the last individual to sign the NCOER?
The rated NCO
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 3-37 / PDF 45
769
Does the rated NCOs signature mean that the rated NCO approve of the bullets / comment on
the NCOER?
No, The rated Soldier’s signature will only verify the accuracy of the administrative data in Part I,
to include nonrated time; the rating officials in Part II; the APFT and height and weight data; and
that the rated Soldier has seen the completed report.
(AR 623-3 May 2006 / 3-37 / PDF 45)
770
Are NCOERs required for POWs?
No
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 3-27 / PDF 42
771
What are the parts of the NCOER?
Part I. Administrative Data
Part II. Authentication
Part III. Duty Description
Part IV. Army Values/ NCO Responsibilities
Part V. Overall Performance and Potential.
(DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 3-4 / PDF 43)
772
What is the minimum period of time for the reviewer?
None, there is no minimum time required
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 3-8 / PDF 22
773
Are handwritten comments allowed on the NCOER?
No
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 3-22 / PDF 41
774
Will any references be made in an NCOER to an incomplete investigation (formal or informal)
concerning a Soldier?
No
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 3-23 / PDF 41
775
Rating an NCO's fears, inner feelings, enthusiasm, and overall confidence falls into which
Values/NCO Responsibility block?
Physical Fitness/Military Bearing
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / Glossary / PDF 103
776
Is the use of the 2166-8-1 mandatory for counseling all NCOs in the ranks of CPL through
CSM?
Yes.
| DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 3-1 / PDF 36
777
Who receives an NCOER?
All NCOs
| DA PAM 623-3 May 2006 / 3-2 / PDF 40
778
What annotation will be made on the NCOER for a NCO's performance as a member of a Court
Martial?
None
| AR 623-3 May 2006 / 3-30 / PDF 43
779
What NCOER is used upon the removal of an NCO from a ratable assignment based on the
decision by a member of the NCO's chain of command?
Relief-for-cause
780
What regulation prescribes the policy and procedures governing enlisted promotions and
reductions?
AR 600-8-19, Enlisted Promotions and Reductions
781
What should you look for when recommending an individual for promotion?
Overall performance, attitude, leadership ability, and development potential.
782
What is meant by "inefficiency"?
A demonstration of characteristics that shows that a person cannot perform duties and
responsibilities of the grade and MOS.
783
What must be done for soldiers (SGT and below) who meet advancement or promotion
eligibility, without waiver, but are not recommended for promotion?
The soldier should be counseled. This counseling should be directed towards those areas in
which the soldier needs to improve in order to qualify for the next higher grade.
784
What is the purpose of the secondary zone?
The secondary zone (SZ) provides incentives to those who strive for excellence and whose
accomplishments demonstrated capacity for leadership, and marked potential warrant promotion
ahead of their peers.
785
Name five reasons that a soldier may be administratively reduced.
1. Erroneous enlistment grade
2. Misconduct
3. Inefficiency
4. Approve for discharge from service Under Other Than Honorable conditions
5. Failure to complete training (I.e., OCS, Flight School)
786
What are the three different ways that a soldier may be reduced for misconduct?
1. By Article 15
2. By Court Martial
3. Conviction by a civil court
787
What are the normal TIS and TIG requirements for promotion to PFC?
* TIS: 12 months
| * TIG: 4 months
788
What are the normal TIS and TIG requirements for promotion to SPC?
* TIS: 24 months
| * TIG: 4 months
789
What are the objectives of the Army promotion system?
• Fill requirements with the best-qualified soldiers
• Provide an equitable and just system that will objectively consider all qualified soldiers
• Recognize the best qualified soldier and thereby attract and retain the highest caliber solder for a
career in the Army
790
What is the maximum number of waivers that may be requested when recommending a soldier
for promotion?
Two
791
Who has the authority to administratively reduce soldiers in the grades E-2 through E-9?
* E4 and below: Company Commander or higher
* E5 - E6: Battalion Commander (O-5 or higher)
* E7 - E9: Brigade Commander (O-6 or higher)
792
What are the three levels of promotion?
1. Unit level
2. Semi-centralized
3. DA centralized
793
Promotion to SGT/SSG represents what level of promotion?
Semi-centralized
794
An administrative reevaluation may be requested at any time for soldiers who believe they
have increased their latest promotion score by __ or more points.
20
795
How many "zones" are there for promotion to SGT and SSG?
Two;
1. Primary zone (PZ)
2. Secondary zone (SZ)
796
In the event that you have 20 or more points to add, when are you eligible for promotion using
the new points?
On the first day of the third month following the date your request for reevaluation was received at
the PSC.
797
What are the TIS and TIG requirements for promotion to SGT?
* Time in service: 36 months (PZ); 18 months (SZ)
| * Time in grade: 8 months (PZ); 4 months (SZ)
798
What are the TIS and TIG requirements for promotion to SSG?
* Time in service: 84 months (PZ); 48 months (SZ)
| * Time in grade: 10 months (PZ); 5 months (SZ)
799
Who has the authority to promote soldiers in the grades E2 through E9?
• E4 and below: Unit Commander
• E5 - E6: Battalion Commander (O-5 or higher)
• E7 - E9: The commanders of an Army Command (ARCOM)/General Officer Command
(GOCOM)/Reserve Support Command (RSC), and a Commanding General of a command
outside the OCONUS.
800
What is a "total" reevaluation?
A total reevaluation includes the entire process - from the commander's recommendation to the
promotion board and administrative points.
801
What is the time requirement for board appearance for both the SGT and SSG board as of the first day of the board month?
(AR 600-8-19, Table 3-3)
• SGT Board "Primary Zone" - 34 months TIS and 6 months TIMIG.
• SGT Board "Secondary Zone" - 16 months TIS and 4 months TIMIG.
• SSG Board "Primary Zone" - 82 months TIS and 8 months TIMIG.
• SSG Board "Secondary Zone" - 46 months TIS and 5 months TIMIG.
802
When may a soldier request a total reevaluation?
6 months after the latest board appearance, reevaluation or recomputation
803
When is a soldier promoted to PV2?
When they complete 6 months of active Federal Service, unless the commander stops it.
804
What are the two types of promotion point reevaluations?
Administrative and total
805
What is the composition of a promotion board?
There must be at least three voting members and a recorder without a vote.
806
What are the three types of promotion point worksheets?
1. Initial
2. Reevaluation
3. Recomputation.
807
What is the NCOES requirement for promotion to SGM? SFC? SSG? SGT?
* SGM: Must be a graduate of ANCOC
* SFC: Must be a graduate of BNCOC
* SSG: Must be a graduate of PLDC
* SGT: Must be a graduate of None
808
Who sits on a promotion board?
The board may be comprised of all officers, all noncommissioned officers or mixed. In all cases,
members must be senior in grade to those being considered for promotion.
809
What is DA Form 3355?
DA Form 3355 is the promotion point worksheet, which must be completed when appearing
before promotion boards, re-computation or reevaluating promotion points.
810
Soldiers are required to have their promotion points recomputed at least how often?
Once per year.
811
Who is the president of the promotion board?
The senior member of the board.
812
When should soldiers be recommended for promotion?
Only after they develop the skills and abilities necessary to perform the duties and responsibilities
of the next higher grade.
813
What is the maximum number of points possible on the Promotion Point Worksheet (DA Form
3355)?
800 points
814
What Army Regulation covers leaves and passes?
AR 600-8-10
815
Can a three day pass be given during the normal duty week such as Tuesday through and
Thursday?
Yes
816
What is the difference between an accrued leave and an advanced leave?
Accrued leave is a leave earned and advanced leave is granted prior to actual accrual of leave
time
817
What is a DA Form 31
Request and authority for leave (A Leave Form)
818
Is a pass a right or a privilege?
A pass is a individuals privilege (not a right) awarded to deserving soldiers by their commanders
819
What is the Form DA Form 4179R?
Leave Control Log
820
What does the term "terminal leave" mean?
Leave in conjunction with termination of service
821
How many days are soldiers allowed to take leave after pregnancy and childbirth?
42 Days
822
In reference to the above question: If a soldier voluntarily decides to return to work after less
than 42 days of leave, what must happen?
A physician must approve
823
What is the difference between an annual (ordinary) leave and a convalescent leave?
An annual is charged against a Soldier’s leave account and a convalescent leave is not, because
it is part of the treatment prescribed.
824
Can a pass be taken in conjunction with a leave?
No
825
Is administrative absence chargeable as leave?
No
826
What is the maximum number of days which may be taken for a "Reenlistment Leave?"
90 days, provided advance leave does exceed 30 days
827
When is, or for what reason is, an administrative absence authorized?
To attend or participate in activities of semi-official nature to the benefit of the Department of the
Army (DA)
828
Can a four day pass be obtained during the week such as Monday through Thursday?
No. A four day pass must include two non-duty days
829
When is emergency leave authorized?
Emergency leave is granted to soldiers for an emergency within his immediate family
830
Is emergency leave a nonchargeable leave?
No, emergency leave is a chargeable leave granted for a personal or family emergency requiring
the soldier's presence.
831
Who pays for emergency leave air transportation?
The soldier's commander pays IAW Army budget procedures.
832
Is emergency leave transportation authorized to the soldier's emergency location?
No, emergency leave is authorized to the first Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD) closest to the
emergency location
833
Who is the approval authority for PTDY?
The installation or equivalent commander is the approval authority for PTDY
834
```
Is a Soldier authorized PTDY under the Transitional Assistance Program at Permanent Change
of Station (PCS)?
```
No, soldiers being reassigned because of PCS are authorized 10 days PTDY (IAW AR 600-8-10,
Chapter 5, paragraph 5-32f.)
835
Can PTDY be taken in combination with ordinary leave?
No, soldiers may not use PTDY in combination with ordinary leave. The soldier must complete a
duty day between the two periods of leave.
836
What AR covers military justice?
AR 27-10
837
Does a person have to accept an article 15?
No, he or she has the right to demand a trial by court martial
838
What kind of extra duty is an NCO given by an article 15?
Supervisory duty only
839
What is the UCMJ?
Uniform Code of Military Justice (the statute that prescribes criminal law for soldiers)
840
How many articles are there in the UCMJ?
There are 146 Articles in the UCMJ. There are also sub-articles which total 12, nested within the
UCMJ such as the following example: Article 106 deals with "Spies", but Article 106a Deals with
"Espionage". It would be more accurate to state a total of 158 Articles in the UCMJ (The 146
Articles + 12 Sub-articles = 158)
841
When was the UCMJ enacted?
1950, congress enacted the UCMJ, which was based upon and replaced the Articles of War,
which had been around in various forms since 1775
842
What is a Field Grade Article 15?
An article 15 imposed by an O4 or above
843
Who may impose an article 15?
Any commanding officer, including a warrant officer exercising command
844
What does the UCMJ establish?
It declares what conduct is a crime, establishes the various types of courts and sets forth the
basic procedures to be followed in the administration of military justice.
845
What are the three classifications of article 15s?
1. Summarized
2. Company grade
3. Field grade
846
What form is used to record Summarized Article 15 proceedings?
DA Form 2627-1
847
What are articles 77 through 134 of the UCMJ known as?
Punitive Articles
848
What are 3 types of Court martial?
1. Summary
2. Special
3. General
849
What are the maximum punishments that company commanders may impose?
* 14 Days extra duty
* 14 Days restriction
* 7 Days correctional custody (E3 and below)
* 7 Days forfeiture of pay
* 1 Grade Reduction for E4 and below
* Oral or written letter of reprimand
850
Who is the highest military court?
The court of military appeals
851
Under what article is Non-judicial punishment imposed?
Article 15
852
Who makes up the court of military appeals?
The Court was originally composed of three civilian judges appointed by the President of the
United States for a normal term of 15 years and confirmed by the Senate of the United States.
However, effective October 1, 1990, Congress increased the membership on this Federal Court
to five civilian judges, maintaining the original appointment and confirmation process. Except for
ceremonial sessions and special hearing sessions held in various sections of the United States,
the Court sits only in Washington, D.C.
853
What is one circumstance when a soldier does not have the right to refuse an Article 15 and
demand trial by court martial?
When aboard a ship
854
What rights are given to a Soldier under Article 31?
The rights given to a Soldier under Article 31 are: the right to remain silent, the right to demand
trial, and the right to an attorney
855
When was the Code Of Conduct established?
17 august 1955 under the Eisenhower Administration
856
What Army Regulation covers the Code Of Conduct?
AR 350-30
857
If you were to become a prisoner of war (POW), what information would you be required to
give?
* Name, Rank
* Service Number
* Date of Birth
858
Which article of the Code pertains to escape and evasion?
Article 3 of the COC
859
When was the COC Amended?
May 1988
860
How many articles are in the COC?
6
861
What is the first sentence Article 1?
"I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life."
862
What should prisoners be searched for?
Hidden weapons and documents of intelligence value
863
Does the COC apply to soldiers held by terrorists during peacetime?
Yes
864
What is the main purpose of the Geneva Convention?
It provides rules that prisoners of war must be treated humanely. Specifically forbidden are
violence to life and person, cruel treatment and torture, outrages on personal dignity (in particular,
humiliating and degrading treatment)
865
Under the Geneva Convention rules, can a person worship as he pleases?
Yes
866
What document supports the COC?
Manual for Courts- Martial under Uniform Code of Military Justice
867
What does SERE stand for?
Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape
868
What was the reason that the COC was developed?
To provide a mental defense for U.S. POWs to use to resist enemy POW management practices
869
Which DA PAM covers the Geneva Convention?
DA PAM 27-1
870
What documents must POWs be allowed to keep upon capture?
They may keep their identity cards and personal papers.
871
What publication governs the rights and obligations for POWs under the Geneva Convention?
DA PAM 27-25
872
How many nations were initially represented at the first drafting of the Geneva Convention?
61 nations
873
There are four (4) international agreements that were written at the same time dealing with the
treatment of POWs. What are they known as?
The Geneva Conventions for the Protection of War Victims.
874
True or False. The United States was the country where the Geneva Convention was written.
False. It was written in Geneva, Switzerland.
875
When did the Geneva Convention come into force for the United States?
February 2, 1955
876
What is the maximum non-judicial punishment that may be imposed upon a POW for minor
offenses?
Up to 30 days confinement, extra duties and deprivation of privileges for similar periods.
877
If no POW of commissioned officer rank is present in a prisoner group, how often and by what
means do prisoners choose their spokesman or representative?
They are chosen by secret ballot every six months.
878
How many articles govern the Geneva Convention in relation to the treatment of POWs?
143 articles
879
```
Name three (3) types of work that junior enlisted prisoners may be forced to perform as
described in the Geneva Convention.
```
* Domestic services.
* Commercial business, arts and crafts.
* Public utility services.
* Transport and handling of stores that are not of military reference.
* Public works and construction
* Industrial work connected with raw materials and manufacturing.
* Agriculture.
* Administration, maintenance and installation of the camp.
880
If captured, who are the only personnel that are not considered POWs?
All medical personnel and chaplains, who serve in or accompany the Armed Forces of the United
States.
881
What is a capture card and what is it used for?
A post card written by a POW informing their next of kin of their whereabouts and state of health.
882
On what date, along with three (3) other international agreements were the Geneva Convention
written?
August 12, 1949
883
As a POW, what is the only information you are required to give?
Your name, age, rank and service number.
884
As POWs, what types of work may noncommissioned officers be required to perform?
Supervisory work, but they may request other kinds of duty.
885
What does the Geneva Convention recognize as the main duty of a POW?
To try to escape or aide others in escaping.
886
What disciplinary action will be enforced if a member of the U.S. Armed Forces deliberately
violates the Geneva Convention?
Trial by Court-Martial under UCMJ.
887
In 1785, a treaty was drafted with the Kingdom of Prussia and is considered the first agreement
concerning wartime. Who was it drafted by and for what reason?
It was drafted by Benjamin Franklin, John Adams and Thomas Jefferson to improve treatment of
POWs.
888
Under the Geneva Convention, who is the only one that may determine whether a person is
entitled to be a POW or not?
A "competent tribunal" of the capturing nation.
889
True or False. POWs are required to salute the enemy camp commander if he is not an officer.
True
890
State the preamble to the U.S. Constitution?
We the people of the United States, in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure
domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure
the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for
the United States of America.
891
How many articles are there in the U.S. Constitution?
7
892
How many amendments are there in the U.S. Constitution?
27
893
How many people signed the U.S. Constitution?
39
894
When was the U.S. Constitution signed?
17 September, 1787.
895
What do each of the articles of the U.S. Constitution cover?
```
Article I – The Legislative Branch
Article II – The Presidency
Article III – The Judiciary
Article IV – The States
Article V – The Amendment Process
Article VI – Legal Status of the Constitution
Article VII. - Ratification
```
896
What year was the first amendment made?
1791
897
What year was the 27th amendment made?
1992.
898
What are the first 10 amendments called?
The Bill of Rights
899
When was the Bill of Rights ratified?
15 December, 1791
900
What are the first 10 amendments?
