Bold Face Notes, Cautions, Warnings Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

Land As Soon As Possible

A

An emergency shall be declared and a landing at the nearest suitable landing area considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and command guidance

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2
Q

Land As Soon as Practicable

A

Emergency conditions are less urgent and, although the mission is to be terminated, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing may not be necessary

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3
Q

Suitable Landing Area

A

Hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun

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4
Q

The term “reset” is used to describe the action of resetting a circuit breaker that is already ___

A

open

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5
Q

In the AUTO start mode, if a ___ is detected or if a ___ or ___ is projected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence

A

no start (detected)
hung or hot start (projected)

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6
Q

The engine start should be aborted manually in the following situations:

1) ITT rate of increase appears likely to exceed ___ C (hot start)
2) ITT appears likely to remain between ___ - ___ C for > ___ seconds
3) Normal ___ increase is halted (hung start)
4) No rise of ITT is evident within ___ seconds after fuel flow indications (no start)
5) Red BATT BUS warning message illuminates during the start sequence. BATT BUS warning may illuminate prior to MFD failure at ___ volts. MFD failure and the inability to monitor the start is imminent
6) PCL is moved or the ___ green advisory message extinguishes during the start sequence

A

1) 1000 C
2) 871-1000 C >5 seconds
3) N1
4) 10 seconds
5) 12.88 volts
6) ST READY

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7
Q

Abort Start:

NOTE: Note and report the maintenance the ___ and ___ of any overtemperature

A

Degree and Duration

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8
Q

Abort Start:

NOTE: If start is initiated with PCL in the ___ position, abort by reselecting AUTO/RESET on the STARTER switch…

A

OFF

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9
Q

Abort Start:

NOTE: If start is initiated with PCL out of the ___ position, but not past the IDLE gate, abort by placing the PCL to ___ or reselecting ___/___ on the STARTER switch…

A

OFF
OFF
AUTO/RESET

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10
Q

Abort Start:

NOTE: If the PCL is past the IDLE gate, abort by placing the PCL to ___

A

OFF

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11
Q

Abort Start:

CAUTION: If a start using ___ power is either aborted by the PMU, or manually aborted for a ___, ___, or ___ start, do not attempt subsequent starts

A

external
hot, hung, or no start

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12
Q

Abort Start:

CAUTION: Repeated ___ aborted start attempts are indicative of ___

A

PMU
engine malfunction

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13
Q

Abort Start:

NOTE: During ground starts, certain parameters (weak battery, high ___, high pre-start ITT, high ___ altitude, tailwind) may cause the PMU to abort a ___ start attempt. Though these parameters are not directly monitored by the PMU, they cause a rate of rise in N1 and/or ___ that are indicative of an impending hung or hot start

A

high OAT
density altitude
battery start
ITT

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14
Q

Abort Start:

NOTE: If a battery start was aborted (PMU or manual abort), connect external power (if available) and perform ___ Procedure. Subsequent starts may be attempted if no engine malfunctions are evident and ___

A

Motoring Run Procedure
no limits have been exceeded

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15
Q

Emergency Engine Shutdown on the Ground:

In the event of:
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
accomplish the procedure

A

1) engine fire
2) prop strike
3) chip light
4) aircraft appears likely to depart the prepared surface
5) any other serious ground emergency occurs

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16
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

NOTE: In a situation requiring immediate ground egress, the ejection system has the capability for ___ ejection

A

0/0 ejection

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17
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

If emergency egress is required on the ground, perform the following steps after ___ and ___

A

after the aircraft has come to a complete stop and the engine has been shut down

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18
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

WARNING: Failure to ensure that the ISS mode selector is set to ___ may result in the inadvertent ejection of one or both seats

A

SOLO

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19
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

WARNING: Failure to insert both ___ (if occupied) before ground egress may result in inadvertent activation of ejection sequence and subsequent injury or death when performing emergency ground egress

