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Capstone 2 > BOD 2 & 3 > Flashcards

BOD 2 & 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Thymus’s default reaction to injury

A

atrophy

involution at sexual maturity normal, unless rodent or rabbit

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2
Q
  • Grower/weaner pigs 6-16 wks with systemic infection/chronic wasting/failure to thrive
  • On necropsy see lymphadenitis, thymic depletion
  • Histo shows active granulomatous inflammation, lymphoid depletion
A

PCV-2 causing Thymitis (really only main clinical cause why you’d see thymitis)

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3
Q

2 types of thymic neoplasia and assoc’d signalments

A
  1. Thymic lymphosarcoma (T cells) - likely FeLV assoc’d if cat (+/- chylous effusion)
  2. Thymoma (epithelial cells) - adult goats
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4
Q

2 paraneoplastic syndromes for thymoma

A

Dogs - myasthenia gravis

Cats - feline exfoliative dermatitis

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5
Q

DDx’s for diffuse, gelatinous, bloody, splenomegaly

A

Splenic torsion
Barbiturates
Splenitis

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6
Q

DDx’s for nodular, gelatinous, bloody, splenomegaly

A

Hematoma
Hemangioma
Hemangiosarcoma
Acute splenic infarction

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7
Q

Primary sites for hemangiosarcoma

A 
spleen
liver
right atrium
bone marrow
skin
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8
Q

How do you differentiate between African and Classical swine fever?

A

Classical - acute splenic infarcts

African - blood splenomegaly

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9
Q

DDx’s for diffuse, meaty, solid splenomegaly (bulges on cut)

A

Lymphosarcoma
Mastocytosis
Hyperplasia (d/t increased immune stim, phagocytosis, or hematoposesis

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10
Q

DDx’s for nodular, meaty, solid splenomegaly (bulges on cut)

A
  • nodular lymphoid hyperpalsia (lymphoid follicle proliferation)
  • neoplasm
  • granuloma or abscess (septic bacterial, fungal, protozoal)
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11
Q

primary splenic neoplasms (causing nodular splenomegaly)

A

LSA - can cause diffuse or nodular
leiomyosarcoma, fibrosarcoma
Myelolipoma

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12
Q

neoplasms that commonly metastasize to the spleen

A

mammary carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
osteosarcoma

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13
Q

Causes of lymphadenitis

A

Classic or african swine fever - hemorrhagic necrotizing lymphadenitis
Corynebacterium pseutoTB - casesous lymphadenitis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis or bovis - granulomatous lymphadenitis

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14
Q

Peripheral, caseous lymphadenitis in a goat

A

Corynebacterium pseutoTB

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15
Q 
fever + weight loss
mild anemia
stress leukogram
Paraneoplastic hypercalcemia (d/t PTHrP)
lymphadenopathy
organomegaly - spleen or liver usually
A

Clin signs of LSA in dog (B cell most often)

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16
Q

what virus causes LSA in adult cattle

A

BLV - bov leukosis virus (Retrovirus)

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17
Q

where is the multicentric location of LSA in cattle

A

HURLS - heart, uterus, retro-orbital/renal, lymph nodes, spinal cord/stomach

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18
Q

what disease state often predisposes dogs/cats for lymphangectasia (dilated lymph vessels)? rum?

A

d/c - PLE, chronic lymphangitis

rum - Johne’s dz

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19
Q

what causes serous atrophy of bone marrow adipose

A

negative E balance

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20
Q

Infectious causes of aplastic anemia

A

CPV-2, feline panleukopenia, FeLV, Rickettsia, Ehrlichia

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21
Q

why are young livestock at increased risk of septicemia –> physitis or osteomyelitis

A

decreased or failed passive transfer

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22
Q

Sequestrum and involucrum MOA

A

trauma/hypoxia –> bone necrosis –> foreign body reaction, lytic/exudate pocket

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23
Q

2 pathologies of non-infectious osteomyelitis in young dogs

A 
Panosteitis - medullary fibrosis, shifting leg lameness
Metaphyseal osteopathy (or hypertrophic osteodystrophy) - double physis on rads, progressive lameness
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24
Q

4 types of metabolic bone disease (all d/t Ca/P imbalance)

A

Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Rickets
Fibrous osteodystrophy