Amendment 1: Freedom of religion
Amendment 2: Right to bear Arms
Amendment 3: No soldier should be quartered without consent of the Owner
Amendment 4: Right against unreasonable search and seizure
Amendment 5: Right to remain silent
Amendment 6: Right to a speedy and public trial
Amendment 7: Right to Trial by Jury
Amendment 8: Concerns bails, fines and punishments
Amendment 9: Guarantees and reserves the rights of the people
Amendment 10: States, "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor
prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people"
901
What are the three general orders?
1. I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.
2. I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner.
3. I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my
instructions to the Commander of the Relief.
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 9 / PDF 15)
902
What two types of orders can a guard receive?
1. General orders
2. Special orders
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 8 / PDF 15)
903
What are you normally responsible for at your guard post?
Your post and all government property in view
904
What is deadly force?
The power to cause death or severe bodily harm
905
What specifies the time for challenging?
The special orders
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 4 / PDF 19
906
Who is responsible for the instruction, discipline and performance of the guards?
The commander of the guards
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 19 / PDF 30
907
How would you challenge people in a vehicle?
You would challenge the same as if on foot but, make one or all of the individuals dismount the
vehicle if deemed necessary.
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 10 / PDF 20)
908
What are the two words that the countersign consists of?
Challenge and Password
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 2-4 / PDF 11
909
What is the proper use of deadly force?
Only the minimum amount of force necessary to make an apprehension
910
At what position do you hold your rifle while challenging?
Port arms
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 9 / PDF 19
911
What Field Manual covers Guard duty?
FM 22-6
912
What are the two different types of guard mountings?
1. Formal
2. Informal
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 6 / PDF 39)
913
What is your chain of command as a guard?
1. Commander of the relief,
2. Sergeant of the guard
3. Officer of the guard
4. Field officer of the day
5. Commanding officer at the level responsible for the guard mount
914
What type of guard is normally used to protect a unit in a tactical environment?
Exterior guard
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 7 / PDF 14
915
What is F.O.D.?
Field Officer of the Day
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 2 / PDF 9
916
If you sleep on duty, what could your punishment be?
Court Martial
917
What are two types of guard duty?
1. Interior guard
2. Exterior guard
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 5 / PDF 13)
918
What is the normal length of time for a field officer of the day?
24 hrs
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 17 / PDF 28
919
How long will a guard normally stay at his post?
2 to 4 hours
920
Who is normally in charge of establishing the special orders for guard posts?
The Post Commander
921
Does a guard salute indoors?
Yes
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 10 / PDF 18
922
When are guards not required to salute?
No salute is given by a guard who is engaged in a specific duty, the performance of which
prevents saluting.
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 10 / PDF 19)
923
What are three examples of exterior guard?
1. Lookouts
2. Listening posts
3. Outposts
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 7 / PDF 14)
924
What are the duties of a guard?
They must memorize, understand, and comply with the general orders for guards. In addition,
guards must understand and comply with special orders applying to their particular posts,
including the use of the countersign and parole word, if they are in effect.
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 23 / PDF 36)
925
What is a parole word?
The parole (word) is used to check on the countersign when inspecting guards. Any person in
time of war who discloses the parole word or countersign to any person not entitled to receive it,
shall be punished by death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct (Article 101,
Uniform Code of Military Justice).
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 87 / PDF 92)
926
What do special orders define?
Exactly what a guard must do in a particular post
| FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 8 / PDF 15
927
What is supernumerary?
An extra member of the guard who is used when needed to replace a guard or to perform special
duties as prescribed by local directives.
(FM 22-6 Sept 1971 / 4 / PDF 9)
928
What date was the Army flag dedicated?
14 June 1956 (it was approved 12 June 1956)
929
What is the oldest part of our Army?
The Army National Guard (In December 1636, the Massachusetts Bay Colony organized
America’s first militia regiments, some of which still serve today in the Army National Guard.)
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-2 / PDF 54)
930
What did the U.S. Army begin?
June 14, 1775
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-8 / PDF 56
931
Who was the first commander in Chief of the Continental Army?
George Washington
932
When was the start of the Revolutionary War?
19 April, 1775
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-7 / PDF 56
933
When was the Declaration of Independence signed?
July 04, 1776
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-7 / PDF 56
934
The Army received it’s first real training from what former Prussian Officer at Valley Forge in
the winter of 1778?
Baron Fredreich von Steuben
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-13 / PDF 59
935
What did Baron Fredriech von Steuben teach the Continental Army at Valley Forge?
He taught the Continental Army:
• A simplified but effective version of the drill formations and movements of European armies.
• Proper care of equipment.
• The use of the bayonet (a weapon in which British superiority had previously been marked).
• He impressed upon officers their responsibility for taking care of the soldiers.
• Taught NCOs how to train and lead those soldiers.
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-13 / PDF 59)
936
On what date did the Revolutionary War officially end with a signing of a peace treaty in Paris?
03 September 1783
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-24 / PDF 61
937
What is the name of the document that originally governed the United States and was later
replaced by the “Constitution”?
The Articles of Confederation
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-25 / PDF 61
938
The nation nearly doubled in 1803 when it purchased a huge expanse of territory from France
in what became known as what?
The Louisiana Purchase
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-29 / PDF 63
939
Who was one of the most prolific writers of the early 19th century and would be the author of
“The Army Regulations of 1821”, the first written regulation by the Army since the publication of
Baron von Steubens “Blue Book”?
General Winfield Scott
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-43 / PDF 65
940
What were some of the areas covered in “The Army Regulations of 1821”.
• The Hand Salute
• How to conduct a march
• How to make a good stew for the company
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-43 / PDF 65)
941
What is the bloodiest war in American history?
The Civil War with the death of over 600,000 Americans on both sides.
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-74 / PDF 73)
942
When and where did the Civil War actually begin?
The Civil War being in April of 1861 when South Carolina militia forces fired on Fort Sumter in
Charleston Harbor.
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-58 / PDF 68)
943
The Union defeat at the First Battle of Bull Run showed the need for more what?
More thorough preparation and for more soldiers.
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-61 / PDF 69
944
President Lincoln’s Emancipation Proclamation on 22 September 1862 freed the slaves in any
areas still under Confederate control as of what date?
01 January 1863.
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-66 / PDF 70
945
Congress authorized the creation of the Medal of Honor on what date?
12 July 1862.
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-67 / PDF 71
946
Who received the first Medal of Honor ever awarded?
Private Jacob Parrott, Company K, 33d Ohio Volunteer Infantry on 25 March 1863
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-67 / PDF 71)
947
The Battle of Gettysburg started on what date?
01 July 1863
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-68 / PDF 71
948
General Lee surrendered his Army on what date, marking the end of the Civil War?
09 april, 1865
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-73 / PDF 73
949
Who was the only female to receive the Medal of Honor?
Dr. Mary E. Walker
950
Congress declared war on Spain on what date?
25 april, 1898
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-79 / PDF 76
951
When did World War I begin?
August 1914
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-85 / PDF 78
952
What event sparked the start of World War I?
A Bosnian separatist murdered the Archduke Francis Ferdinand of Austria-Hungary and his
wife during a visit to Sarajevo.
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-85 / PDF 78)
953
On 23 February 1917 the British turned over to the US Government an intercepted note from
the German foreign minister to the German ambassador in Mexico. In the note were instructions
to offer Mexico an alliance in the event of war with the United States and promising that Mexico
could regain what?
Texas, New Mexico and Arizona
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-85 / PDF 78
954
On what date did President Wilson ask Congress to declare war on Germany?
02 April, 1917
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-86 / PDF 78
955
The Armistice ended the fighting at the 11th hour of the 11th day of the 11th month of 1918. Known for many years as Armistice Day, what is it now called in the United States?
Veteran’s Day
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-86 / PDF 78
956
One result of WW I was the creation of what International body roughly similar to the United Nations of today?
The League of Nations (it was envisioned as a forum where disputes could be settled peacefully)
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-100 / PDF 83)
957
National Defense Act of June 4, 1920 governed the organization and regulation of what until
1950?
The Army
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-101 / PDF 84
958
On what date did the Japanese attack Pearl Harbor?
07 December 1941
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-113 / PDF 87
959
The Women’s Army Corps was created in what year?
1943
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-151 / PDF 102
960
When was D Day?
06 June 1944
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-119 / PDF 89
961
Just after dawn on D Day, the 1st, 4th, and 29th Infantry Divisions assaulted what beaches?
Utah and Omaha
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-119 / PDF 89
962
President Truman authorized the use of two atomic bombs against Japan, destroying
Hiroshima and Nagasaki on what dates?
Hiroshima – 06 August 1945
Nagasaki – 09 August 1945
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-130 / PDF 93)
963
The National Security Act of 1947 was a sweeping reorganization of the US military. What did it
establish?
```
• Department of Defense
• Army
• Navy
• Air Force
(FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-133 / PDF 95)
```
964
What year marked the start of the Korean War?
1950
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-136 / PDF 96
965
In early of what year did President Johnson begin a process of escalation that put 184,000
American troops in South Vietnam by year’s end?
1965
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-144 / PDF 99
966
What is the longest war in U.S. History?
The Vietnam War
967
In early of what year did President Johnson begin a process of escalation that put 184,000
American troops in South Vietnam by year’s end?
1965
968
After a U.S. Marine was shot in 1989 in Panama, what Operation was launched?
Operation Just Cause
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-157 / PDF 104
969
General H. Norman Schwarzkopf and his Saudi counterpart sent their multinational ground
forces across the border into Iraq in what in late February of what year?
1991
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-159 / PDF 106
970
On what date did the United States enormous support from the global community, respond to
the attacks on September 11th, 2001 with attacks on the al-Qaeda network and the Taliban-
controlled government of Afghanistan that was supporting it?
07 October, 2001
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-166 / PDF 107
971
With a coalition that included Great Britain, Australia, Poland and 44 other nations, the United
States began offensive military operations to remove Saddam Hussein from power and liberate
Iraq on what date?
20 March 2003
| FM 7-21.13 Feb 2004 / 2-169 / PDF 109
972
When was Saddam Husein captured?
13 December 2003
973
What Army regulation covers Salutes, honors and visits of courtesy?
AR 600-25
974
Salutes are not required to be rendered or returned when the senior or subordinate, or both are
what?
• In civilian attire.
• Engaged in routine work if the salute would interfere.
• Carrying articles with both hands so occupied as to make saluting impracticable.
• Working as a member of a detail, or engaged in sports or social functions where saluting would
present a safety hazard.
• In public places such as theaters, churches, and in public conveyances.
• In the ranks of a formation.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 1-5 / PDF 8)
975
When do you salute inside a building?
* When reporting to your commander
* When reporting to a pay officer
* When reporting to a military board
* At an indoor ceremony
* At sentry duty indoors
976
What is the origin of the Salute?
The origin of the Hand Salute is uncertain. Some historians believe it began in late Roman times
when assassinations were common. A citizen who wanted to see a public official had to approach
with his right hand raised to show that he did not hold a weapon. Knights in armor raised visors
with the right hand when meeting a comrade. This practice gradually became a way of showing
respect and, in early American history, sometimes involved removing the hat. By 1820, the
motion was modified to touching the hat, and since then it has become the Hand Salute used
today.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / App A / PDF 201)
977
Can you salute as a prisoner?
No, you have lost the right to salute
978
What is the proper process for reporting to an Officer indoors?
When reporting to an officer in his office, the soldier removes his headgear, knocks, and enters
when told to do so. He approaches within two steps of the officer’s desk, halts, salutes, and
reports, “Sir (Ma’am), Private Jones reports.” The salute is held until the report is completed and
the salute has been returned by the officer. When the business is completed, the soldier salutes,
holds the salute until it has been returned, executes the appropriate facing movement, and
departs. When reporting indoors under arms, the procedure is the same except that the headgear
is not removed and the soldier renders the salute prescribed for the weapon with which he is
armed.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / A-2 / PDF 201)
979
What is the proper process for reporting to an Officer outdoors?
When reporting outdoors, the soldier moves rapidly toward the officer, halts approximately three
steps from the officer, salutes, and reports (as when indoors). When the soldier is dismissed by
the officer, salutes are again exchanged. If under arms, the soldier carries the weapon in the
manner prescribed for saluting..
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / A-3 / PDF 202)
980
Enlisted members generally do not exchange salutes, what are some examples of when they
would exchange salutes?
* When rendering reports in formation
| * When reporting to an enlisted president of a board
981
On what command would you salute while in formation?
Individuals in formation do not salute or return salutes except at the command Present, ARMS.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / A-5 / PDF 202)
982
Is the recipient of the Medal of Honor (Enlisted or Commissioned) entitled to a salute ?
Yes
983
Where do you walk when walking with someone that is senior to you?
On the senior person's left
984
When meeting an officer in the open, how far away should you be before rendering the hand
salute?
Approximately 6 paces when our paths will bring you close by, or within speaking distance when
making eye contact.
985
Who salutes in a group of soldiers not in formation?
The first person to see the officer should call the group to attention and everyone should salute
986
When a President or Former President of the U.S. arrives and leaves an army installation, how
many gun salute do they get?
21 gun salute, both times
| AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 2-3 / PDF 11
987
When lowering the flag (retreat) the flag is folded (cocked hat) and treated as a cased color. Do
persons meeting the flag detail salute the flag?
No. Once the flag has been folded (cocked hat), it is treated as a cased Color and not saluted by
persons meeting the flag detail. The flag will be treated with the utmost dignity and respect but
not be rendered any sort of honors.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / K-2 / PDF 277)
988
Who will set the time of sounding reveille and retreat?
Installation Commanders
| AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-1 / PDF 12
989
During the sounding of reveille, when is the flag hoisted?
On the first note of reveille
| AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-1 / PDF 12
990
At the last note of retreat, what will happen?
a gun will be fired (if available) on military installations, followed by the playing of the national
anthem or sound of “To The Color” (using a drum and bugle corps, a bugler, or recorded music)
concurrent with the lowering of the flag. The flag will be lowered to ensure completion at the last
note of the music. The same respect will be observed by all military personnel whether the
national anthem is played or "To the Color" is sounded.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-1 / PDF 12)
991
When foreign soldiers are invited by U.S. forces to participate in parades, where will they be
positioned?
they will be assigned a position of honor ahead of U.S. soldiers. As a special compliment, a small
escort of honor composed of U.S. soldiers will precede the foreign soldiers.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-3 / PDF 13)
992
What is the official song of the U.S. Army?
“The Army Goes Rolling Along”
| AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-5 / PDF 14
993
When was “The Army Goes Rolling Along” dedicated by the Secretary of the Army?
Veterans Day, 11 November 1956, and officially announced on 12 December 1957
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-5 / PDF 14)
994
During the playing of the Army Song, how will individuals stand?
They will stand at attention and sing the lyrics of the Army Song when played.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-5 / PDF 14)
995
The Army Song is always played at the conclusion of what events?
• Reviews
• Parades
• Honor Guard Ceremonies.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 3-5 / PDF 14)
996
What is it customary for all Officers of a unit, organization or installation to do on New Year’s
Day?
Call upon the commanding officer on New Year’s Day. The commander may designate a
convenient hour and place for receiving such visits or omit the visit if desired. Commanders may
exercise the option to have such visits take place on a day other than New Year’s Day if deemed
more practical.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 4-4 / PDF 14)
997
What personnel are included in Full Military Funeral Honors?
9–member team (6 pallbearers and/or firing party, a chaplain, and officer and/or NCO in charge,
and a bugler (if available)). The team serves as pallbearers and the firing party, folds and
presents the American flag to the next of kin, and plays “Taps.” A member of the decedent’s
parent military Service will present the flag.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / 6-15 / PDF 18)
998
Where do you walk when walking with someone that is senior to you?
On the senior person's left
999
When meeting an officer in the open, how far away should you be before rendering the hand
salute?
Approximately 6 paces when our paths will bring you close by, or within speaking distance when
making eye contact.
1000
Who exits a military vehicle first?
The senior person, then in ascending order
1001
What is the only time that you do not remove your headgear when reporting to an officer
indoors?
When under arms
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / A-2 / PDF 201
1002
When are you considered to be under arms?
When you are carrying a weapon in your hand, by sling or by holster
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / A-2 / PDF 202)
1003
How long is the call "to the color"
40 seconds
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / K-2 / PDF 276
1004
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in uniform and in
formation either with or without headgear?
Execute "Present Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. Execute "Order Arms" at
the command of officer or NCO in charge.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / C-3 / PDF 26)
1005
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in uniform and not
in formation either with or without headgear?
At the first note of music, face flag and render hand salute (if flag is not in view, face direction of
music).
End salute on last note of music.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / C-3 / PDF 26)
1006
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Retreat and To the Color if they are in
uniform and in formation either with or without headgear?
1. At the first note of Retreat, execute "Parade Rest" at the command of the officer or NCO in
charge. Remain at Parade Rest until given "Attention" by officer or NCO in charge.
2. At the first note of To the Color, execute "Present Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in
charge. Execute "Order Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / C-3 / PDF 26)
1007
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Retreat and To the Color if they are in
uniform and not in formation either with or without headgear?
