Catch-all Flashcards
1
Q
5 Freedoms of animal welfare
A
Freedom from hunger/thirst Freedom from discomfort Freedom from pain/injury/disease Freedom to express normal behavior Freedom from fear/distress
2
Q
Fraser’s 3 circles of animal welfare
A
Basic health/functioning
Natural living
Affective states
3
Q
5 Domains of animal welfare (newest framework)
A
Nutrition Environment Health Behavior Mental experiences
4
Q
Frameworks often used to assess animal welfare
A
5 freedoms, Fraser’s 3 circles, 5 domains, quality of life scales
5
Q
How do you tell a thrombus vs. a post mortem clot
A
thrombus is attached to endothelium, looks like cranberry sauce
PM clot isn’t attached
6
Q
How do you tell an arterial thrombus vs. venous thrombus
A
aterial - paler, dry (usually only fibrin, platelets can stick in a high P area), firmer, friable
venous - dark red, soft/gelatinous, shiny
7
Q
normal ratio of left ventricular wall to right ventricular wall
A
3 or 4:1
8
Q
-oma/sarcoma refers to tumors of what origin?
A
mesenchymal (these tumors also produce their own stroma - tumor microenvironment)
9
Q
-oma/carcinoma refers to tumors of what origin?
A
epithelial
10
Q
anisocytosis
A
variation in cell size
11
Q
pleomorphism
A
variation in cell shape
12
Q
anisokaryosis
A
variation in nuclear size
13
Q
what does tumor grade/stage mean?
A
grade - where on the spectrum of benign to malignant
stage - extent of tumor spread (e.g. lymph node involvment, metastasis)
14
Q
What is the protein that neoplastic cells stop responding to, which allows them to continue to grow and differentiate?
A
P53 - triggers apoptosis
15
Q
Most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy
A
carcinoma/sarcoma (90% adenocarcinoma) causing ectopic excess release of PTH or PTHrP
16
Q
Distribution of bronchopneumonia
A
cranial (b/c URT, aerogenous pathogen exposure)
ventral (b/c gravity)
aka lobar
17
Q
Distribution of interstitial (or also verminous) pneumonia
A
dorso-caudal
Can be diffuse, non-collapsing lung (b/c hematogenous pathogen exposure)
18
Q
hypervitaminosis A in reptiles and birds
A
squamous metaplasia of URT
hyperkeratinization of eyes
19
Q
Distribution of granulomatous or embolic pneumonia
A
random multifocal
If ganulomatous - top ddx is neoplasia
20
Q
which is more severe? suppurative or fibrinous?
A
Fibrinous
21
Q
2 bacteria that commonly cause lobar bronchopneumonia
A
Pasteurella Mannheimia haemolitica (shipping fever)
22
Q
bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema
aka atypical interstitial penumonia
aka fog fever
A
- non-infectious cause of interstitial pneumonia
- Lush pasture high in L-tryptophan –> metabolized into a toxin that kills pneumocytes/emndothelium
- acute edema, interstitial emphysema, dyspnea, mouth breathing and extended neck, but NO FEVER
23
Q
1 etiologic agent can produce respiratory disease with variable patterns
A
Rhodococcus equi can be inhaled or hematogenous entry –> different disease patterns
24
Q
Atelectasis
A
collapse or incomplete expansion of alveoli
25
tumors that commonly metastasize to lungs in dogs
mammary tumor
melanoma
lymphoma
26
tumors that commonly metastasize to lungs in cats
mammary tumor
thyroid carcinoma
vaccine site fibrosarcoma
27
restrictive respiratory dz is a decrease in _____ and causes what kind of breathing?
decreased compliance
| rapid, shallow breaths
28
obstructive respiratory dz is a decrease in _____ and causes what kind of breathing?
decreased ventilation
| slower deep respirations
29
atrophic rhinitis in pigs caused by who?
P. multocida (toxin causes turbinate remodeling) + B. bronchiseptica
30
Rednose aka Bovine infectious rhinotracheitis is caused by who?
BHV-1
31
"Roaring" in horses
laryngeal hemiplegia
atrophy of dorsal and lateral cricoarytenoid mm. on LEFT side (L recurrent laryngeal n. )
can occur in dogs too
32
What important things are in the guttural pouch?