A

ejection seat safety pins

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20
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

WARNING: If the canopy fracturing system malfunctions in conjunction with a canopy latch failure in the locked position, ___ may be the only option remaining to exit the aircraft. Aircrew shall remove the ejection seat safety pin and ensure ___, ___, and ___ are still attached prior to pulling ejection handle

A

ejection
shoulder straps, lap straps, leg restraint garters

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21
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

WARNING: To prevent injury, ensure ___ is on and ___ is down prior to actuating the CFS system

A

oxygen mask is on
visor is down

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22
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

WARNING: Each internal CFS handle activates ___. Both internal CFS handles must be activated in order to fracture both transparencies (if required)

A

only the CFS charge for the respective transparency

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23
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

What are the two methods to release the leg restraint garters?

A

1) actuate leg restraint line quick-release lever on left side of seat
2) use individual quick-release connectors on leg restraint garters

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24
Q

Emergency Ground Egress:

NOTE: ___, ___, ___, and ___ will pull free while vacating cockpit and leg restraint lines will pull through leg restraint garter D rings if released with quick-release lever

A

oxygen hose, emergency oxygen hose, communication leads, and anti-G suit hose

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25
Takeoff Emergencies: There are several factors which affect the pilot's decision to takeoff or abort. The decision to takeoff of abort should be based on the following: 1) 2)
1) Runway length and condition, terminal weather conditions and area traffic 2) If adequate directional control cannot be maintained or any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to Max Abort Speed, the takeoff should be aborted
26
Abort: If it becomes necessary to abort the takeoff, concentrate on maintaining ___, specifically ___, while stopping the aircraft on the remaining runway
aircraft control directional control
27
Abort: WARNING: After a stop which required maximum effort braking and if overheated brakes are suspected, do not taxi into or park in a ___ area until brakes have had ___. Do not set ___
congested area sufficient time to cool parking brake
28
Engine Failure Immediately After Takeoff (Sufficient Runway Remaining Straight Ahead) Indications are a ___ loss of power and a fairly rapid reduction in ___. A positive nose down pitch change will be needed to maintain a safe ___
total loss of power reduction in airspeed flying airspeed
29
Engine Failure Immediately After Takeoff (Sufficient Runway Remaining Straight Ahead) If sufficient runway remains, the best option is to continue straight ahead and ___. If that is not possible, careful consideration of the recovery situation must be made. An early decision to ___ may be the best option. Anticipate increased brake sensitivity when braking above ___ KIAS. In all cases, control the aircraft energy state through prudent use of altitude, airspeed, and ___
land eject 80 KIAS configuration
30
Engine Failure Immediately After Takeoff (Sufficient Runway Remaining Straight Ahead) WARNING: If insufficient runway remains to land straight ahead, consider immediate ___ WARNING: Do not sacrifice ___ while troubleshooting or lowering gear with emergency system
ejection aircraft control
31
Engine Failure Immediately After Takeoff (Sufficient Runway Remaining Straight Ahead) NOTE: The pilot should select ___ to use the increased drag of the not yet feathered propeller or select ___ to reduce the sink rate
IDLE OFF
32
Engine Failure Immediately After Takeoff (Sufficient Runway Remaining Straight Ahead) NOTE: With a loss of hydraulic pressure, landing gear and flaps cannot be lowered ___
by normal means
33
Engine Failure During Flight: In the event of an engine failure, a decision to ___, ___, or ___ must be made
eject, land, or airstart
34
Engine Failure During Flight: Initial indications of engine failure/flameout are: 1) 2) 3)
1) loss of power and airspeed 2) rapid decay in N1, torque, and ITT 3) propeller movement towards feather due to loss of oil pressure