1. At the first note of Retreat, face flag and stand at attention (if flag is not in view, face direction of
music). Remain at attention until last note of "TO THE COLOR" has been played.
2. At the first note of To the Color: If outdoors, render hand salute; if indoors, stand at attention.
Hold this position until the last note of music has been played.
(AR 600-25 Sept 2004 / C-3 / PDF 26)
1008
What are the three marching steps used in drill?
1. 15in step
2. 30in step
3. 30in step, DOUBLE TIME 180 steps per minute
1009
What FM covers Drill and Ceremony?
FM 3-21.5
1010
What is a review?
A military ceremony used to:
• Honor a visiting, high-ranking commander, official, or dignitary, and or permit them to observe the
state of training of a command.
• Present decorations and awards.
• Honor or recognize unit or individual achievements.
• Commemorate events.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 10-2 / PDF 123)
1011
What are two prescribed formations for platoons?
1. line
2. column
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 7 / PDF 73)
1012
What is the primary purpose of drill (drill and ceremony)?
The purpose of drill is to enable a commander or noncommissioned officer to move his unit from
one place to another in an orderly manner; to aid in disciplinary training by instilling habits of
precision and response to the leader’s orders; and to provide for the development of all soldiers in
the practice of commanding troops.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 1 / PDF 13)
1013
What are the 4 rest positions that can be given at the halt?
1. Parade rest
2. Stand at ease
3. At ease
4. Rest
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 4-2 / PDF 34)
1014
What is the primary value of ceremonies?
To render honors, preserve tradition, and to stimulate Esprit de Corps
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 288)
1015
What is a rank?
A line, which is only one element in depth
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 289
1016
What foot is your leading foot?
Your left foot
1017
What is the only command given from “Inspection Arms”?
“Ready, Port, Arms”
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 5-1 / PDF 46
1018
What is an element?
An individual, squad, section, platoon, company or larger unit forming part of the next higher unit
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 288)
1019
When marching, who is the only person in a platoon that is never out of step?
The platoon guide is the person responsible for maintaining the prescribed direction and rate of
march.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 288)
1020
What is a file?
A column, which has a front of only one element
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 287
1021
If you were marching a squad, when would you give the command "squad halt"?
When either foot strikes the ground
1022
What is a formation?
The arrangement of elements of a unit in a prescribed manner
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 288
1023
After weapons have been issued to a unit and all other soldiers have fallen in with their
weapons, what is the next command that you should give?
Inspection arms
1024
While passing the colors or while the colors are passing you, when is the hand salute
rendered?
Six paces before and six paces after
1025
How many steps per minute is quick time?
120 steps per minute
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 40
1026
How many steps per minute is double time?
180 steps per minute
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 40
1027
What command is given to reverse the direction of a march?
Rear March
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 4-8 / PDF 40
1028
From what position are all stationary movements given?
Position of attention
1029
On what foot would you give the command "Mark time march"?
On either foot
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 4-11 / PDF 41
1030
What is cover?
Aligning yourself directly behind the man to your immediate front, while maintaining correct
distance
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 288)
1031
How do you measure a "step”?
Heel to heel
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 289
1032
What is depth?
The space from front to rear of a formation including front and rear elements
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 288)
1033
What is the interval between the preparatory command and the command of execution?
1 step or 1 count
1034
What are the two parts of most drill command?
1. Preparatory command
| 2. Command of execution
1035
How many steps does each rank take when a platoon is given the command of Open Ranks?
On the command "March", The first rank takes two steps forward, the second rank takes one step
forward, the third rank stands fast and the fourth rank take two 15 inch steps to the rear
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 7-16 / PDF 87)
1036
What are the 5 types of commands in a drill?
1. Two part
2. Combined
3. Supplementing
4. Directive
1037
What position is the unit guidon once a preparatory command is given?
The raised vertical position
1038
What are some examples of a combined command?
• At ease
• Fall in
• Rest
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 3-3 / PDF 28)
1039
Define Cadence
The uniform rhythm in which a movement is executed, or the number of steps or counts per
minute at which a movement is executed. Drill movements are normally executed at the cadence
of quick time or double time. Quick time is the cadence of 120 counts or steps per minute; double
time is the cadence of 180 counts or steps per minute.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 288)
1040
What is Close Interval?
The lateral space between soldiers, measured from right to left by the soldier on the right placing
the heel of his left hand on his hip, even with the top of the belt line, fingers and thumb joined and
extended downward, with his elbow in line with the body and touching the arm of the soldier to his
left.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 289)
1041
What is Double Interval?
The lateral space between soldiers, measured from right to left by raising both arms shoulder
high with the fingers extended and joined (palms down) so that fingertips are touching the
fingertips of the soldiers to the right and to the left.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 289)
1042
What is Normal Interval?
The lateral space between soldiers, measured from right to left by the soldier on the right holding
his left arm shoulder high, fingers and thumb extended and joined, with the tip of his middle finger
touching the right shoulder of the soldier to his left.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / Glossary / PDF 289)
1043
What command is given to revoke a preparatory command?
As You Were
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 27
1044
Who is responsible for training and appearance of the color guard?
The CSM
1045
What is a Guidon?
A guidon is a swallow-tailed flag carried by companies, batteries, troops, and certain
detachments.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / K-4 / PDF 280)
1046
When executing a Rear March, on which foot do you pivot?
Both feet, turning 180 degrees to the right
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 4-8 / PDF 40
1047
What are the three methods used to teach Drill?
1. Step by step
2. By the numbers
3. Talk-through method
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 2 / PDF 17)
1048
What 4 movements in marching require a 15-inch step?
1. Half step
2. Left step
3. Right step
4. Backward march
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 4-10 / PDF 41)
1049
How many steps should separate platoons when a company is formed?
5 steps
1050
What is the only command that can be given from Inspection Arms, when performing drill with
the M16?
Ready, Port Arms
| FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 5-1 / PDF 46
1051
What is the "Blue Book"?
A drill manual used by Baron Von Steuben (a former Prussian officer) to train the colonial army. It
preceded the FM 3-21.5. It was known as "The regulations for the Order and Discipline of the
Troops of the United States". This book was the first Army Field Manual
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / 1-1 / PDF 14)
1052
Can a command be changed after the command of execution has been given?
No
1053
How far in front of the Honor Company or color company do the colors halt?
Ten steps
1054
On post, where is building number 1 located?
At the base of the flag pole
1055
Other than Garrison, Post, Field, Storm and Internment flags, name the other types of military
flags.
• Colors - These are flags of organizations and certain civilian and military officials.
• Standards - Flags of mounted units were formerly called standards.
• Distinguished flags - These flags identify headquarters, offices, general officers, and
organizations, none of which is authorized organizational or individual Colors.
• Ensigns - An ensign is a rectangular flag flown from aircraft, ships, and boats.
• Guidons -A guidon is a swallow-tailed flag carried by companies, batteries, troops, and certain
detachments.
• Pennants - A pennant is a triangular flag used for various utility purposes.
(FM 3-21.5 July 2003 / K-4 / PDF 280)
1056
How is the flag flown on Memorial Day?
At half-mast till noon, then from noon until retreat sounds, it is at full staff
1057
When the flag is flown at night, what must be done?
It must be illuminated
1058
What date was the Army flag dedicated?
14 June 1956 (it was approved 12 June 1956)
1059
When a President or Past President dies, how long is the flag flown at half-mast?
30 days
1060
How is the flag draped over the casket?
So the stars are over the left shoulder
1061
How many stripes does the American flag have?
13 stripes (7 red and 6 white)
1062
What is the difference between the National Colors and the National Flag?
The National Colors is trimmed on 3 sides with golden yellow fringe
1063
What do the colors on the flag represent?
* Red-Hardiness and Valor
* White-Purity and Innocence
* Blue- Vigilance, Preservation and Justice
1064
When Military personnel die, the flag is presented to the beneficiary, who provides the flag?
The postmaster general
1065
When the national flag is worn out, how is it disposed of?
The section of the flag with the stars is cut from the flag and then both pieces are burned together
1066
What are the 2 ways that the flag can be displayed?
1. Flat
2. Hanging free
(AR 840-10 Nov 1998 / 2-5 / PDF 14)
1067
Who is traditionally responsible for the safeguarding, care and display of the unit's colors?
The Command Sergeant Major
1068
How is the American flag raised to the half-staff position?
It is first raised all the way to the top of the staff for an instant, then lowered to half staff
1069
If a flag is in the half-staff position, how is it lowered?
It is first raised to the top of the staff for a brief moment, and then it is lowered.
1070
When folded, what is the shape of the American flag?
The shape like that of a cocked hat
| AR 840-10 Nov 1998 / 2-1 / PDF 14
1071
What does the Hoist and Fly of a flag mean?
The Hoist is the width of a flag (vertical edge measured from top to bottom); the Fly is the length
of the flag (horizontal edge, measured from left to right)
1072
What Army Regulation governs the raising and the lowering of the Flag?
AR 600-25 and AR 840-10
1073
What are the two bugle calls played at Retreat?
"Retreat" and "To The Color"
1074
What are some places that the flag is flown 24 hours a day by specific legal authority as of
January 1966?
* US Capitol in Washington, DC
* Fort McHenry National Monument, Flag House Square in Baltimore, MD
* Francis Scott Keys Grave
* The World War Memorial in Worcester, Massachusetts
1075
Are the colors ever dipped as a salute or compliment?
Never on land, only at sea when 2 friendly ships of war meet
1076
Name the 3 types of flags normally flown and their sizes
• Storm- 5ft x 9 and 1/2 ft
• Post- 8ft 11 3/8 inches x 17 ft
• Garrison- 20 ft x 38 ft
(AR 840-10 Nov 1998 / 2-3 / PDF 12)
1077
What are the 5 basic US flags used by the Army?
```
• Garrison
• Post
• Field
• Storm
• Interment
(AR 840-10 Nov 1998 / 2-3 / PDF 12)
```
1078
When a new state enters the Union, when is the star added to the flag?
The following 4th of July
1079
Approximately how long is “to the color”?
40 seconds in duration
1080
How many National colors can be present during a review, parade, or honor guard ceremony?
1
1081
What is the height of a flagpole?
50, 60, or 75 ft
1082
What are the dimensions of the campaign streamers displayed on the Army Flag?
2 and 3⁄4 inches wide and 4 feet long
1083
What can be found on all but the last three campaign streamers displayed on the Army flag?
The date of action. (Dates have traditionally been embroidered on Army flag campaign
streamers, but since these new streamers will be displayed before the end of hostilities they will
not include dates)
1084
With the addition of the three most recent campaign streamers, what is the total number of
campaign streamers displayed on the Army Flag?
178
1085
What will be embroidered on the three most recent campaign streamers?
• “Afghanistan” - For service in Afghanistan, under the criteria established for the Afghanistan
Campaign Medal, units will receive and display a streamer embroidered “AFGHANISTAN.” Each
unit that has served in Afghanistan will be recognized with only one campaign streamer,
regardless of the number of deployments or operational rotations it has made.
• “Iraq” - For service in Iraq, under the criteria established for the Iraq Campaign Medal, units will
display a streamer embroidered “IRAQ.” Each unit that has served in Iraq will be recognized with
only one campaign streamer regardless of the number of deployments or operational rotations to
the country of Iraq.
• “Global War on Terrorism” - In recognition of service in the other geographic regions outside Iraq
and Afghanistan, such as Kuwait, Qatar and the Horn of Africa, units will receive a streamer in the
colors of the Global War on Terrorism Expeditionary Medal. Regardless of the geographic region,
or the number of deployments, units participating in this campaign will receive a single streamer
embroidered “Global War on Terrorism.”
1086
What is the number one principle of peacetime training?
Replicate battlefield conditions
1087
Primarily, there are three methods used to present training. What are they?
1. Demonstration (Most Preferred Method)
2. Conference
3. Lecture (Least Preferred Method)
(FM 7-1 Sept 2003 / 5-19 / PDF 169)
1088
What does effective training require?
Effective training requires the personal time, energy, and guidance of commanders.
1089
What is the Army training standard?
The standard for the Army is to train and maintain to the published standards in Technical
Manuals (TMs) -10 and -20.
1090
When does the greatest combat power result?
```
The greatest combat power results when leaders synchronize combat support (CS) and combat
service support (CSS) systems to compliment and reinforce one another.
```
1091
Once soldiers and units have trained to the standard, how do they maintain proficiency?
They maintain proficiency through sustainment training.
1092
Which FM covers Battle Focused Training?
FM 7-1.
1093
How do commanders determine their units' METLs?
Commanders determine their units' METLs based on war and external directives.
1094
What do leaders use to assess soldier, leader, and unit proficiency?
Leaders use evaluations and other feedback to assess soldier, leader, and unit proficiency.
1095
How should units train during peacetime?
Units should train in peacetime, as they will fight during war. Peacetime training must replicate
battlefield conditions. All training is based on this principle.
1096
The evaluation of collective training is critical to assessing what?
The evaluation of collective training is critical to assessing a unit's capability to perform its METL
tasks.
1097
What is a Battle Roster?
Listing of individuals, crews, or elements that reflects capabilities, proficiencies of critical tasks,
and other information concerning war-fighting capabilities.
(FM 7-1 Sept 2003 / Glossary / PDF 353)
1098
What is a TEWT and where is it conducted?
Tactical Exercise Without Troops. The TEWT is conducted on actual terrain with unit leaders and
staffs, without soldiers. A TEWT allows the battalion TF or company commander to train his staff
and subordinate leaders.
(FM 7-1 Sept 2003 / Glossary / PDF 361)
1099
What must soldiers, leaders, and units be proficient in to perform their missions under
battlefield conditions?
Soldiers, leaders, and units must be proficient in the basic skills required to perform their missions
under battlefield conditions.
(FM 7-1 Sept 2003 / 2-21 / PDF 34)
1100
What is the FCX (Fire Coordination Exercise)?
An exercise that can be conducted at platoon, company/team, or battalion/task force level. It
exercises command and control skills through the integration of all organic weapon systems, as
well as indirect and supporting fires. Weapon densities may be reduced for participating units,
and sub-caliber devices substituted for service ammunition.
(FM 7-1 Sept 2003 / Glossary / PDF 356).
1101
Where may the CPX (Command Post Exercise) be conducted?
The CPX may be conducted in from garrison locations or in between participating headquarters.
(FM 7-1 Sept 2003 / Glossary / PDF 354)
1102
Should all maintenance be on the unit's training schedule?
Yes
1103
What are the ten principles of training?
1. Commanders are responsible for training
2. NCOs train individuals, crews, and small teams.
3. Train as a combined arms and joint team.
4. Train for combat proficiency
• Realistic conditions
• Performance-oriented
5. Train to standard using appropriate doctrine
6. Train to adapt
7. Train to maintain and sustain
8. Train using multi-echelon techniques
9. Train to sustain proficiency
10. Train and develop leaders.
(FM 7-1 Sept 2003 / 2-1 / PDF 23)
1104
What are STXs (Situational Training Exercise)?
STXs are mission-related, limited exercises designed to train one collective task, or a group of
related tasks and drills, through practice.
1105
What drives the M.E.T.L. development process?
Battle focus
1106
What is the AAR?
The AAR is a structured review process that allows training participants to discover for
themselves what happened, why it happened, and how it can be done better.
1107
Where does the CFX (Command Field Exercise) lay?
The CFX lies on a scale between the CPX and the FTX.
1108
What is the next step for the battalion commander once the METL is developed?
Once the METL is developed, the battalion commander briefs his next higher wartime
commander who approves the METL
1109
What is a battle drill?
A battle drill is a collective action rapidly executed without applying a deliberate decision-making
process
1110
Who do AC commanders brief the QTB to?
AC commanders brief the QTB to the commander’s two levels above.
1111
What is the LCX (Logistical Coordination Exercise)?
LCXs allow leaders to become proficient at conducting unit sustainment operations such as
supply, transportation, medical, personnel replacement, maintenance, and graves registration.
1112
How can commanders insure that training is effective?
They must personally observe and assess training at all echelons
1113
What may NCOs use is assessing squad, crew, and soldier proficiency?
NCOs may use a leader book is assessing squad, crew, and soldier proficiency.
1114
What does battle focus drive?
Battle focus drives METL development allowing the commander to narrow the scope of his
training challenge to make it manageable.
1115
What two things does sustainment training do?
1. Trains on tasks, which build on skills mastered by the soldier, leader, and units.
2. Uses opportunity training to constantly hone proficiency on known tasks.
1116
When are FTXs (Field Training Exercise) conducted?
FTXs are conducted under simulated combat conditions in the field.
1117
For noncommissioned officers, who are the key players in the reception and integration
phase?
For noncommissioned officers, the CSM and 1SG are key players in the reception and integration
phase
1118
The CSM and key NCOs review and refine the supporting tasks for two things in each unit.
Name those two things.
1. Each skill level in every MOS within the unit
| 2. CTT
1119
What type of training excites and motivates soldiers and leaders?