Cr. nn. 7, 9-12
Internal carotid a.
cranial sympathetic trunk
33
Most common guttural pouch problem
Guttural pouch mycosis
usually lateral
inhalation of mold (Aspergillus spp) from feed = necrotizing fungal infection
See epistaxis, neuro probs
34
What to the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave relate to in a heartbeat
P - atrial depolarization
QRS - ventricular depolarization
T - ventricular repolarization
35
What does the RAA system regulate
blood volume to maintain perfusion
36
CO = ____ x _____
SV x HR
37
What activates the RAA system? What is the result?
peripheral vasoconstriction --> increased ADH and aldosterone from kidney/liver --> Na and water retention
38
Does high afterload --> concentric or eccentric hypertrophy?
concentric (d/t increased pressure)
39
Does high preload --> concentric or eccentric hypertrophy?
eccentric (d/t increased volume)
40
pulmonary edema a sign of what kind of failure of the heart?
left-sided, backward failure
41
ascites, brisket edema, etc can be signs of what kind of failure of the heart?
right-sided, backward failure
42
cor pulmonale
primary pulmonary dz causes secondary right heart failure
| e.g. COPD, dirofilariasis, pulmonary thromboembolism
43
how do clin signs vary between L and R sided CHF?
L - dyspnea, froth, etc
| R - venous engorgement, peripheral edema
44
Two hormones required for male parts to form
DHT, AMH
45
What cell types makes testosterone?
| AMH? E2? Progesterone?
T - Leydig cells, theca cells
AMH - Sertoli
E2 - Granulosa cells
P - luteal cells
46
What hormone activates leydig cells? sertoli?
L - LH
| S - FSH
47
How long does spermatogenesis take?
60 days
| then 10 to move through epidiymus
48
At what anatomic location are sperm fertile, but not mobile?
tail (cauda) of epidiymus
49
Tan, soft testicular tumor (most common testicular tumor in dog)
interstitial/leydig cell tumor
50
white, firm testicular tumor
sustentacular (sertoli) cell tumor
| Increases estrogen --> behavioral changes
51
Ferguson reflex is a neuroendocrine response d/t what? What is the result?
cervical stim (fetus in birth canal) or nursing/suckling causing milk let-down
causes oxytocin release --> uterine conxn, cervix relaxation, myoepithelial call conxn for milk, oviduct conxn (gamete movement)
52
What negatively feedbacks on FSH
E2, inhibin
53
What negatively feedbacks on LH
progesterone (produced by luteal cells in CL)
54
Role of PGF2alpha
produced by endometrium
| causes lysis of CL when not pregnant (except not for dogs/cats)
55
bloody vaginal mucus in a cow - breedable?
Nope. too late. In metestrus
| Standing to be bred = estrus
56
who are induced ovulators
SAC, cats, rabbits, ferrets
57
What hormone will be elevated in a spayed bitch
LH
| or look for low AMH
58
What is wierd about dogs and optimal breeding time
optimal breeding is post-ovulation for dogs
| standing heat occurs when progesterone increasing, E2 decreasing (vs. other spp heat is at estrogen peak)
59
what must an EQ embryo produce to pass from UTJ to uterus?
prostaglandin E2
60
What do bovine and ovine embryos secrete for MRP? How does it cause MRP?
```
interferon tau (IFN-t)
inhibits oxytocin receptors in endometrium
no oxytocin = no PGF2alpha synthesis or luteolysis
```
61
What do pig embryos secrete for MRP? How does it cause MRP?
estradiol (E2)
re-routes PGF secretion into uterine lumen
At least 4 embryos required for MRP, at least 1 in each horn
62
EQ MRP
exact signal unknown
| embryos migrate throughout uterine body and both horns multiple times
63
Why do horses not often have twins?
placental insufficiency = early loss or abortion
64
Diffuse placenta
EQ, pig
| microcotyledons evenly spread out across placenta
65
Cotyledonary placenta
rum
| discrete attachment sites btwn placental cotyledons and uterine caruncles (called placentoms)
66
zonary placenta
carnivores
| placenta and endometrium in band around fetus
67
epitheliochorial placenta
LA
6 layers of separation = no Ig transfer
colostrum intake critical
68
endotheliochorial placenta
dogs, cats
4 layers of separation = some ig transfer
colostrum intake important
69
hemochorial placenta
primates, rodents
3 layers of separation = significant Ig transfer
colostrum not a thing
70
What to EQ endometrial cups do?
produce eCG
eCG --> LH/FSH activity --> accessory CL = additional progesterone to support early pregnancy (until placenta takes over)
71
How could you could you figure out the cause of a hydranencephalic calf in CO?
Ab test for BTV and cache valley virus
| if negative, send to feds to test for akbane, schmallenberg
72
major teratogenic lesion of cytopathic BVDV
cerebellar hypoplasia
73
how does the fetus signal it's ready to be birthed in most spp?