35
Engine Failure During Flight: Depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately ___ seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized
5 seconds
36
Engine Failure During Flight: N1 does not indicate speeds below ___%. Torque will be indicating ___%. As the propeller moves towards feather, it may still be turning (windmilling), but at a reduced RPM. Secondary indications include rapidly decreasing ___ and lower-than-normal ___ pressure
8% 0% ITT oil pressure
37
Engine Failure During Flight: The ___, ___ PX, and ___ PX warning will illuminate, followed by ___ FAIL warning. The PMU FAIL and CKPT PX warning may illuminate
GEN, FUEL PX, and OIL PX warning OBOGS FAIL
38
Engine Failure During Flight: Sufficient hydraulic pressure may not be available to operate the gear and flaps as the engine spools down. Gear and flaps will remain in the ___ at the time of engine failure. Gear may indicate unsafe or in transit if operation is attempted at time of engine failure
last selected position
39
Engine Failure During Flight: Initial reaction to any malfunction at low altitude should be to ___. Higher altitude translates directly to additional terrain clearance for ___, additional glide range to reach a suitable landing, or additional time to achieve an ___
trade excess airspeed for altitude ejection airstart
40
Engine Failure During Flight: The pilot should zoom to eject if the engine has failed and there are no suitable ___ options and a restart is not warranted ... The zoom to eject is accomplished by pulling up to ___ climb angle (if able) and ejecting before a ___ develops If the decision to eject is not immediately obvious, follow the ___ procedure
landing options 20 degree climb angle sink rate zoom to climb procedure
41
Engine Failure During Flight: If attempting an airstart or positioning to land, the following procedures should be followed. Above ___ KIAS, initiate a zoom climb using a ___ G pull up to a ___ degree climb angle until approaching the desired glide airspeed (use approximately ___ KIAS lead point) and then initiating a ___ to ___ G push-over to capture desired glide airspeed
150 KIAS 2G 20 degree 20 KIAS 0 to +0.5 G
42
Engine Failure During Flight: If attempting an airstart or positioning to land, the following procedures should be followed... ...Below ___ KIAS, the benefits of a zoom climb are negligible. The recommended procedure is to perform a constant altitude deceleration to desire glide airspeed
150 KIAS
43
Engine Failure During Flight: Zoom capability at 200 knots will vary from ___ to ___ feet of altitude gained. Zoom capability at 250 knots will vary from ___ to ___ feet altitude gained. The lower numbers are for light aircraft at low pressure altitudes and the higher numbers are for heavier aircraft at higher pressure altitudes. The zoo to eject procedure will gain an additional ___ feet of altitude
603 to 915 feet 1180 to 1576 feet 200 feet
44
Engine Failure During Flight: NOTE: Zoom results with an engine still producing useable torque (>___%) will be several hundred to several thousand feet higher in altitude gained
>6%
45
Engine Failure During Flight: NOTE: Each low altitude zoom capability chart depicted in Figure 3-2, Figure 3-3, and Figure 3-4 represents a ___. Each chart assumes the pilot will not perform any action prior to actual engine failure
no engine condition
46
Engine Failure During Flight: If a decision is made to land, enter the emergency landing pattern at ___, if possible. If ___ entry is not possible, it may be possible to intercept the pattern at a lower altitude. Glide performance will be considerably reduced until ___
high key high key the propeller is feathered
47
Engine Failure During Flight: Glide Speeds, Sink Rates, Ratios: 1) Clean, feathered 2) Gear down, feathered 3) Flaps landing, gear down, feathered 4) Clean, windmilling
1) 125 KIAS, 1350 fpm, 2.0 NM/1000 feet 2) 105 KIAS, 1500 fpm, 1.6 NM/1000 feet 3) 95 KIAS, 1800 fpm, 1.1 NM/1000 feet 4) 110 KIAS, 2350 fpm, 1.0 NM/1000 feet
48
Engine Failure During Flight: NOTE: IF experiencing uncommanded power changes/loss of power/uncommanded propeller feather or compressor stalls, refer to ___
appropriate procedure
49
Engine Failure During Flight: NOTE: Propeller will not feather unless the PCL is fully in ___
OFF
50
Engine Failure During Flight: WARNING: If a suitable landing surface is available, turn immediately to intercept the nearest suitable point on the ELP. Any delay could result in insufficient ___ to reach a landing surface