Training that is tough, realistic, and mentally and physically challenging.
1120
What does the combat training center program provide?
The combat training center program provides the most realistic environment available for corps
and subordinate units during peacetime.
1121
Why is it particularly important to train and monitor low-density MOS soldiers?
Sometimes their hours are different and they get lost in the shuffle and therefore remain untrained
if not monitored and included in training
1122
The unit leader development program consists of what three phases?
1. Reception and integration
2. Basic skills development
3. Advanced development and sustainment.
1123
Training schedules are developed at what level and approved by whom?
Developed at company level and approved by the battalion commander
1124
Name the four elements of TADSS.
1. Training aids
2. Devices
3. Simulators
4. Simulations.
1125
What does near-term planning define?
Near-term planning defines specific actions requires to execute the short-range plans. It is the
final phase of planning prior to the execution of training.
1126
What four skills does challenging training build?
1. Builds competence and confidence by developing new skills.
2. Instills loyalty and dedication.
3. Inspires excellence by fostering initiative, enthusiasm, and eagerness to learn.
4. Builds aggressive, well-trained soldiers.
1127
What begins the training planning process?
Assessment
1128
What does the basic skills development phase ensure?
The basic skills development phase ensures that the new leader attains a minimum acceptable
level of proficiency in the critical tasks necessary to perform his mission.
1129
What are training aids?
Training aids are items that assist in the conduct of training and the process of learning.
1130
In the military structure, what is the lowest level that has battle tasks?
Battalion level
1131
What does the company commander do after he develops the METL?
He briefs the battalion commander
1132
What do principles of training provide?
The principles provide direction, but are sufficiently flexible to accommodate local conditions and
the judgment of commanders and other leaders
1133
What does the advanced development and sustainment phase involve?
The advanced development and sustainment phase involves sustaining those tasks already
mastered and developing proficiency in new tasks.
1134
What is multi-echelon training?
Multiechelon trainingallows simultaneous training and evaluation on any combination of individual
and collective tasks at more than one echelon. Multiechelon training is the most efficient and
effective way to train and sustain proficiency on mission essential tasks within limited periods of
training time.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-50 / PDF 76)
1135
At battalion level, how does long-range planning start?
At battalion level, long-range planning starts with unit assessment and is the basis for the long-
range training calendar.
1136
What unit is the lowest level to have a METL?
The company.
1137
What is a low density MOS?
A MOS within an organization or unit that is required but applies to a very small amount of
soldiers
1138
What is long-range planning based on?
Long-range planning is based on unit assessment.
1139
Give some examples of training aids.
* Visual modification (VISMOD) sets; for example, BRDM-2 mock-up.
* Graphic training aids (GTAs); for example-
* GTA 10-2-2, Fuel System Supply Point
* GTA 6-5-2, Fire Direction Kit
* GTA 3-6-3, NBC Warning and Reporting System
* Models; for example, inert munitions.
* Displays; for example, 35-millimeter slides on training topics.
* Books; for example, documentation on training aids.
* Pictures to support briefings and presentations.
* Magnetic media; for example, training films.
1140
Why must the entire METL development process be understood by NCOs?
So that NCOs can integrate soldier tasks
1141
What do leaders list in the leader book?
Leaders list in the leader book the common tasks found in the Soldier's Manual of Common
Tasks that support the METL.
1142
Are training meetings negotiable at battalion and company level?
No. Training meetings are non-negotiable at battalion and company level.
1143
What is a crew drill?
A crew drill is a collective action that the crew of a weapon or piece of equipment must perform to
use the weapon or equipment
1144
A leader may use information in the leader book to provide what?
A leader may use information in the leader book to provide input on his unit during daily "huddles"
and company training meetings.
1145
What is risk assessment?
Risk assessment is the thought process of making operations safer without compromising the
mission.
1146
What is band of excellence?
The range of proficiency within which a unit is capable of executing its wartime METL tasks
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-23 / PDF 30)
1147
Commanders select a particular training exercise or combination of exercises based on what?
Commander select a particular training exercise or combination of exercises based on specific
training objectives and on available resources.
1148
Do soldiers have a legal responsibility to attend scheduled training?
Yes
1149
What are training devices?
Training devices are three-dimensional objects that improve training.
1150
What needs to be identified at the appropriate level to support the accomplishment of the units
mission essential tasks?
Leader and soldier tasks must be identified.
1151
What are simulators?
Simulators are a special category of training devices that replicate all or most of a systems
functions.
1152
What is the most difficult task for an AAR leader?
To avoid turning the discussion into a criteria or lecture
1153
When selecting exercises, commanders must consider what key questions?
• Who will be trained (soldiers, leaders, teams, or units)?
• What are the training objectives?
• Which, if any, of the training exercises are most suitable to accomplish each objective?
• What are the available resources (time, training areas, equipment, money)?
• Which of the training exercises or combination will help meets the training objectives within the
available training resources?
1154
What does the battle staff consist of?
The battle staff consists of the battalion staff and battalion slice (CS and CSS elements that are
tasked-organized).
1155
What does the MAPEX portray?
The MAPEX portrays military situations on maps and overlays.
1156
When are informal AARs usually conducted?
Informal AARs are usually conducted for soldiers and crew, squad, and platoon-level training, or
when resources are not available to conduct a formal review.
1157
Give some examples of simulators.
* Conduct-of-fire trainer (COFT); for examples, M2 BFV and M1 Abrams.
* Flight simulators.
* Weaponeer.
* Simulations networking (SIMNET).
1158
What is the battlefield operating systems (BOS)
A tool that the TF commander may use to organize his battle tasks is the battlefield operating
systems (BOS).
1159
What are simulations?
Simulations provide leaders effective training alternatives when maneuver and gunnery training
opportunities are limited.
1160
What are pre-execution checks?
Pre-execution checks are the informal planning and coordination conducted prior to training
execution.
1161
When are formal AARs usually conducted?
Formal AARs are normally conducted at company level and above.
1162
What is training strategy?
The method used to attain desired levels of training proficiency on METL
1163
What are the five basic fundamentals that commanders and leaders must use?
1. Move
2. Shoot
3. Communicate
4. Sustain
5. Secure.
1164
Historically speaking, more casualties occur in combat due to what?
Accidents.
1165
When used properly, simulations can create what?
When used properly, simulations can create the environment and stress of battle needed for
effective command and battle staff training.
1166
Why aren't AARs critiques?
AARs are not critiques because they do not determine success or failure.
1167
What are two keys to success in combat?
Night training and adverse weather training are keys to success in combat.
1168
What does AAR stand for and what does it provide?
After Action Review. An AAR provides feedback to units by involving participants
in the training diagnostic process in order to increase and reinforce learning. The
AAR leader guides participants in identifying deficiencies and seeking solutions.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF – 110)
1169
What are post operation checks?
Tasks a unit accomplishes at the conclusion of training.
1170
What begins the training planning process?
The assessment begins the training planning process.
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-7 / PDF 84
1171
What is lane training?
Lane training is a technique for training primarily company team-level and smaller units on a
series of selected soldier, leader, and collective tasks using specific terrain.
1172
What Army Field Manual is called "Training The Force"?
FM 7-0
1173
What is meant by performance oriented training?
The soldiers learn best by hands on
| (FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-16 / PDF
1174
What is the Army’s number one priority?
Training
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 1-51 / PDF 22
1175
The Army Time Management System is composed of what three phases?
1. Green - Training focus primarily on collective tasks with individual and leader tasks integrated
during multi-echelon training.
2. Amber - Small unit, crew, leader and individual soldier training emphasized.
3. Red - Sub-organizations take advantage of all training opportunities to conduct individual, leader,
and crew training.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-18 / PDF 61)
1176
Training is ______ we do, not ___________ we do.
What, Something
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 1-51 / PDF 22
1177
What is training?
Training is the instruction of personnel to increase their capacity to perform specific military
functions and associated individual collective tasks.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 117)
1178
What is the OPTEMPO of an organization?
The annual operating miles or hours for the major equipment system in a battalion-level or
equivalent organization. Commanders use OPTEMPO to forecast and allocate funds for fuel and
repair parts for training events and programs.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 116)
1179
What are the types of evaluations and their differences?
• Informal – when a leader conducts training with his unit or when a leader visits ongoing training.
This type provides real time feedback on the training environment and the proficiency resulting
from training.
• Formal – are resourced with dedicated evaluators and are generally scheduled in the long-range
or short-range training plans. To the maximum extent, headquarters two echelons higher conduct
formal external evaluations.
• Internal – are planned, resourced, and conducted by the organization undergoing the evaluation.
• External – are planned, resourced , and conducted by a headquarters at an echelon higher in the
chain of command than the organization undergoing the evaluation or a headquarters outside the
chain of command.
• Any Combination of the above listed evaluation types.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 6-5 / PDF 97)
1180
What does realistic training inspire?
It builds competence and confidence by developing and honing skills, and inspires excellence by
fostering initiative, enthusiasm, and eagerness to learn.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-16 / PDF 28)
1181
To accomplish their training responsibility, list three of the six things that commanders must
do.
1. Be present at training to maximum extent possible.
2. Base training on mission requirements.
3. Train to applicable army standards.
4. Assess current levels of efficiency.
5. Provide the required resources.
6. Develop and execute training plans that result in proficient individuals, leaders and units.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-2 / PDF 24)
1182
An AAR is not called what?
Critique
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 6-12 / PDF 98
1183
What is the goal of combat level training?
To achieve combat level standards
1184
What are the three types of training plans?
1. Long-range
2. Short-range
3. Near-term
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-44 / PDF 36)
1185
Who is responsible for maintaining all assigned equipment in a high state of readiness in
support of training or combat employment?
Soldiers and leaders.
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-19 / PDF 29
1186
What does evaluation of training measure?
It measures the demonstrated ability of soldiers, commanders, leaders, battle staffs, and units
against the Army standard.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 6-8 / PDF 98)
1187
What does multiechelon training allow?
It allows simultaneous training and evaluation on any combination of individual and collective
tasks at more than one echelon. It is the most efficient and effective way to train and sustain
proficiency on mission essential tasks within limited periods of training time.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-50 / PDF 76)
1188
What is force integration?
It is the process of incorporating new doctrine, equipment, and force structure into an
organization while simultaneously sustaining the highest possible levels of combat readiness.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 114)
1189
What is battle focus and what does it do?
Battle focus is a concept used to derive peacetime training requirements assigned and
anticipated missions. Battle focus guides the planning, preparation, execution and assessment of
each organization’s training program to ensure its members train as they are going to fight.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-31 / PDF 35)
1190
What does realistic training require?
It requires organizations to train the way they will fight or support within all dimensions of the
battlefield/space.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 5-12 / PDF 90)
1191
What does AAR stand for and what does it provide?
After Action Review. An AAR provides feedback to units by involving participants
in the training diagnostic process in order to increase and reinforce learning. The
AAR leader guides participants in identifying deficiencies and seeking solutions.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 110)
1192
What does the term METL stand for?
Mission Essential Task List
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 115
1193
What are the codes used to rate task proficiency?
• "T" = trained
• "P" = needs practice
• "U" = untrained
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-4 / PDF 54)
1194
What are the five primary inputs to METL development?
1. Wartime operational plans.
2. Enduring combat capabilities.
3. Operational environment.
4. Directed missions.
5. External guidance.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 3-6 / PDF 41)
1195
```
Who stated, "The best form of welfare for the troops is first class training, for this saves
unnecessary casualties"?
```
Field Marshal Erwin Rommel
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 6 / PDF 95
1196
What does MILES stand for?
Multiple Integrated Laser Engagement System
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 107
1197
In regards to preparation for training, what do pre-execution checks cover?
Pre-execution checks are preliminary actions commanders and trainers use to identify
responsibility for selecting tasks to be trained, planning the conduct of the training, training the
trainers, reconnaissance of the training site, issuing the training execution plan, and conducting
rehearsals along other training support tasks.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 5-3 / PDF 88)
1198
List three of the seven things that training plans will do, if they are properly developed.
1. Maintain a consistent battle focus.
2. Be coordinated with habitually task organized supporting organizations.
3. Focus on the correct time horizon.
4. Be concerned with future proficiency.
5. Incorporate risk management into all training plans.
6. Establish organizational stability.
7. Make the most efficient use of resources.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-11 / PDF 57)
1199
What are the four parts that the AAR consists of?
1. Review what was supposed to happen. (Training Plans)
2. Establish what happened.
3. Determine what was right or wrong with what happened.
4. Determine how the task should be done differently the next time.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 6-13 / PDF 98)
1200
Evaluation can be done in what ways.?
1. Informal
2. Formal
3. Internal
4. External
5. A Combination of the above
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 6-5 / PDF 97)
1201
What ten objectives have to be accomplished by senior leaders to help ensure effective
training?
1. Develop and communicate a clear vision
2. Train one echelon below and evaluate two echelons below
3. Require subordinates to understand and perform their roles in training
4. Train all elements to be proficient on their mission essential tasks
5. Develop subordinates
6. Involve themselves personally in planning, preparing, executing, and assessing training
7. Demand training standards are achieved
8. Ensure proper task and event discipline
9. Foster a command climate that is conducive to good training
10. Eliminate training distractions
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-27 / PDF 32)
1202
What does well-structured training contain?
It contains a mixture of initial and sustainment training.
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 5-12 / PDF 90
1203
True or false. Safe training is the predictable result of performing to established tactical and
technical standards.
True
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 5-12 / PDF 90
1204
What is the key requirement for division and brigade commanders in regards to training
resources?
The key requirement is to coordinate short-range training plans with the various resource
processes that support training.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-55 / PDF 79)
1205
What is ITEP?
Individual Training Evaluation Program
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 106
1206
____________ is the range of proficiency within which a unit is capable of executing its
wartime METL tasks.
Band of Excellence
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-23 / PDF 30
1207
Are senior leaders supposed to make on the spot corrections, underwrite honest mistakes, and
demand aggressive action to correct training deficiencies?
Yes
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 6-20 / PDF 100
1208
What are the principal source documents for training and evaluation outlines (T&EOs)?
• MTP
• Soldier Manuals
• Soldier Training Publications
• DA Pamphlet 350-38 (Standards in Weapons Training)
• Deployment or Mobilizations Plans
• Along with various Army, MACOM and Local Regulations.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 3-38 / PDF 50)
1209
```
List four (4) of the many sources of training feedback available to senior leaders.
(There are many more not listed below)
```
• Personal observations of training.
• Assessment and feedback from higher headquarters.
• Staff visit reports.
• Unit status reports
• Training Briefings.
• Local ARTEP evaluations and CTC take-home packages.
• AARs from FTX, gunnery periods, or other major training exercises.
• CTT results.
• APFT scores
• IG general and special inspections.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Fig 6-1 / PDF 97)
1210
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout a
soldier’s and leader’s career?
The Operational, Institutional and Self-Developmental Domains.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 1-20 / PDF 13)
1211
Describe the Operational Domain.
It includes home-station training, combat training center rotations, joint training exercises, and
deployments that satisfy national objectives.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 1-20 / PDF 13)
1212
Describe the Institutional Domain.
It focuses on educating and training soldiers and leaders on the key knowledge, skills and
attributes required to operate in any environment.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 1-20 / PDF 13)
1213
Describe the Self-developmental Domain.
They are structured and informal and focus on taking those actions necessary to reduce or
eliminate the gap between operational and institutional experiences.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 1-20 / PDF 13)
1214
What is the one purpose of Army Training?
To produce competent, confident, and adaptive soldiers, leaders and units, trained and ready to
fight and win our nation’s battles. Training is the Army’s number one priority. Training is WHAT
we do, not SOMETHING we do.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 1-51 / PDF 22)
1215
What is the definition of METL?
A compilation of collective mission essential tasks an organization must perform successfully to
accomplish its wartime mission(s).
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / Glossary / PDF 115)
1216
Why do commanders use a mix of Live, Virtual and Constructive (L-V-C) training?
To achieve and sustain unit proficiency on selected METL tasks and supporting unit and staff
battle tasks within the band of excellence.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 4-29 / PDF 67)
1217
What is the foundation of the training process?
The training management cycle.
| FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-44 / PDF 36
1218
What are the ten principles of training?
1. Commanders are responsible for training
2. NCOs train individuals, crews, and small teams.
3. Train as a combined arms and joint team.
4. Train for combat proficiency
• Realistic conditions
• Performance-oriented
5. Train to standard using appropriate doctrine
6. Train to adapt
7. Train to maintain and sustain
8. Train using multi-echelon techniques
9. Train to sustain proficiency
10. Train and develop leaders.
(FM 7-0 Oct 2002 / 2-1 / PDF 23)
1219
What does the Army Strategic Campaign Plan (ASCP) express?
The Senior Leadership’s intent for how the Army will fulfill its Title 10 obligations to the Joint
Force and the Nation in support of Defense and National Strategies.
1220
What are the ten new strategic imperatives that the Army is introducing to provide the
necessary focus to help guide how the Army organizes, trains and equips it’s forces to ensure
mastery of the full range of military operations and dominance in armed conflict??