Fetal ACTH, cortisol which increases estradiol/estrogen from placenta, which decreases progesterone, increases PGF2alpha
74
When is a placenta deemed pathologically retained, and why is that a concern?
>3 hrs
| concern is bacterial buildup --> peritonitis, laminitis, etc. especially for EQ
75
at what point do you need to intervene when a delivery is not occuring but animal is in stage 2 of parturition?
20-30 mins of pushing
76
what is absolutely required in the udder for milk production
glucose
| provides E and is precursor for lactose synth
77
Single most effective practice to reduce mastitis
post-milking teat dip
78
soft, tan-pink testis tumor in stallion that bulges on cut
seminoma (round cell tumor)
79
cut off for hypoxemia
PaO2 < 80 mm hg (severe < 60)
80
What cause of hypoxemia is absolutely not responsive to supplemental oxygen?
shunt, sometimes low V/Q mismatch
81
5 causes of hypoxemia
```
decreased PIO2
hypoventilation
diffusion impairment
V/Q mismatch
shunt
```
82
What kind of breathing is seen with restrictive lung dz?
| obstructive?
r - rapid, shallow
| o - deep, slow
83
Top 5 viral causes for resp dz in bov
BHV-1 (IBR), BVDV, BRSV, PI-3, BC(coronoa)V
84
What key resp bacteria do you want to vaccinate for?
M. haemolytica - leukotoxin causes necrosis, vacc must have leukotoxin to be effective
85
characteristic sign of metastatic pneumonia and it's MOA
hemorrhage - epistaxis, hemoptysis, anemia, melena
| septic emboli --> vena caval thrombosis, walls erode --> bleed a lot
86
description of interstitial pneumonia lungs
wet, heavy, don't collapse
87
which EQ herpesviruses cause resp dz (and abortion)
EHV 1 & 4
(1 also causes CNS & ocular)
5 - EQ multinodular pulmonary fibrosis
88
Differentiate between EQ influenza and EQ viral arteritisV
flu - constant severe cough
| EAV - occ. cough, ocular discharge, rash, abortion
89
Reportable EQ resp dz agents in CO
EAV
| EHV-1
90
Problem with timing of a R. equi infection
foals susceptible if <3 wks old, but don't see signs of dz until 3-6 mo old
91
emergency stabilization for URT obstructive dz
tracheotomy
92
How do you differentiate between false black leg and true black leg
true black leg will result in a positive fluorescent Ab Id of C. chauvoei
93
top DDx's for feline rhinitis (5)
```
neoplasia
FHV-1
B. bronchiseptica
Mycoplasma spp
allergens
```
94
Key part of treatment plan to reduce clin signs of dogs with airway collapse
weight loss
95
Common sequelae to cats w/ pyothorax
sepsis
96
Common kinds of heart dz in dogs
MMVD (or AV valve degen in general)
| DCM
97
Most common heart dz in cats
HCM
| severe concentric hypertrophy of LV --> diastolic dysfunc
98
Causes of DCM
- genetic
- Doberman pinscher
- Taurine def in cats
- grain free diet in dogs
99
On auscultation, what does S1 correlate to
MV/TV closing
100
On auscultation, what does S2 correlate to
AoV/PV closing
101
On auscultation, the time between S1 & S2 correlates to? Should it be longer or shorter?
systole
| should be shorter than diastole (S2 to S1)
102
In a normal heart echo, RV should be what size vs. LV
1/3 the size of the LV
103
What initial things occur with the beginning of HF (decreased CO, BP)
- RAAS to increase blood vol
- activate SNS to increase contractility/increase HR, systemic vasoconstriction
- chronic activation can be detrimental --> hypertrophy, fibrosis, arrhthmyia
104
systemic hypertension + heart dz implies what?
concurrent dz - kidney dz, cushings (dog), hyperthyroid (cat)
105
Key part of treating heart failure
diuretics or venodilators
| decrease pre-load to avoid causing venous congestion/edema
106
Treat L sided CHF
Laysix (furosemide) - Na/K/Cl pump inhibitor = facilitates excretion of all those + water
dry out the pulmonary edema with diuretics
107
Signs of R-sided HF
ascites, hepatomegaly, jugular pulses, SQ edema
108
Treat R-sided HF
Thoracocentesis - relieve resp distress drom pleural effusion
Furosemide/Laysix
109
Top 3 causes of HCM
primary HCM, hyperthyroid, hypertensive heart dz
110
General plan for treating emergency CHF in a dog
FOPS
| Furosemide, oxygen, pimobendan (positive inotrope by Ca sensitization), sedate
111
What is ACE-I used for?