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25
What causes osteomalacia (defective mineralization of bone)
``` vit d deficiency (decreased Ca, P absorption) Phosphorus deficiency (or Ca or both) ```
26
MOA of rickets
- Vit D or P deficiency --> defective mineralization of osteoid in the physis (how differs from osteomalacia), juveniles only --> deformities - get metaphyseal flaring, rachitic rosary
27
Fibrous osteodystrophy MOA
``` Primary hyperparathyroidism (rare) or Secondary " " (renal dz or nutritional issue) --> High PTH --> excess Ca release from bone --> replacement fibrosis - soft spongy bones, rubber jaw ```
28
How does renal dz cause secondary hyperparathyroidism (thus, fibrous osteodystrophy)
Decreased excretion of P = high P, low Ca = increased PTH secretion = more Ca mobilized from bone
29
How does nutrition cause secondary hyperparathyroidism (thus, fibrous osteodystrophy)
high P, low Ca, low Vit D = increased PTH secretion = more Ca mobilized from bone e.g. carn on meat diet, Pig/EQ on grain/bran diets, lack of UVB in reptiles
30
Osteochondrodysplasia
abnormal endochondrial ossification --> defective cartilage development --> (disproportionate) dwarf stature or uncontrolled growth (e.g. daschhounds)
31
What is the most common primary bone tumor in domestics?
Osteosarcoma (malignant mesenchymal tumor of osteoblasts produces osteoid)
32
Osteosarcoma behavior
Osteolytic - destroys cortical bone, stimulates reactive woven bone, inflamm around site Highly invasive but doesn't cross joints/articular surfaces often metastasizes to lungs early
33
Eburnation
subchondral bone exposed through cartilage
34
How does synovium respond to injury?
inflammation villous hyperplasia of synoviocytes Pannus (fibroplasia over areas of eburnation)
35
immune-mediated polyarthritis is what type of hypersensitivity
type 3
36
focal areas of abnormal thickening of cartilage from failed ENOS of epiphysis is...? what can it progress to?
``` Osteochondrosis osteochondrosis dessicans (thick cartilage --> hypoxia --> necrosis, fragmentation of cartilage --> subchondral bone exposed, weakened --> subchondral cyst --> cavitating defect) ```
37
Who is especially prone to subchondral bone cysts
EQ
38
Which is an acute annulus rupture - hansen type I or type II IVDD?
type 1
39
What is the one bacterial spp that grows well in muscle (anerobic conditions)
Clostridium | C. chauvei causes true black leg in rum
40
What is the fatal lesion of black leg?
necrosis of cardiac muscle
41
severe extertion --> lactic acid buildup --> myonecrosis causes what 2 diseases?
Tying-up in EQ (EQ exertional rhabdomyolysis) | Capture myopathy in wildlife (--> death by cardiac necrosis)
42
malignant hyperthermia in pigs - MOA
genetic receptor mutation + stress --> ungregulated, prolonged Ca channels open --> sustained muscle contractions --> lactic acidosis, hyperthermia, death
43
what deficiency can cause a nutritional myopathy?
Vit E/Se - b/c not there to scavenge free radicals -- | > muscle damage/necrosis
44
CNS/brain trauma usually results in what?
Herniation —> ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke
45
Common MOA for atherosclerotic thrombosis
Hypothyroid or high fat diet —> hypercholesterolemia —> plaque build up and thrombosis
46
4 types of cerebral edema
Vasogenic - vascular injury, most severe, fluid accum in white matter Cytotoxic - intracellular accum d/t ionic change Interstitial - periventricular white matter d/t increased ventricular p Osmotic - protein loss in GI, kidney, or skin
47
Wallerian degeneration
White matter lesion Axonal change, then Macrophages eat degraded myelin leaving digestion chambers See in type 2 Hansen spinal cord dz
48
Feline ischemic encephalopathy often d/t
Cuterebra larvae migration causing focal cerebrovascular dz
49
PEM
Softening of cerebrocortical grey matter Usually a thiamine deficiency, excess thiaminases (in fish), heat, sulfur compounds Diagnose at necropsy w/ woods lamp
50
Thiamine deficiency, sulfur or lead tox, and salt tox all affect grey or white matter of the brain?
Grey
51
Circling disease is caused by who? Where are lesions seen?