1. Implement Transformation Initiatives
2. Improve Capabilities for Homeland Defense
3. Improve Proficiencies Against Irregular Challenges
4. Improve Capabilities for Stability Operations
5. Achieve Army Force Capabilities to Dominate in Complex Terrain
6. Improve Army Capabilities for Strategic Responsiveness
7. Improve Global Force Posture
8. Improve Capabilities for Battle Command
9. Improve Joint Fires Capability
10. Improve Capabilities for Joint Logistics
1221
The Army has two Strategic Objectives, what are they?
* Trained and Equipped Soldiers and Developed Leaders
| * Relevant and Ready Land Power for the Combatant Commander as part of the Joint Team.
1222
According to the Army Strategic Campaign Plan, what is our nation’s highest priority?
Defending the U.S. from attack
1223
Why are the Army Values and Warrior Ethos important?
Because they underpin everything the Army does
1224
Other than being well trained and equipped, recent experience has taught us that Soldiers
must be also be what?
Adaptable and Capable of responding to rapidly changing situations and are attuned to cultural
conditions
1225
In addition to rigorous training in weapons and field craft, Soldiers also require training on
what?
* How to adapt to quickly evolving situations, not just how to react to changes
* How to shape the environment to create the best possible outcomes.
1226
To ensure that Soldiers are trained and equipped to meet the challenges they will face, an
initiative has been undertaken. What is the initiative that will help ensure Soldier’s success by
providing Soldier equipment designed to enhance protection and effectiveness in today’s
challenging environment?
The Rapid Fielding Initiative (RFI)
1227
What is supplemented by the critical capabilities that the DA civilian provides throughout all
phases of a military campaign?
Soldier Skills
1228
Who is responsible for winning wars and the Joint Force that fights them?
The Joint Force Commander
1229
Who has the responsibility to provide the land power that will win the fight and set the
conditions for enduring peace?
The Army
1230
What does the term Joint Interdependence mean?
It is the purposeful reliance on other service and joint capabilities
1231
What does the speed, operational distances, and demands of modern combat operations
require?
Constant, effective and timely logistical support
1232
What is the Field Manual for map reading and land navigation?
FM 3-25.26
1233
What are the basic colors of a map, and what does each color represent?
• Black - Indicates cultural (man-made) features such as buildings and roads, surveyed spot
elevations, and all labels.
• Red-Brown - The colors red and brown are combined to identify cultural features, all relief
features, non-surveyed spot elevations, and elevation, such as contour lines on red-light readable
maps.
• Blue - Identifies hydrography or water features such as lakes, swamps, rivers, and drainage.
• Green - Identifies vegetation with military significance, such as woods, orchards, and vineyards.
• Brown - Identifies all relief features and elevation, such as contours on older edition maps, and
cultivated land on red-light readable maps.
• Red - Classifies cultural features, such as populated areas, main roads, and boundaries, on older
maps.
• Other - Occasionally other colors may be used to show special information. These are indicated
in the marginal information as a rule.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 3-5 / PDF 24)
1234
What are military symbols?
Figures used to represent types of military organizations, installations, and activities
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 3-4 / PDF 24)
1235
Where is the Legend of the map found?
Lower left margin
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 3-1 / PDF 19
1236
What are contour lines?
Imaginary lines on the ground connecting equal elevation, they represent high and low ground
elevation.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-2 / PDF 123)
1237
What are 3 types of contour lines?
1. Index
2. Intermediate
3. Supplementary
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-2 / PDF 123)
1238
How many Mils are in one Degree?
17.7 mils
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 6-1 / PDF 65
1239
How many Norths are there on a military map?
```
Three;
1. True north
2. Magnetic north
3. Grid north
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 3-1 / PDF 20)
```
1240
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a hill?
| What shape are the contour lines that indicate a hill?
A hill is shown on a map by contour lines forming concentric circles. The inside of the
smallest closed circle is the hilltop.
1241
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a saddle?
A saddle is normally represented as an hourglass
1242
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a valley?
Contour lines forming a valley are either U-shaped or V-shaped.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 134)
1243
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a Ridge?
Contour lines forming a ridge tend to be U-shaped or V-shaped. The closed end of
the contour line points away from high ground.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 134)
1244
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a depression?
Usually only depressions that are equal to or greater than the contour interval will be
shown. On maps, depressions are represented by closed contour lines that have tick
marks pointing toward low ground.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 135)
1245
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a draw?
The contour lines depicting a draw are U-shaped or V-shaped, pointing toward high
ground. (FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 135)
1246
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a spur?
Contour lines on a map depict a spur with the U or V pointing away from high ground.
1247
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a cliff?
Cliffs are also shown by contour lines very close together and, in some instances,
touching each other. (FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 136)
1248
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a cut?
This contour line extends the length of the cut and has tick marks that extend from the cut line to
the roadbed, if the map scale permits this level of detail.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 137)
1249
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a fill?
This contour line extends the length of the filled area and has tick marks that point toward lower
ground. If the map scale permits, the length of the fill tick marks are drawn to scale and extend
from the base line of the fill symbol.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 137)
1250
What must be done to a map before it can be used?
It must be oriented.
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 11-1 / PDF 147
1251
What are 5 major terrain features found on a map?
1. Hill
2. Ridge
3. Valley
4. Saddle
5. Depression
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 133)
1252
What are the 3 minor terrain features found on a military map?
1. Draw
2. Spur
3. Cliff
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 135)
1253
What are the 2 supplementary terrain features found on a military map?
1. Cut
2. Fill
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-6 / PDF 137)
1254
What is a map?
A map is a graphic representation of a portion of the earth’s surface drawn to scale, as seen
from above.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 2-1 / PDF 11)
1255
What is an azimuth?
A horizontal angle, measured in a clockwise manner from a north base line, expressing direction.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 6-3 / PDF 66)
1256
What is vertical distance?
The distance between the highest and lowest points measured.
1257
What is a contour interval?
The vertical distance between adjacent contour lines on a map.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 3-1 / PDF 20)
1258
What is the distance between grid lines on a combat map?
1 kilometer or 1000 meters
1259
How many mils are there in a circle?
6400 mils in 360 degrees
1260
Which north is used when using a military map?
Magnetic north when using a compass, and grid north when using the map
1261
How would you hold a lensatic compass?
Away from metal (weapons, electrical devices), level and firm
1262
Name two ways to hold a compass?
1. Compass-to-Cheek Method
2. Center-Hold Method
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 9-4 / PDF 111)
1263
Are topographic symbols drawn to scale?
No
1264
What do topographic symbols represent?
Man-made and natural features
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 3-4 / PDF 24
1265
In military symbols, what colors are used for a map overlay and what do they represent?
* Blue- Friendly forces
* Red-Enemy forces
* Black- boundaries
* Yellow-contaminated area both friendly and enemy
* Green- engineer obstacles, both friendly and enemy
1266
What is Back Azimuth?
The opposite direction of an azimuth.
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 6-3 / PDF 67
1267
How do you figure out a back azimuth?
To obtain a back azimuth from an azimuth, add 180 degrees if the azimuth is 180 degrees or
less; subtract 180 degrees if the azimuth is 180 degrees or more
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 6-3 / PDF 67)
1268
What is a declination diagram?
Shows the angular relationship between the magnetic north, grid north and true north
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 3-1 / PDF 20)
1269
What is the general rule for reading military grid coordinates?
Right and UP
1270
How many sights does a compass have?
2
1271
What is a benchmark?
A man-made marker showing points of elevation
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-3 / PDF 127
1272
What are parallels of latitude?
Measured distances going north or south of the equator
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 4-2 / PDF 25
1273
What is an aerial photograph?
An aerial photograph is any photograph taken from an airborne vehicle (aircraft, drones, balloons,
satellites, and so forth)
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 8 / PDF 87)
1274
What does UTM stand for?
Universal Transverse Mercator
| FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 4-3 / PDF 34
1275
The lensatic compass has a bezel ring; each bezel ring click is equal to how many degrees?
3
1276
How many times would the bezel ring click if it were fully rotated?
120
1277
Large cities on a map are represented by what color?
Black
1278
Name two ways to orient a map?
Use a compass and terrain association
1279
What is the Field Manual for Operational Terms and Graphics?
FM 1-02
1280
The arrow on a compass always points what direction?
Magnetic north
1281
What does the term FLOT mean?
Forward Line Of Troops
1282
What are the alternate colors on a map and what do they mean?
Gray- alternate color for brown, Yellow- built up areas, and Pink- political boundaries
1283
What is longitude?
Imaginary lines that run north to south originating in Greenwich, England and measured in
degrees
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 4-2 / PDF 25)
1284
What s a topographic map?
Portrays terrain and land forms in a measurable way as well as horizontal features of the
positions represented
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 2-6 / PDF 15)
1285
What is a small-scale map?
Those maps with scales of 1:1,000,000 and smaller are used for general planning and for
strategic studies. The standard small-scale map is 1:1,000,000. This map covers a very large
land area at the expense of detail.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 2-6 / PDF 14)
1286
What is a medium-scale map?
Those maps with scales larger than 1:1,000,000 but smaller than 1:75,000 are used for
operational planning. They contain a moderate amount of detail, but terrain analysis is best done
with the large-scale maps described below. The standard medium-scale map is 1:250,000.
Medium scale maps of 1:100,000 are also frequently encountered.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 2-6 / PDF 14)
1287
What is a large-scale map?
Those maps with scales of 1:75,000 and larger are used for tactical, administrative, and logistical
planning. These are the maps that you as a soldier or junior leader are most likely to encounter.
The standard large-scale map is 1:50,000; however, many areas have been mapped at a scale of
1:25,000.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 2-6 / PDF 14)
1288
What does the term intersection mean?
Finding the location of an unknown point by sighting two or more known points
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 6-7 / PDF 77)
1289
Why is a map so important?
When used correctly, a map can give you accurate distances, locations and heights, best routes
key terrain features and cover and concealment information.
1290
What does the term resection mean?
Resection is the method of locating one’s position on a map by determining the grid azimuth
to at least two well-defined locations that can be pinpointed on the map.
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 6-8 / PDF 79)
1291
If you find a symbol on a map that is unknown to you, where would you look?
The marginal data, located on the outside lower portion of the map
1292
How many scales are there on a compass, what are they?
There are two;
1. Degrees
2. Mils
1293
What are the 4 quadrants on a map?
1. Northeast
2. Southeast
3. Northwest
4. Southwest
1294
What are the three elements for a land navigation process known as Dead Reckoning?
1. Known starting point
2. Known distance
3. Known azimuth
1295
What is the feature that makes the lensatic compass work well at night?
The dials and needles are luminous
1296
What is a polar coordinate?
Plotting or locating an unknown point using an azimuth and a distance from a known starting
point
1297
What is the name of the map system that the U.S. uses?
UTM
1298
On a lensatic compass there are two rings, an outer black ring and an inner red ring, what are
they used for?
The inner red ring is used to find degrees, and the outer black ring is used to find mils
1299
Name 3 field expedient methods of determining direction
The shadow-tip method, the watch method, and the North Star method
1300
What is a contour level?
It is the vertical distance between contour lines. The amount of the contour level is located in the
Marginal Information on the map.
1301
The border line around the edge of the map is called the what?
Neat Line
1302
Name the different slopes found on a map.
1. Gentle
2. Steep
3. Concave
4. Convex
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 10-4 / PDF 127)
1303
You must find at least how many known locations on a map and the actual ground in order to
plot your location accurately?
At least 2
1304
What are the three main map sizes?
1. Small
2. Medium
3. Large
(FM 3-25.26 Jan 2005 / 2-6 / PDF 14)
1305
What are two methods of measuring an azimuth?
Compass and a protractor
1306
How close will an eight-digit grid get you to your point?
10 meters
1307
How close will a six-digit grid coordinate get you to your point?
100 meters
1308
What would you use on a map to measure actual ground distance?
The bar scale
1309
What is Self Aid?
Emergency treatment one applies to oneself
1310
Name some items that you might use as a splint from your military equipment
* Bayonet
* Rifle
* Entrenching tool
* Tent poles and stakes
* Web belt
1311
What is the quickest way to splint a broken leg?
Tie the broken leg securely to the unbroken leg
1312
How many pressure points, which can be used to control bleeding with fingers, thumbs or
hands are there on the human body?
11
1313
What is the object of first aid?
1. To stop bleeding
2. Overcome shock
3. Relieve pain
4. Prevent infection
1314
What FM covers first aid for soldiers?
FM 4-25.11
1315
What is First Aid?
It is the first care given to casualties before treatment by medical personnel can be made
available
1316
What is the unique feature of type "O" blood?
It is a universal donor
1317
When would you not remove a casualties clothing to expose a wound?
If in a chemical environment or if the clothing is stuck to the wound
1318
What soldiers are most likely to suffer heat injuries?
Soldiers not accustomed to the heat, overweight soldiers, prior heat casualties, and soldiers
already dehydrated due to alcohol use, diarrhea, or lack of water (insufficient use of)
1319
How high should an injured limb be elevated above the heart to control bleeding?
2 to 4 inches
1320
What are the lifesaving steps? (The ABC's of medical treatment)
1. Open the airway and restore breathing
2. Stop the bleeding / Protect the wound
3. Prevent shock
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-1 / PDF 23)
1321
When applying splint, where should the bandages be tied?
The bandages should be tied with knots against the splint
1322
Whose first aid dressing should be used on a casualty?
Use the casualty’s field dressing.
| FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-16 / PDF 42
1323
How should the ends of an improved pressure dressing be tied?
Tie the ends together in a nonslip knot, directly over the wound site. DO NOT tie so tightly that it
has a tourniquet-like effect.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-18 / PDF 45)
1324
What is manual pressure?
If bleeding continues after applying the sterile field dressing, direct manual pressure may be used
to help control bleeding. Apply such pressure by placing a hand on the dressing and exerting firm
pressure for 5 to 10 minutes. The casualty may be asked to do this himself if he is conscious and
can follow instructions.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-17 / PDF 43)
1325
Should a casualty be given water to drink?
He should not eat or drink
1326
Why should you dress and bandage the wound as soon as possible?
To protect the wound from further contamination of germs, and also to control the bleeding
1327
What should you do to indicate that a casualty has received a tourniquet?
Mark his or her forehead with a T and if possible, note the time of the application of the tourniquet
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-20 / PDF 51)
1328
Should you ever remove or loosen a tourniquet?
No, only qualified medical personnel can do that
| FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-20 / PDF 51
1329
Where is a tourniquet applied?
Place the tourniquet around the limb, between the wound and the body trunk (or between the
wound and the heart). Never place it directly over a wound, a fracture, or joint. Tourniquets, for
maximum effectiveness, should be placed on the upper arm or above the knee on the thigh.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-20 / PDF 49)
1330
How can you prevent athlete's foot?
Keep your feet clean, use foot powder and change socks daily
1331
Name 3 categories of heat injuries
1. Heat cramps
2. Heat exhaustion
3. Heat stroke
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 5-2 / PDF 113)
1332
What are the signs and symptoms of heat cramps?
1. Cramping in the extremities (arms and legs)
2. Abdominal Cramps (stomach)
3. Excessive Sweating
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 5-2 / PDF 114)
1333
What is the treatment for heat cramps?
1. Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is available.
2. Loosen his clothing (if not in a chemical environment)
In a chemical environment, transport the heat casualty to a non contaminated area as soon as the
mission permits.
3. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water. (The body absorbs cool water faster than
warm or cold water; therefore, cool water is preferred if it is available.)
4. Seek medical assistance should cramps continue.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 5-2 / PDF 114)
1334
What are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?
1. Excessive sweating with pale, moist, cool skin
2. Headache
3. Weakness
4. Dizziness
5. Loss of appetite
6. Cramping
7. Nausea (with or without vomiting)
8. Urge to defecate
9. Chills (Gooseflesh)
10. Rapid Breathing
11. Tingling of Hands/Feet
12. Confusion
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 5-2 / PDF 114)
1335
What would the treatment be for heat exhaustion?
1. Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is available.
2. Loosen or remove his clothing and boots (unless in a chemical environment); pour water on him
and fan him.
3. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen of water.
4. Elevate his legs.
5. If possible, the casualty should not participate in strenuous activity for the remainder of the day.
6. Monitor the casualty until the symptoms are gone, or medical assistance arrives.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 5-2 / PDF 115)
1336
What are the signs and symptoms of heat stroke?
1. Skin is red, hot and dry
2. Weakness
3. Dizziness
4. Confusion
5. Headaches
6. Seizures
7. Nausea
8. Stomach pains or cramps
9. Respiration and pulse may be rapid and weak.
10. Unconsciousness and collapse may occur suddenly.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 5-2 / PDF 116)
1337
What would the treatment be for heat stroke?
| Cool casualty immediately by
1. Moving him to a cool, shady area or improvising shade if none is available.
2. Loosening or removing his clothing (except in a chemical environment).
3. Spraying or pouring water on him; fanning him to permit the coolant effect of evaporation.
4. Massaging his extremities and skin, which increases the blood flow to those body areas, thus
aiding the cooling process.