at home CHF management, treat systemic hypertension, renal dz
112
a left apical systolic murmur - top ddx's are what? (3)
Mitral valve dysplasia d/t:
| DCM, bacterial endocarditis, congenital dysplasia
113
At home CHF management
FAPS
| furosemide, ACE-I, pimobendan, sprionolactone (aldosterone antagonist)
114
What is the secondary concern for HCM cats?
decreased ejection = stasis of blood = increased risk of thromboembolism
115
treat for acute thromboembolism
Analgesia FIRST
| then treat congestion if present, then go from there to threat thrombus
116
most common primary heart tumor
hemangiosarcoma (often see secondary pericardial effusion)
117
Cor pulmonale, anemia, proteinuria, hemoglobinuria, DIC, pulmonary hypertension, V/Q mismatch all =
heartworm
118
How does heartworm cause dz
Ag-Ab complexes --> glomerulonephritis
| abberant migrationt o eye, muscle, heart etc.
119
Reasons you may have a negative heartworm snap test
b/c it detects adult female heartworm Ag
| False neg if early infect, all male or low females
120
How do you treat hypertension long term?
Amlodipine (Norvasc) PO - vascular selective Ca channel blocker - stops Ca flow to vascular smooth m.
121
Common EQ heart dz
aortic valve degeneration
122
normal EQ arrhythmia
sinus arrhythmia w/ second degree heart block
123
most common congenital defect in rum
VSD
124
common arrhythmia in rum
atrial fibrillation
125
how to hook up an ECG for rum
base-apex lead - d/t anatomy of cow
126
if seen an arrhythmia in a cow - top 3 ddx
electrolyte abnormality
toxemia
neoplasia
127
diagnose bov high mountain dz
pulmonary artery pressure test (>50 is bad)
128
what is a key bloodwork indicator for endocarditis in rum
hyperglobulinemia
129
5 ddx's for brisket edema in cows
```
CHF
lymphosarcoma
endocarditis
pericarditis
pulmonary hypertension
```
130
how much O2 in an E tank? H tank?
650 L
| 7,000 L
131
what is lactate an indirect measure of?
hypoxemia
132
Increased bun but normal cr
hemorrhage in SI (b/c high protein —> ammonia pulled from protein and —> urea)
133
Which liver enzyme could also indicate a muscle issue?
AST (check CK - should also be elevated)
134
Which liver enzymes can be increased w/ increased steroids?
ALT, ALP (thus, Cushings = high ALP)
135
Enzymes that indicated liver function (induced enz)
ALP, GGT
136
Things produced by the liver - thus, abnormalities = prob w/ liver func
Albumin, BUN, Cholesterol, Glucose, Coag factors, bile acids
137
Test of choice to confirm canine pancreatitis
PLI
138
What bloodwork signs would separate maldigestion (EPI) from malabsorption
EPI - hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia, may see fecal fat, decreased B12
Malab - Hypocholesterolemia, panhypoproteinemia, hypocalcemic
139
Test of choice to confirm EPI? What numbers do you want?
TLI, <2.5 = EPI, > 5 = GI dz
140
Increased folate, decreased B12
bacterial overgrowth
141
Decreased folate, decreased B12
gen malabsorption
142
Test for PPID in EQ
Endogenous ACTH (no DDST b/c causes laminitis in animal already prone)
143
Calculate corrected chloride
Measured cl x (normal na/measured na)
144
Absolute hyperkalemia - top 3 ddx
Anuric or oliguric renal failure, uroabdomen/urinary obstruction, hypoadrenocorticism
145
Calculate anion gap
UA (na +k) - UC (bicarb + cl)
146
If you aspirate a lymph node and run flow cytometry and there is a spike in markers for CD21 antibodies - what type of lymphoma do you likely have?
B cell
If CD34 - immature cells aka acute leukemia
If CD45 - B & T cell
If CD 3-8 - T cell
147
When do you run PARR?
Need to confirm neoplastic (monoclonal) vs. reactive (polyclonal) - ID’s neoplastic cell pop only, no prognostic info
148
4 ddx for rich pleural effusion in cats
Chylothorax, reactive, lymphoproliferative/neoplastic, thymoma
149
When treating DKA, what do you address first
Fluid/electrolyte imbalance first, then regular insulin, then glucose
150
What take-home insulin do you give a DKA patient
Intermediate-acting (NPH or vetsulin)
151
Treat insulin in cats:
glargine
152
What is a common concurrent illness seen in hyperadrenocorticism cats
DM - glucose is counter-reg hormone
153
name counter-regulatory hormones
```
epinephrine
cortisol
progesterone
growth hormone
glucagon
thyroid hormone
```