``` Listeria monocytogenes Brain stem (also abortive, ocular, systemic infec besides nervous lesions) ```
52
How would you differentiate morbilivirus (canine distemper) from rabies on histo of neuro tissue?
Rabies - intracytoplasmic inclusions only | Distemper - intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions
53
Viruses that cause cerebellar hypoplasia in utero
Canine parvo Feline panleukopenia BVD, CSF
54
An adenoma of the adenohypophysis (ant pituitary) wiould cause what dz state?
Pituitary dependent Cushings (hyperadrenocorticism) - a secondary hyperfunc Excess ACTH = adrenal cortical hyperplasia = excess cortisol
55
Adenoma of pars intermida of adenohypophysis (ant pit) in EQ causes
PPID from excess ACTH, clip, etc
56
PTH causes an increase in what? Where does it act. | ?
Calcium, vit D3 | Kidneys (increase P secretion, Ca retention), bone, GI (Ca resorp)
57
Vitamin D increases what?
Calcium, Phosphorus
58
A parathyroid adenoma would show what on bloodwork?
Increased PTH, Ca Low P Normal or increased vit D Increased ALP
59
End stage renal failure causing secondary hyperparathyroidism would show what bloodwork?
High PTH, P | Nx or low vit D, iCa
60
Adrenals: what does each zone produce
Glomerulosa - mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) Fasiculata - glucocorticoids (cortisol) Reticularis - androgens, estrogens, progesterone
61
Common consequence of addisons dz
Pituitary nodular hyperplasia No negative feedback from cortisol (b/c adrenals are atrophied) = hyperplasia of pituitary to secrete more ACTH
62
Ferrets and adrenal tumors
Hx of gonadectomy at 5-6 wks = no neg fedback = excess LH, zona reticularis hypertrophy May also have active insulinoma - see adrenal dz + hyperinsulin/hypoglycemia
63
Function of glucagon
Hypoglycemia = glucagon inhibits insluin, stims glu release from liver and fat
64
Chronic/recurrent pancreatitis/ EPI or congenital islet hypoplasia can both cause what?
Diabetes mellitus
65
Two diseases of the guttural pouch
Empyema - strep zooepidemicus | Mycosis - aspergillosis
66
Who commonly gets otitis externa d/t ear conformation
Brachycephalics Herding breeds, goldens, pomeranians, cocker spaniels Moist environ —> secondaru bact infect, dermatitis
67
Secondary causes of otitis externa
Staph, proteus, pseudomonas, e coli Malassezia, candida yeast BACT AND YEAST ARE NOT PRIMARY CAUSES OF OE
68
Aural inflammatory polyps in cats is common with what kind of ear inflam?
Chronic otitis media
69
Lens injury results in
Cataracts - opacification of the lens
70
Sudden loss of vision is likely d/t
Retinal detachment
71
Leading cause of enucleation in dogs. Second?
Glaucoma (from sustained increased IOP) | Melanoma
72
common disease of intact older queens/bitches
CEM (cystic endometrial hyperplasia) | Progesterone primed endometrium --> CEM --> pyometra
73
MOA for pizzle rot in rams
High protein diet --> excess urea in urine where C. renale turns it into ammonia --> injury to local area
74
Bacteria plays a role in mummification or maceration?
maceration
75
sample trifecta for diagnosing abortion cases
placental, fetus, maternal serum
76
Mass in the oral cavity
melanoma unless proven otherwise | next likely: SCC, fibrosarcoma
77
how does bloat cause death?
asphyxiation, compression of caudal vena cava --> hypovolemic shock
78
MOA of grain overload? sequelae?
grain drops rumen pH --> rumen acidosis --> bact overload --> liver abscesses --> bacterial embolism --> pulmonary a. hemorrhage (f. necrophorum)
79
Is LDA or RDA more fatal in cows?
RDA
80
6 causes of red urine
IMHA, blister beetles, copper tox in sheep, blood parasites, bacillary hemoglobinuria, lepto
81
3 DDX's for vasculitis in pigs
Erysipelothrix, salmonella septicemia, pcv-2
82
Who needs a deep skin scraping? Demodex or sarcoptes
demodex
83
what nutritional disorder causes hyperkeratosis of skin
vit A and zinc deficiency
84
cancers that can cause hypercalcemia of malignancy
AGASACA (makes PTHrP) T cell lymphome multiple myeloma occasionally carcinomas
85
EQ sarcoids (most common horse skin tumor) caused by what?
bov papilloma virus

Capstone 2 (6 decks)

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