5. Elevating his legs.
6. Having him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water if he is conscious.
7. Seek medical assistance immediately
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 5-2 / PDF 116)
1338
If a casualty were suspected of having a neck/spinal injury or severe head trauma, which
method would you use for opening an airway?
The jaw thrust technique, because in most cases it can be done without extending the neck
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-3 / PDF 25)
1339
What are two basic types of fractures?
1. Open (compound)
2. Closed (simple)
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 1-6 / PDF 21)
1340
What are some signs of an open fracture?
• Bleeding.
• Bones sticking through the skin.
• Check for pulse.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 1-6 / PDF 21)
1341
What are some signs of a closed fracture?
```
• Swelling.
• Discoloration.
• Deformity.
• Unusual body position.
• Check for pulse.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 1-6 / PDF 21)
```
1342
With an open fracture, what should you do first?
Stop the bleeding
What is the basic proven principle in splinting fractures?
"Splint them where they lie"
1343
How tight should tourniquet be?
Tightened until the bright red bleeding has stopped.
1344
What are the three types of bleeding?
1. Arterial- Blood is bright red and will spurt with each heart beat
2. Venous- Blood is dark red and flows in a steady stream
3. Capillary- Blood oozes from the wound
1345
Name 4 common points for checking pulse
1. Carotid- The side of the neck
2. Femoral- The groin
3. Radial- The wrist
4. Posterial Tibial- Ankle
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-19 / PDF 46)
1346
What are some signs/symptoms of shock?
* Clammy skin (cool, pale and damp)
* Restlessness and nervousness
* Thirst
* Loss of blood
* Confusion
* Fast breathing
* Nausea or vomiting
* Blotched or bluish skin (especially around the mouth and lips)
* Often perspires freely
* May pass out.
1347
What is the treatment for shock?
“P.E.L.C.R.N.” (Pronounced Pell-Crin)
• Position the casualty on their back
• Elevate the Legs
• Loosen clothing at neck waist or wherever it is binding
• Climatize (prevent too hot or too cold)
• Reassure (keep the casualty calm)
• Notify medical personnel (Help, Get a medic!!)
1348
What is a heat injury?
A loss of water and salt, loss of sweat while personnel work in the heat, a general dehydration of
the body
1349
What is the greatest preventive measure for disease?
Cleanliness
1350
How do you stop bleeding?
* Apply a field dressing
* Manual pressure
* Elevate the limb
* Apply a pressure dressing
* Digital Pressure
* Apply a tourniquet
1351
What is CPR?
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, it is used to restore a heart beat
1352
When can measures taken to restore breathing in an individual be discontinued?
* When a doctor tells you to stop
* When others relieve you
* When you cannot physically continue
* When the casualty starts to breath on his own
1353
What is AIDS?
AIDS is the end stage of the HIV infection. At this point, the virus has attacked and weakened a
person's immune system
1354
Name two types of rescue breathing
1. Mouth to mouth
2. Mouth to nose
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-6 / PDF 28)
1355
What do the letters AIDS stand for?
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
1356
When should a casualty not be placed in the shock position?
When the casualty has a:
• Head injury
• Abdominal wound
• Fractured (unsplinted) leg
1357
How long is direct manual pressure applied to control bleeding?
5 to 10 minutes
1358
What should you do prior to leaving an unconscious casualty?
Turn their head to the side to prevent them from choking on their own vomit
1359
When should a tourniquet be used to stop bleeding?
As a last resort when everything else has failed or when an arm or leg has been severed off
1360
What does COLD stand for?
It is a key word in cold weather protection, it stands for Keep it CLEAN, Avoid OVERHEATING,
Wear it LOOSE and in layers and Keep it DRY
1361
What are the 8 steps in evaluating a casualty?
Check for:
1. Responsiveness
2. Breathing
3. Pulse
4. Bleeding
5. Shock
6. Fractures
7. Burns
8. Possible concussions (head injuries)
1362
What is the first indication of frostbite?
Skin becomes numb and white particles/patches form on it
1363
What do you do to treat frostbite?
Remove clothing from the affected area, warm with body heat, dress the area and seek additional
medical help
1364
When should an airtight dressing be applied to a sucking chest wound?
As the individual breathes out
| FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 3-5 / PDF 61
1365
How should you position a casualty with an open abdominal wound?
On his back with his knees up to relieve abdominal pressure
| FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 3-7 / PDF 64
1366
What do you do with exposed abdominal organs?
Wrap them in dry clean material and place on top of the abdomen (never try to put them back in)
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 3-7 / PDF 65)
1367
How do you take the Carotid pulse?
Carotid pulse. To check the carotid pulse, feel for a pulse on the side of the casualty’s neck
closest to you. This is done by placing the tips of your first two fingers beside his Adam’s apple.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 1-3 / PDF 14)
1368
In reference to carrying a casualty, what are the two-man methods?
```
• Two-Man Support Carry
• Two-Man Arms Carry
• Two-Man Fore-and Aft-Carry
• Four-Hand Seat Carry
• Two-Hand Seat Carry
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / B-8 / PDF 191)
```
1369
In reference to carrying a casualty, what are the one-man methods?
```
• Fireman's carry
• Supporting carry
• Arms Carry
• Saddleback carry
• Pack-strap carry
• Pistol belt carry
• Pistol belt drag
• Neck drag
• LBE Carry Using Bearers LBE
• LBE Carry Using Casualty’s LBE
• Cradle Drop Drag
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / B-8 / PDF 191)
```
1370
Should you put any medication or cream on a burn?
No
| FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 3-9 / PDF 71
1371
Name the four types of burns
1. Thermal
2. Electrical
3. Chemical
4. Laser
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 3-8 / PDF – 67)
1372
What is the primary objective in the treatment of burns?
Lessen or prevent shock and infection
1373
What are the three categories used in medical evacuation?
1. Urgent- within 2 hours
2. Priority- within 4 hours
3. Routine- within 24 hours
1374
What is the first aid procedure for a white phosphorous casualty?
Smother the flame by submerging the affected area in water or pack with mud. Then remove the
particles by brushing or picking them out
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 7-13 / PDF 168)
1375
What is the first step in the first aid of a burn victim?
Remove the casualty from the source of the burn
| FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 3-9 / PDF 68
1376
What are the 2 prescribed methods for opening an airway?
1. The jaw thrust
2. Head tilt/chin lift methods
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-2 / PDF 23)
1377
What is the major cause of tooth decay and gum disease?
Dental plaque
1378
What are the 9 mild symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
1. Unexplained runny nose
2. Unexplained headache
3. Sudden drooling
4. Difficulty seeing (dimness of vision and miosis)
5. Tightness in the chest or difficulty in breathing
6. Localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of contaminated skin
7. Stomach cramps
8. Nausea
9. Tachycardia followed by bradycardia (Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat wth a heart
rate of over 100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per
minute)
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 7-7 / PDF 151)
1379
What are the 11 severe symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
1. Strange or confused behavior.
2. Wheezing, dyspnea (difficulty in breathing), and coughing.
3. Severely pinpointed pupils.
4. Red eyes with tearing.
5. Vomiting.
6. Severe muscular twitching and general weakness.
7. Involuntary urination and defecation.
8. Convulsions.
9. Unconsciousness.
10. Respiratory failure.
11. Bradycardia.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 7-7 / PDF 151)
1380
What does JSLIST stand for?
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology
| FM 3-11 Mar 2003 / Glossary / PDF 203
1381
What does MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
| FM 3-11 Mar 2003 / Glossary / PDF 204
1382
When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning?
After you mask
| FM 3-11.3 Feb 2006 / Appendix E / PDF 138
1383
What are the proper masking procedures?
Stop breathing and close your eyes, don protective mask, clear mask, check the seal of the
mask, sound the alarm to alert others, and continue the mission
1384
What does C.B.R.N. stand for?
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
1385
NBC hazards are classified into two types, what are they?
1. Immediate hazards- produce casualties immediately after attack
2. Residual hazards- Delayed effects
1386
What will replace the Nerve Agent Antidote Kit (NAAK) based on shelf life expiration dates?
The Antidote Treatment, Nerve Agent Autoinjector (ATNAA)
| FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / App. A / PDF 127
1387
What is the number of Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Autoinjector (ATNAA) that must be
given as immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning?
3
| FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / App. A / PDF 127
1388
What is the number of Nerve Agent Antidote Kits (NAAK) that must be given as immediate first
aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning?
3
| FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / App. A / PDF 126
1389
Alarms and signals convey warnings of NBC contamination. Units use easily recognizable and
reliable alarm methods to respond quickly and correctly to NBC hazards. What are three types of
alarms and signals?
1. Audible Alarms
2. Automatic Alarms
3. Visual Signals
(FM 3-11 Mar 2003 / Chapter 2 / PDF 35)
1390
What Field Manual covers NBC Operations?
FM 3-11
1391
What Field Manual covers NBC Protection?
FM 3-11.4
1392
What Field Manual covers NBC Decontamination?
FM 3-5
1393
What is FM 3-7?
NBC Handbook
1394
What forms do Chemical Agents come in?
```
• Vapors
• Solids
• Liquids
• Gases
(FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / Chapter 2 / PDF 47)
```
1395
Soldiers in MOPP 4 may lose how much water per hour through perspiration?
1 quart or more
1396
When fitting the protective mask, in what sequence should the straps be tightened?
1. Forehead straps
2. Cheek straps
3. Temple straps
1397
Which of the NBC reports is most widely used?
NBC 1
1398
What are the three types of procedures for MOPP gear exchange?
1. Buddy Team
2. Triple Buddy
3. Individual
(FM 3-11.5 April 2006 / Chapter 4 / PDF 50)
1399
What are three fundamentals of NBC defense?
1. Avoid contamination
2. Protection
3. Decontamination
1400
How long should you apply pressure when using the Auto injector?
10 seconds
1401
What do you do with the Auto injector after injecting?
Stick it through the pocket flap (upper left) so that you do not lose count and so that someone that
happens to come across the casualty will know that they have already
1402
The protective mask will not protect against what two types of gases?
Ammonia vapors or carbon monoxide
| FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / Chapter 6 / PDF 96
1403
When giving Buddy Aid, whose auto injectors would you use?
The other person (the person's auto injectors that is receiving the medication)
1404
When giving Buddy Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of Nerve
agent, to administer a second nerve agent antidote (MK1)?
Immediately give the second and third
1405
When giving Self Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of a Nerve
Agent before administering a second MK1?
Wait 10 to 15 minutes; also wait 10 to 15 minutes between 2nd and 3rd
1406
Once a unit has masked, who can make the decision to unmask?
The unit commander
| FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / Chapter 2 / PDF 47
1407
What is the shape of the contamination markers?
Triangle
1408
What type of attack does an M22 ACADA alarm warn you of?
Chemical (ACADA = Automatic Chemical Agent Detection Alarm)
| FM 3-11 Mar 2003 / Glossary / PDF 199
1409
What are the three levels of Decontamination?
1. Immediate
2. Operational
3. Thorough
(FM 3-11 Mar 2003 / Chapter 2 / PDF 42)
1410
How often should you check your protective mask during peacetime?
Before, during and after training events, monthly, and semi-annually. (refer to TM 3-4240-339-10
and 20&P manuals) The minimum is MONTHLY...
1411
What are the dimensions of an NBC marker?
11 1/2 inches on the top by 8 inches on either side
1412
What are the 9 mild symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
1. Unexplained runny nose
2. Unexplained headache
3. Sudden drooling
4. Difficulty seeing (dimness of vision and miosis)
5. Tightness in the chest or difficulty in breathing
6. Localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of contaminated skin
7. Stomach cramps
8. Nausea
9. Tachycardia followed by bradycardia (Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat wth a heart
rate of over 100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per
minute)
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 7-7 / PDF 151)
1413
What are the 11 severe symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
1. Strange or confused behavior.
2. Wheezing, dyspnea (difficulty in breathing), and coughing.
3. Severely pinpointed pupils.
4. Red eyes with tearing.
5. Vomiting.
6. Severe muscular twitching and general weakness.
7. Involuntary urination and defecation.
8. Convulsions.
9. Unconsciousness.
10. Respiratory failure.
11. Bradycardia.
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 7-7 / PDF 151)
1414
When crossing a contaminated area, what 2 things should you avoid doing?
Stirring up dust and touching anything
1415
Of these 3, Nerve, Blood, and Blister agents, which causes the most casualties?
Nerve agents
1416
How should an area that is suspected of contamination be crossed?
Quickly, avoiding depressions and vegetation
1417
What are the 3 effects of a nuclear explosion?
1. Blast
2. Heat
3. Radiation
1418
What is the color of a Nuclear (radiological) contamination marker?
White background with ATOM in black letters
1419
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Nuclear assets?
Last Resort, will use first only if necessary
1420
What are Flash Burns?
Direct burns produced by the flash of thermal radiation from the fireball
1421
What causes the most casualties in a nuclear attack?
The initial blast and the heat of detonation
1422
What is the difference between Dose Rate and Total Dose?
Dose Rate is the amount of radiation per hour; Total Dose is the actual accumulation
1423
Who has the authority to order the use of nuclear weapons?
Only the President of the U.S.
1424
What are the 3 types of nuclear bursts?
1. Air
2. Ground
3. Subsurface
1425
What does an AN VDR-2 detect and measure?
The AN VDR-2 detects and measures nuclear radiation from fallout and radioisotopes.
(FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / Appenix A / PDF 130)
1426
An NBC-1 report is used to determine what?
The initial detection of NBC weapons usage by the enemy
1427
What FM covers Nuclear Contamination Avoidance?
FM 3-11.3
1428
For maximum radiation effect, which nuclear burst would you use?
Air burst
1429
What is the best way to protect against Biological agents?
Personal hygiene
| FM 3-11.4 June 2003 / Chapters 2 / PDF 44
1430
What is a vector?
An insect used to disseminate biological agents (fleas, ticks, lice, mosquitoes....)
(FM 3-11.3 Feb 2006 / Appendix F / PDF 194)
1431
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Biological assets?
No Use
1432
What is meant by Biological Warfare?
The intentional use by an enemy, of germs or toxins, to cause death and disease among
personnel, animals, plants, or more rarely, to deteriorate material
1433
What is the color of a Biological contamination marker?
Blue background with BIO in red letters
1434
What does FM 3-3 cover?
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear Contamination Avoidance
1435
What are the 4 types of microorganisms found in Biological agents?
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Rickettsiae
4. Viruses
1436
What is the best decontamination for Biological agents?
Warm soapy water
| FM 3-11.5 April 2006 / Appendix E / PDF 254
1437
Where would a biological attack be most effective?
Cities, large troop concentrations, animals and vegetable crops
1438
How may Chemical Agents be deployed?
* Arterial spray
* Artillery bombs
* Individuals (pollution of water, food and supplies)
* Mines
* Rockets
1439
What are the most effective times to use chemical agents?
Evening and early morning (The lack of wind and sun allows the agents to persist)
1440
Chemical agents are classified by the U.S. into 3 categories, name them
1. Persistent
2. Non-Persistent
3. Dusty
1441
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Chemical assets?
No First Use
1442
What is the color of the Chemical contamination marker?
Yellow with GAS in Red letters
1443
What are the 4 types of Chemical agents?
1. Nerve
2. Blister
3. Blood
4. Choking
1444
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
• M291 SDK - To decontaminate your skin completely, through physical removal, absorption, and
neutralization of toxic agents without long-term effects.
• M295 IEDK - To decontaminate your chemical protective gloves, mask, hood, overboots, LCE,
and weapon.
• M100 SDS - To perform immediate decontamination of equipment, vehicles, and crew-served
weapons.
• FSDS - To perform fixed-site and terrain decontamination. To perform operational and thorough
decontamination of vehicles and equipment.
• M12A1 PDDA - To spray decontaminating agents, STB slurries and solutions, and hot, soapy
water rinses during field decontamination operations. To pump water or foam to fight fires, deice
items, wash vehicles, and pump various fluids.
• M17 LDS - To perform operational and thorough decontamination of vehicles and equipment. To
provide troop showers, as necessary.
• MPDS - To perform operational and thorough decontamination of vehicles and equipment.
(FM 3-11.5 April 2006 / Appendix H / PDF 285)
1445
What are the 4 types of waste?
1. Human
2. Liquid
3. Garbage
4. Rubbish
1446
What is the water requirement per person, per day in a temperate zone?
5 gallons
1447
A latrine can be no closer than what distance to a water source?
30 meters or more
| FM 21-10 June 2000 / 3 / PDF 77
1448
What is Potable water?
Water that is safe to drink
| FM 21-10 June 2000 / 2 / PDF 38
1449
What are the measurements of a straddle trench?
1 ft wide, 4 ft long and 2 1/2 ft deep
| FM 21-10 June 2000 / A 40 / PDF 133
1450
How many gallons of water will a Lyster bag hold?
36 gallons
1451
How deep is a cat hole?
6 to 12 inches
| FM 21-10 June 2000 / A 38 / PDF 131
1452
What is a communicable disease?
A disease that ca be transmitted person to person, animal to person and insect to person
1453
What are the 5 "F"s of Field Sanitation?
1. Fingers
2. Feces
3. Flies
4. Foods
5. Fluids
1454
What is the best protection against disease or biological warfare?
Immunization and personal hygiene
1455
What Field Manual covers Unit Field Sanitation Team?
FM 4-25.12
1456
What Field Manual covers Field Hygiene and Sanitation?
FM 21-10
1457
What is Field Sanitation?
The use of measures to create and maintain healthful environmental conditions, these include
safeguarding food, safeguarding water, and controlling disease bearing insects and rodents.
1458
What is a vector?
Any living organism that can carry a disease-producing virus
1459
What is palatable water?
Water that is pleasing to the taste, but which may be unsafe
1460
What are the 5 communicable disease grouped by the Army?
1. Respiratory
2. Intestinal
3. Insect borne
4. Venereal
5. Miscellaneous
1461
What are some diseases carried by the fly?
* Typhoid
* Cholera
* Dysentery
1462
What 3 rules apply to water discipline in the field?
1. Drink only from approved sources
2. Conserve water
3. Do not contaminate your sources
1463
What are the three most common poison plants?
1. Poison ivy
2. Poison oak
3. Poison sumac
1464
Where should the latrine be located in relation to the mess hall?
At least 100 meters downhill or downstream
1465
What are some of the diseases carried by the mosquito?
* Malaria
* Dengue
* Yellow Fever
* Encephalitis
* Filariasis
1466
What are some methods for human waste disposal?
* Straddle trench
* Mound latrine
* Burn out latrine
* Deep pit
* Bore hole latrines
* Pail latrines
* Urine soak pits
1467
How far should garbage pits be located away from the mess area?
30 yards and no closer than 100 ft from any water sources.
1468
Enough straddle trenches should be dug to accommodate what percentage of the unit at one
time?
8 percent
1469
Water that is not properly treated can spread what diseases?
```
• Common diarrhea,
• Leptospirosis
• Cholera
• Dysentery
Bacillary
• Typhoid
• Paratyphoid fever
```
1470
What are two ways to purify water?
1. Iodine tablets
| 2. Boiling
1471
Who gives the final approval on whether water is safe to drink?
Medical personnel
1472
What Field Manual covers Physical Security?
FM 3-19.30
1473
What Army Regulations covers the Army Physical Security Program?
AR 190-13
1474
Security lighting allows security personnel to maintain visual-assessment capability during
darkness. When security-lighting provisions are impractical, what are needed?
```
• Additional security posts
• Patrols
• MWD patrols
• NVDs
• Other security means as necessary.
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 5 / PDF 57)
```
1475
What are the two primary concerns of Physical Security?
Prevention and Protection. Both serve the interests of people, equipment and property.
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / Preface / PDF 7)
1476
Define the objectives of the Physical Security Education Program.
Get all personnel acquainted with the reasons for security measures and to ensure their
cooperation.
1477
Describe standard Barbed wire.
Twisted, double-strand, 13.5-gauge wire, with four-point barbs spaced equal distances apart.
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 4 / PDF 49)
1478
What are vulnerabilities?
Gaps in the assets protection
| FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 2 / PDF 15
1479
Commander must ensure that appropriate physical-security measures are taken to minimize
the loss of what?
* Personnel
* Supplies
* Equipment
* and material through both human and natural threats.
1480
What is the interval for placing warning signs for a limited area on or outside the limited area
physical barrier?
No more than 100 ft
1481
What two major categories can protective barriers be divided into?
1. Structural
2. Natural.
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 4 / PDF 47)
1482
What is the purpose of the Army Physical Security Program?
Physical security is defined as that part of security concerned with physical measures designed to
safeguard personnel; to prevent unauthorized access to equipment, installations, material, and
documents; and to safeguard against espionage, sabotage, damage, and theft.
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 1 / PDF 9)
1483
How far from the point of entry of an installation should the signs located that indicate the
conditions of entry onto that installation?
No less than 50 ft from the point of entry
| FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 4-35 / PDF 54
1484
What are the four types of fencing that are authorized for the protection of restricted areas?
1. Chain link
2. Barbed wire
3. Barbed tape
4. Concertina
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 4 / PDF 48)
1485
What are the three designations of restricted areas?
1. Controlled area
2. Limited area
3. Exclusion area (Greatest degree of security)
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 7 / PDF 113)
1486
Protective barriers are designed to define what?
The physical limits of an installation, activity, or area.
| FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 4 / PDF 47
1487
Name some challenges relative to Physical Security.
Control of populations, information dominance, multinational and interagency connectivity,
antiterrorism, and the use of physical-security assets as a versatile force multiplier.
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 1 / PDF 9)
1488
An overall site-security system is comprised of what three major sub-elements?
1. Detection
2. Delay
3. Response
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 6 / PDF 63)
1489
_____ are the most acceptable and widely used security devices for protecting facilities,
classified materials, and property.
Locks (All containers, rooms, and facilities must be locked when not in actual use.)
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / 8 / PDF 127)
1490
The detection subelement of the overall site-security system includes what?
* Intrusion detection
* Assessment
* Entry control.
1491
What does a detailed physical plan include?
The plan should include at least special and general guard orders, access and
material control, protective barriers/lighting systems, locks, and IDSs.
(FM 3-19.30 Jan 2001 / F / PDF 255)
1492
What AR covers security?
AR 380-5
1493
What are 3 security classifications used to protect material against disclosure?
1. Top secret
2. Secret
3. Confidential
1494
How is Top Secret material destroyed?
Burning or pulping
1495
How many overall security classifications can a document have?
1
1496
Name Some Counterintelligence measures
* Use of sign and countersign
* Camouflage
* Recon
* Noise and light discipline
* OPSEC training
1497
What does the word SAEDA mean?
Subversion And Espionage Directed against the Army
1498
Can a person with a Secret clearance be denied access to any secret material?
Yes, access is granted on a need to know basis
1499
What does MIJI mean?
Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, and Interference
1500
What are the 5 S's that apply to POWs?
1. Search
2. Segregate
3. Silence
4. Speed
5. Safeguard
1501
In what groups should prisoners of war be divided?
* Officers
* NCOs
* Privates
* Deserters
* Females
* Civilians
* Political Personnel
1502
What does the word OPSEC mean?
OPerational SECurity
1503
What does SALUTE mean?
Size, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment
1504
What is OPSEC?
It is a program within the unit to deny a potential enemy information on the brigades intentions,
plans and operations
1505
Why is challenge and password used?
To identify unknown personnel
1506
How often is the Challenge and Password changed?
Every 24 hours
1507
What is the Standard Form (SF) for Security Container Check Sheet?
SF 702
1508
What field manual covers Desert Operations?
FM 90-3
1509
Even though desert terrain varies considerably from place to place, there is one common
feature of all deserts. What is that common feature?
Lack of water
1510
Successful desert operations require adaptation to what?
The environment and to the limitations its terrain and climate impose
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 6)
1511
What is the basic definition of a desert:
Arid, barren regions of the earth incapable of supporting normal life due to lack of water
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 6)
1512
What are the three types of desert terrain?
• Mountain
• Rocky plateau
• Sandy or dune terrain
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 8)
1513
Describe mountain deserts:
Mountain deserts are characterized by scattered ranges or areas of barren hills or mountains,
separated by dry, flat basins
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 8)
1514
Describe Rocky Plateau Deserts:
Rocky plateau deserts
are extensive flat areas with quantities of solid or broken rock at or near
the surface.
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 9)
1515
Describe Sandy or Dune Deserts:
Sandy or dune deserts are extensive flat areas covered with sand or gravel, the product of
ancient deposits or modern wind erosion.
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 10)
1516
What is the highest known ambient temperature recorded in a desert?
136 degrees Fahrenheit
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 13
1517
What is the most important single characteristic of the desert?
The lack of water
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 15
1518
Name some snakes common to deserts:
• Sand Vipers
• Cobras
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 1 / PDF 21)
1519
Lack of natural concealment has been known to induce what fear in some troops?
Agoraphobia (fear of open spaces)
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 22
1520
In a desert environment, it is important that unit leaders monitor their troops carefully for signs
of heat distress and adjust what?
```
• Work Schedules
• Work Rates
• Rest
• Water consumption according to conditions
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 23)
```
1521
A lack of alertness can indicate early stages of what?
Dehydration
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 23
1522
Chronic dehydration increases the incidence of what several medical problems?
```
• Constipation
• Piles (hemorrhoids)
• Kidney Stones
• Urinary Infections
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 24)
```
1523
At the first evidence of heat illness, what should the troops do?
Stop work, get into shade and rehydrate
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 24
1524
Contact lenses are very difficult to maintain in the dry dusty environment of the desert and
should not be worn except by military personnel operating in what?
Air conditioned environments, under command guidance.
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 26
1525
Maintaining safe, clean, water supplies is critical. The best containers for small quantities of
water (5 gallons) are plastic water cans or coolers. How long does water last in both plastic and
metal containers?
• Water in plastic cans will be good for up to 72 hours
• Water in metal containers is safe only for 24 hours
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 28)
1526
If water trailers are kept cool, how long is the water considered fresh and safe to drink?
Up to 5 days
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 28
1527
If ice is placed into a water trailer to keep it cool, what should happen prior to moving the
trailer to prevent damage to the inside lining of the water trailer?
The ice should be removed
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 28
1528
What is a use of water that is not fit to drink but is not otherwise dangerous (it may be merely
oversalinated)?
May be used to wet clothing to aid in cooling
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 28
1529
When carrying your water supply during a mission, how should the water containers be
stored?
• Try to vibration by clamping them firmly to the vehicle body.
• In the shade and benefit from an air draft.
• In an area protected from puncture by shell splinters.
• Able to be easily dismounted in case of vehicle evacuation.
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 28)
1530
What is the best indicator of proper hydration?
Urine
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 29
1531
All unit leaders must understand the critical importance of maintaining the proper hydration
status. Almost any contingency of military operations will act to interfere with the maintenance of
hydration. What are the considerations for proper hydration during desert operations:
• Drink before you become thirsty and drink often, When you become thirsty you will be about a
"quart and a half low"
• Carry as much water as possible when away from approved sources of drinking water
• Drink before you work; carry water in your belly, do not "save" it in your canteen
• Ensure troops have at least one canteen of water in reserve, and know where and when water re-
supply will be available
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 29)
1532
Gaseous drinks such as sodas, beer, and milk are not good substitutes for water because of
what?
Their dehydrating effects.
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 30
1533
Diseases common to the desert include
```
• Plague
• Typhus
• Malaria
• dengue fever
• dysentery
• cholera
• typhoid
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 33)
```
1534
Most diarrheal diseases result from ingestion of water or food contaminated with what?
Feces.
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 2 / PDF 33
1535
What are the ten characteristics of the desert environment which may adversely affect
equipment used in the desert:
1. Terrain
2. Heat
3. Winds
4. Dust and sand
6. Temperature variations
7. Thermal bending
8. Optical path bending
9. Static electricity
10. Radiant light.
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 3 / PDF 35)
1536
What is the major problem with radios in a desert environment?
Overheating
| FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 3 / PDF 38
1537
What are some steps that may be taken to reduce the heat effects on radio equipment?
• Keep radios out of direct sunlight
• Place a piece of wood on top of the radio. Leaving space between the wood and the top of the
radio will help cool the equipment
• Operating the radio on low power whenever possible will also help
• Place wet rags on top of radios to help keep them cool and operational. Do not cover the vents.
(FM 90-3 Aug 1993 / 3 / PDF 38)
1538
What survival concept does each letter in the word SURVIVAL stand for?
```
S- Size up the situation
U- Use all your senses
R- Remember where you are
V- Vanquish fear and panic
I- Improvise
V-Value living
A- Act like the natives
L- Live by your wits, but for now learn basic skills
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 1 / PDF 10)
```
1539
What is the FM that covers "Survival"?
FM 3-05.70
1540
What would your reaction be to an overhead flare at night?
Immediately crouch or lie down, stop all movement and close one eye to keep "night vision" in
one, while scanning with the other
1541
What are the 9 common senses of Dehydration? (You may only have to name about 5 in a board)
1. Dark urine with a very strong odor
2. Dark, Sunken eyes
3. Low urine output
4. Fatigue
5. Loss of skin elasticity
6. Emotional instability
7. Thirst
8. "Trench line" down center of tongue
9. Delayed capillary refill in the fingernail beds
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 4-4 / PDF 32)
1542
What are the basic rules for water consumption in an arid area?
* At temperatures below 100 degrees Fahrenheit, drink one pint of water every hour.
* At temperatures above 100 degrees Fahrenheit, drink one quart of water every hour
1543
Is it always safe to eat and drink what the animals eat and drink?
No, some animals are able to eat and drink something that may be harmful to humans
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 10-3 / PDF 174)
1544
In any situation, cleanliness is an important factor in preventing infection and disease. It
becomes even more important in a survival situation. Poor hygiene can reduce your chances of
survival. What are some key areas to focus on to maintain good personal hygiene?
```
• Keep your hands clean
• Keep your hair clean
• Keep your clothing clean
• Keep your teeth clean
• Take care of your feet
• Get sufficient rest
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 4-20 / PDF 35)
```
1545
Name 4 crucial factors in staying healthy
1. Having adequate food and water
2. Practicing good personal hygiene
3. Getting sufficient rest
4. Keeping your immunizations up-to-date.
1546
What is Stress?
Stress is not a disease that you cure and eliminate. Instead, it is a condition we all experience.
Stress can be described as our reaction to pressure. It is the name given to the experience we
have as we physically, mentally, emotionally, and spiritually respond to life's tensions.
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 2-1 / PDF 16)
1547
Do we need STRESS?
Yes, it has many positive benefits. Stress provides us with challenges; it gives us chances to
learn about our values and strengths. The goal is to have stress, but not an excess of it. Too
much stress can take its toll on people and organizations. Too much stress leads to distress.
Distress causes an uncomfortable tension that we try to escape and, preferably, avoid.
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 2-3 / PDF 16)
1548
What are a few of the common signs of distress you may find in yourself or fellow soldiers you
may find when faced with too much stress?
```
• Difficulty making decisions
• Angry Outbursts
• Forgetfulness
• Low energy levels
• Constant worrying
• Propensity for mistakes
• Thoughts about death or suicide
• Trouble getting along with others
• Withdrawing from others
• Hiding from responsibilities
• Carelessness
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 2-3 / PDF 16)
```
1549
What are some of the natural reactions / emotions you are likely to experience in a survival
situation?
```
• Fear
• Anxiety
• Anger
• Frustration
• Depression
• Loneliness
• Boredom
• Guilt
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 2-16 / PDF 20)
```
1550
What are some of the difficulties in operating in arid areas?
* It is hard to find food, water and shelter.
* Physical movement is demanding.
* Land navigation is difficult.
* There is limited cover and concealment.
1551
What are some methods of improving the taste of wild plants?
```
• Soaking
• Boiling
• Cooking
• Leaching
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 9-23 / PDF 167)
```
1552
What heat effects must be considered in an arid area?
* Direct sun
* Reflective heat gain
* Conductive heat gain
* Hot blowing winds
1553
Why should you only drink milk from green coconuts rather than ripe mature coconuts?
The milk from the Mature Ripe coconuts contain an oil that acts like a laxative
(Fm 3-05.70 May 2002 / 6-9 / PDF 94)
1554
What are a few types of stresses that you could be exposed to in a Survival setting?
* Injury, Illness or Death
* Uncertainty and Lack of Control
* Environment
* Hunger and thirst
* Fatigue
* Isolation
1555
What is the depth of a hasty fighting position?
18 to 20 inches deep
1556
What is “Dead Space”?
An area that cannot be fired upon within a weapons sector.
1557
What is “Scanning”?
Focusing your attention on an object without looking directly at it. (The proper method to scan is
to move your eyes in short, irregular movements)
1558
What would your reaction be to an overhead flare?
Immediately crouch or lie down, and stop all movement
1559
What is the Low-crawl used for?
To move through places where concealment is limited and enemy fire prevents you from getting
up
1560
In order to maintain your heath, what rules must you follow?
* Prevent dehydration
* Eat sufficient food
* Maintain high personal hygiene.
1561
When you have been firing from one position, what should you do before you move?
Roll or crawl a short distance from your position before moving
1562
What is the High-crawl used for?
When concealment is good, but enemy fire prevents you from getting up
1563
What is the most important need in a survival situation?
Water
1564
What are the five factors for selecting a hide site when evading the enemy?
```
B -blends in with the surroundings
L -low in silhouette
I -irregular in shape
S -small in size
S -secluded.
```
1565
What are the eight rules for avoiding detection?
1. Identify the threat’s capabilities
2. Avoid detection
3. Use countermeasures against the enemy
4. Apply realistic camouflage
5. minimize movement
6. Use decoys
7. continuously avoid detection
8. Avoid operational/terrain patterns.
1566
What is a “Rally Point”?
An area where a platoon or section moves when it has become dispersed.
1567
When you move through tall grass, why do you change direction from time to time?
To avoid being seen by the enemy.
1568
What is a hole-up area?
After hiding for several days, it is an area where you can recuperate and get or prepare food.
1569
What is a Recon Patrols mission?
To provide accurate information on the enemy and terrain.
1570
When is it most feasible to travel while in a survival situation?
At night
1571
When should an evader attempt to contact friendly troops once near?
When there is enough light to be identified by the friendly forces.
1572
What are the three types of operation orders?
1. Warning Order
2. Fragmentary Order
3. Operation Order.
1573
What are the five parts to a combat order?
1. Situation
2. Mission
3. Execution
4. Service Support
5. Command & Control.
1574
When marching on roads during daylight hours, what is the recommended distance between
soldiers?
* 2-5 meters between soldiers
* 50 meters between platoons
* 100 meters between companies.
1575
When marching on roads during night hours, what is the recommended distance between
soldiers?
* 1-3 meters between soldiers
* 25meters between platoons
* 50 meters between companies.
1576
When constructing a defensive position as a platoon or squad, what should the rest of the
platoon or squad be doing?
Providing Security
1577
What is a patrol?
Operations conducted to gather mission critical information.
1578
What is “manually supporting fire”?
When weapons are placed in support of neighboring fighting positions (interlaced fields of fire).
1579
What are the three types of movement techniques used in combat?
1. High-crawl
2. Low-crawl
3. Rush.
1580
When marching, what is the distance that should be covered during the night on a road or
cross country?
* Road = 3.2kilometers per hour
| * Cross Country = 1.6kilometers per hour
1581
When marching, what is the distance that should be covered during daylight hours on a road
or cross country?
* Road = 4 kilometers per hour
| * Cross Country = 2.4 kilometers per hour
1582
How long does it take for your eyes to develop their "night vision"?
About 30 minutes
1583
What formation is normally used during tactical road marches?
Column of two, one file on each side of the road
1584
What is Camouflage, Concealment and Decoys (CCD)?
CCD is the use of materials and techniques to hide, blend, disguise, decoy, or disrupt the
appearance of military targets and/or their backgrounds. CCD helps prevent an enemy from
detecting or identifying friendly troops, equipment, activities, or installations. Properly designed
CCD techniques take advantage of the immediate environment and natural and artificial
materials.
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 1 / PDF 6)
1585
What Army Field Manual covers Camouflage, Concealment, and Decoys?
FM 20-3
1586
Is each Soldier responsible for Camouflaging and Concealing themselves and their
equipment?
Yes, Practicing good CCD techniques lessens a soldier's probability of becoming a target.
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 1-5 / PDF 7)
1587
The primary goal of CCD is to avoid enemy detection. What seven rules are critical when
considering how to avoid detection or identification?
1. Identify the enemy's detection capabilities.
2. Avoid detection by the enemy's routine surveillance.
3. Take countermeasures against the enemy's sensors.
4. Employ realistic, CCD countermeasures.
5. Minimize movement.
6. Use decoys properly.
7. Avoid predictable operational patterns.
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 3-1 / PDF 17)
1588
Any change in an existing terrain pattern will indicate the presence of activity. Terrain patterns
have distinctive characteristics that are necessary to preserve. What are the 5 general terrain
patterns?
1. Agricultural. Agricultural terrain has a checkerboard pattern when viewed from aircraft. This is a
result of the different types of crops and vegetation found on most farms.
2. Urban. Urban terrain is characterized by uniform rows of housing with interwoven streets and
interspersed trees and shrubs.
3. Wooded. Woodlands are characterized by natural, irregular features, unlike the geometric
patterns of agricultural and urban terrains.
4. Barren. Barren terrain presents an uneven, irregular work of nature without the defined patterns
of agricultural and urban areas. Desert environments are examples of barren terrain.
5. Arctic. Arctic terrain is characterized by snow and ice coverage.
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 3-37 / PDF 24)
1589
What is decoying?
Decoying is deploying a false or simulated target(s) within a target's scene or in a position where
the enemy might conclude that it has found the correct target(s). Decoys generally draw fire away
from real targets. Depending on their fidelity and deployment, decoys will greatly enhance
survivability..
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 3-51 / PDF 28)
1590
The LCSS is the standard Army camouflage net currently available, What do the stainless steel
fibers in the LCSS do?
They reduce a vehicle's visual and radar signatures. Stainless steel fibers in the LCSS material
absorb
some of the radar signal and reflect most of the remaining signal in all directions. The result is a
small percentage of signal return to the radar for detection.
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 3-63 / PDF 30)
1591
The radar-scattering capabilities of the LCSS are effective only if there is how much space
between the LCSS and the camouflaged equipment if the LCSS completely covers the equipment?
There must be at least two feet of space.
| FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 3-63 / PDF 30
1592
When using natural materials to camouflage it is important to what?
Not disturb the look of the natural surroundings and also use materials that are commonly found
in that specific are.
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / 5-19 / PDF 42)
1593
There are two types of cover and concealment. What are the two types?
1. Natural cover - ravines, hollows, reverse slopes, bushes, grass and shadows
2. Artificial cover - foxholes, trenches, walls, burlap, nets, or natural materials that are moved from
their original spots, such as leaves bushes, or grass
1594
When do you camouflage a fighting position?
Camouflage as you prepare it
1595
What is cover?
Physical protection from bullets, fragments of exploding rounds, flame, nuclear effects and
biological and chemical agents.
1596
What is concealment?
Protection from enemy observation
1597
What do you do with the excess dirt when digging a fighting position?
Take excess dirt away from the position to the rear
1598
One of the key factors of good camouflage is blending. What is blending?
Blending is trying to alter a target's appearance so that it becomes a part of the background.
Generally, it is arranging or applying camouflage material on, over, and/or around a target to
reduce its contrast with the background.
(FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / Section 2 / PDF 27)
1599
Give several examples of natural materials, which can be used to camouflage both you and
your equipment.
Leaves, bushes, and grass
| FM 20-3 Aug 1999 / Section 2 / PDF 27
1600
How often should you change the camouflage when using natural material?
When it doesn't look natural and blend in with the natural surroundings
1601
How do you camouflage your clothes and LBE?
Clothes, LBE and other weapons and equipment will have outlines altered by irregular patterns
added to blend with the predominant color of the background in the area
1602
After camouflaging your position what should you do?
Inspect it from the enemy's viewpoint at least 35 meters forward
1603
What do you do with tracks that lead into your position?
Cover or brush them
1604
Where should live foliage be gathered?
As far as possible behind your position, so the enemy cannot see where it has been taken from.
1605
What are two types of cover?
1. Natural
| 2. Man-made
1606
What are some examples of Natural cover?
* Logs
* Trees
* Stumps
* Ravines
* Hollows
1607
What are some examples of Man-made cover?
* Fighting positions
* Trenches
* Walls
* Rubble
* Craters
1608
Give some examples of natural concealment?
* Tree limbs
* Bushes
* Grass
* Shadows.
1609
What DA PAM covers The Army Maintenance Management System (TAMMS)?
DA PAM 750-8
1610
What DA PAM is the Guide for Motor Pool Operations?
DA PAM 750-35
1611
What Army Regulation covers the Army Materiel Maintenance Policy?
AR 750-1
1612
What DA PAM is the Leader’s Unit Maintenance Handbook?
DA PAM 750-1
1613
What are the 4 levels of Maintenance?
1. Unit
2. Direct support (DS)
3. General support (GS)
4. Depot
(DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / 1-8 / PDF 8)
1614
What does PMCS stand for?
Preventative Maintenance Checks and Service
| AR 750-1 Jan 2006 / Glossary / PDF 188
1615
When is a PMCS required to be performed?
Before, during and after the operation of a piece of equipment and also at weekly and monthly
intervals
1616
What is a TM?
A Technical Manual, outlines the specific scope of repairs on equipment
1617
What is a DD Form 314?
Preventative Maintenance Schedule and Record
| DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / 4-5 / PDF 21
1618
What forms are contained in the equipment record folder when the vehicle is dispatched?
• DA Form 2404 or DA Form 5988 E- Equipment inspection and maintenance worksheet
• DA Form 2408-14 (only if something is deferred or on order for the equipment)
• SF 91- Operator's report of motor vehicle accident
• DD Form 518- Accident ID card
• DA Form 5987 E or DD Form 1970- Vehicle utilization record
(DA PAM 750-8 Aug 2005 / 2-1 / PDF 21)
1619
Who is required to perform a PMCS?
Every operator who is assigned a piece of equipment
1620
What does TAMMS stand for?
The Army Maintenance Management System
1621
A thorough vehicle dispatch process is necessary as part of a quality maintenance program, to
ensure equipment is operationally ready before being dispatched and to establish an audit trail on
operators and equipment. Every leader should follow and check the dispatch procedures. The
dispatch process is evaluated by getting answers what questions?
1. Is the dispatcher appointed on orders per DA Pam 738–750?
2. Is an operator assigned to each vehicle and piece of equipment?
3. Is the equipment mission capable in accordance with the appropriate TM –10 series manuals?
4. Is a service or AOAP sample due on the equipment?
5. Does the dispatcher inspect the operator’s OF 346? ULLS performs the above checks
automatically.
6. Is the equipment suitable for the mission for whom it is dispatched?
(DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / 4-3 / PDF 18)
1622
Historical records are permanent records that show the receipt, operation, maintenance,
modification, transfer, and disposal of equipment. These records assist commanders in
maintaining equipment at the Army Maintenance Standard and achieving mission assigned
operationally ready rates. Some of the most frequently used historical records?
• DA Form 2408–4 (Weapon Record Data).
• DA Form 2408–5 (Equipment Modification Record).
• DA Form 2408–9 (Equipment Control Record).
• DA Form 2408–14 (Uncorrected Fault Record).
• DA Form 2408–20 (Oil Analysis Log).
• DA Form 2415 (Ammunition Condition Report).
(DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / 4-3 / PDF 19)
1623
What DA Form do you use to Request for Issue or Turn-in?
DA Form 2765
| DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / Glossary / PDF 34
1624
What is the DA Form 2407 used for?
To request support maintenance on a piece of equipment
| DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / 3-1 / PDF 13
1625
What type of manual is used to perform operator level PMCS?
The operator’s manual (10 series)
1626
Before a vehicle can be dispatched, what safety equipment must be present?
Fire extinguishers (up to date inspection tags), complete first aid kit and highway warning kit
1627
What is a class 1 leak?
Seepage of fluid not great enough to form drops
1628
What is a class 2 leak?
Seepage of fluid great enough to form drops, but not great enough to cause the drops to fall
during inspection
1629
What is a class 3 leak?
Seepage of fluid great enough to form drops and drip during inspection
1630
What does PLL mean?
Prescribed Load List
| DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / 4-4 / PDF 19
1631
How many days does a basic PLL sustain a unit?
15 days
| DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / 4-4 / PDF 19
1632
What does the Acronym MAIT stand for?
Maintenance Assistance and Instruction Team
| DA PAM 750-1 Oct 2003 / Glossary / PDF 36
1633
What does SOI stand for?
Signal Operation Instructions
| FM 24-18 Sept 1987 / 5-1 / PDF 110
1634
What does the SOI provide?
```
• The organization of stations into nets
• Assigns call signs
• Designates Net Control Stations (NCS)
• Assigns frequencies
• Changes to alternate frequencies
• Security Procedures to be used by Radio Operators
(FM 24-18 Sept 1987 / 5-2 / PDF 110)
```
1635
What Field Manual covers Tactical Single-Channel Radio Communications Techniques?
FM 24-18
1636
What percent of slack should you allow when laying WD1 wire?
20 percent
1637
Which means of communication is least secure?
Radio
1638
What are five methods of communication?
1. Radio
2. Sound
3. Visual
4. Messenger
5. Wire
1639
Which means of communication is most secure?
Messenger
1640
What is COMSEC?
COMmunications SECurity
| FM 6-02.45 Apr 2004 / 1-23 / PDF 13
1641
What is OPSEC?
OPerations SECurity
| FM 6-02.45 Apr 2004 / Glossary / PDF 251
1642
List 5 factors that affect the range of radio equipment?
* Weather
* Terrain
* Antenna
* Power
* Location
1643
What does NCS stand for?
Net Control Station
| FM 24-18 Sept 1987 / 5-2 / PDF 110
1644
What does MIJI stand for?
Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming and Interference
| FM 24-18 Sept 1987 / 6-6 / PDF 133
1645
What is the range of a TA-1 field phone?
Approximately 3.7 miles using field wire
| FM 24-24 Dec 1994 / Section 1 / PDF 11
1646
How many volts are in a TA-1 field phone when squeezed?
100 volts
1647
What is the maximum effective distance of a TA-312 field phone in wet and dry climates?
• Wet - 14 miles
• Dry -22 miles
(FM 24-24 Dec 1994 / 1 / PDF 15)
1648
What does CB, LB, and CBS stand for on a TA-312 field phone?
* CB-common battery
* LB-local battery
* CBS- common battery signaling
1649
BA30 batteries should be installed how, in a TA-312 field phone?
1 up 1 down
1650
What is WD-1?
Communications field wire
1651
What does the “W” and “D” stand for in “WD-1” Wire?
Wire Drum
1652
How deep should you dig when laying WD1 wire under hard-packed dirt roads?
6 to 12 inches
1653
How deep should you dig WD1 wire in loose or sandy soil?
At least 3 feet
1654
How much WD1 wire is on a donut roll (MX306)?
1/2 mile
1655
How much WD1 wire is on a DR8 reel?
1/4 mile
1656
How far beyond each side of the road should wire be buried?
At least 2 ft
1657
WD1 wire must be how high above a road crossing?
At least 18 ft
1658
How much tape should you use when taping a splice?
At least 4 inches
1659
What device is used to enter FH (Frequency Hop) Data info into the SINCGARS?
A MX-10579 ECCM Fill Device
| FM 24-18 June 1995 / 11-43 / PDF 150
1660
What do the letters AN and PRC stand for?
Army/Navy and Portable Radio Communicator
1661
What is an AN/PRC-68?
A type of Squad radio small unit transceiver
1662
What is the first thing you do before sending a radio message?
Listen to see if the Net is clear
1663
What does SINCGARS stand for?
SINgle Channel Ground/Airborne Radio System
1664
How much does the AN/PRC 77 weigh?
About 25 lbs
1665
What is the approximate range of the AN/PRC 77?
5 to 8 KM
1666
How many channels does the AN/PRC 77 have?
920
1667
What type of knot do you use when repairing WD1 wire?
A square knot
1668
Most infantry radios are _____ Modulated?
FM
1669
What does EPLRS Stand for?
Enhanced Position Location Reporting System
| FM 11-41 Dec 1991 / 3-3 / PDF 27
1670
What is “Supply Economy”?
Stopping haste, waste, and abuse of supplies, use only what is necessary
1671
Who is responsible for Supply Economy?
All individuals who deal with Army supplies
1672
What is a Report of Survey?
A document/investigation for recording the circumstances concerning the loss, damage, or
destruction of Army property
1673
If you lose or damage a piece of equipment and are required to pay for it, what is the action
taken?
Statement of Charges
1674
What are Expendable Supplies?
Supplies that are expended in one use i.e. (paint, paper, fuel, etc.)
1675
What is the purpose of the Army Clothing Allowance?
To replace initial issue items that become unserviceable
1676
How long must a soldier be in the Army to receive a clothing allowance?
At least 6 months
1677
When does a soldier receive clothing allowance?
On the anniversary month he/she entered the Army every year
1678
What is a Gratuitous Issue?
Replacement of clothing items that are lost, damaged, destroyed, or otherwise rendered useless
due to no fault of the individual and at no cost
1679
When initiating a “Report of Survey”, what is the time constraint?
within 15 calendar days after the discovery of the discrepancy
1680
What publication addresses the proper fit of Army uniforms and footwear?
TM 10-227 (Fitting of Army Uniforms and Footwear, 30 Dec 2000)
1681
When you sign a hand receipt, what does your signature establish?
Direct responsibility of the equipment
1682
Before signing a hand receipt what should you do?
Inspect the equipment for accountability and serviceability
1683
How many classes of supplies are there?
10
1684
What are some of the classes?
```
Class I= Rations
Class II= Clothing and Equipment
Class III= Fuels and Lubricants
Class IV= Fortification Material
Class V= Ammunition and explosives
Class VI= Personal Items
Class VII= Major End Items
Class VIII= Medical Supplies, Minimal Amounts
Class IX= Repair Parts
Class X= Miscellaneous Supplies
```
1685
What is the form number for a permanent Hand-Receipt?
DA Form 2062
1686
How many days does it take to initiate a report of survey?
5 days
1687
Name four ways you can be relieved from accountability of property?
Report of Survey, Statement of Charges, Cash collection voucher, Turn-In
1688
What is a DA Form 4697?
Report of Survey