gliding distance
51
Engine Failure During Flight: WARNING: Do not delay decision to eject below ___ feet AGL
2000 feet AGL
52
Engine Failure During Flight: WARNING: Airstart procedure is not recommended below ___ feet AGL, as primary attention should be to ___ or safely recover the aircraft
2000 feet AGL eject
53
Engine Failure During Flight: NOTE: Crosscheck ___ against other engine indications to assess condition of engine and determine if an airstart is warranted. At ___ KIAS, an engine which has flamed out will rotate below ___% N1 and indicated ___% N1. The engine oil pressure indicator may display oil pressures up to ___ psi with or without the engine seized
125 KIAS 8% N1 0% N1 4 psi
54
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) Use this procedure if engine failure was not due to ___ or ___. If the airstart is successful, useful power will be available after ___ seconds from ___
fire or mechanical failure 40 seconds from starter engagement
55
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) The extra drag during airstart attempts will cause a greater descent rate than ___ to ___ feet/minute. Approximately ___ feet of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at best glide speed of ___ KIAS. Approximately ___ seconds will be required to complete the starting sequence.
1350 to 1500 feet/minute 1200 feet 125 KIAS 40 seconds
56
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) WARNING: Consideration should be given to not attempting an airstart if on a minimum glide profile to an airfield, since repeated airstart attempts will result in ___
excessive altitude loss
57
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) WARNING: Airstart attempts outside of the airstart envelope may be unsuccessful or result in engine overtemperature. Consideration should be given to ensure airstarts are attempted within the airstart envelope (___-___ KIAS for sea level to ___ feet, or ___-___ KIAS for ___ to ___ feet)
125-200 KIAS for sea level to 15,000 feet 135-200 KIAS for 15,001 to 20,000 feet
58
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) WARNING: Do not delay ejection while attempting airstart at low altitude if below ___ feet AGL. PCL must be in ___ to feather the propeller, and ensure proper starter, ignition, boost pump, and PMU operation during airstart
2000 feet AGL OFF
59
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) CAUTION: Ensure PCL is in ___; otherwise, fuel may be ___ introduced during start
OFF prematurely
60
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) CAUTION: If N1 does not rise within ___ seconds, discontinue the airstart attempt and proceed to IF AIRSTART IS UNSUCCESSFUL due to suspected ___
5 seconds mechanical failure
61
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) WARNING: Movement of the PCL above ___ before N1 stabilizes at approximately ___% will cause an increase in fuel flow which may cause engine failure due to a severe ITT overtemperature
IDLE 67%
62
Immediate Airstart (PMU NORM) CAUTION: If there is no rise in ITT within ___ seconds after fuel flow indications, place the PCL to ___ and abort the start
10 seconds OFF
63
Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather NOTE: Mid range is a ___ PCL angle that approximates the midway position between IDLE and MAX A PCL position above ___ will provide the best chance for the engine to recover A ___ PCL position will minimize the potential of engine overtorque and/or overtemperature when the PMU is turned OFF
physical IDLE mid-range
64
Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather CAUTION: There is a potential for ITT limits to be exceeded if the PMU switch is turned OFF with ITT >= ___ C ___ will not be available during landing rollout and taxi. Plan for increased landing distances due to higher IDLE N1 (approximately ___%)
>= 820 C Ground idle 67%
65
Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather NOTE: With constant ___ and ___, RPM can be considered stable if below ___% and no upward change for a ___ second period If NP indicator is displaying ___, switching the PMU to NORM and back OFF will reset the PMU and should restore Np indication Propeller should come out of feather within ___ seconds
constant airspeed and torque 40% 3-second period red X's 15-20 seconds
66
Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather WARNING: If rate of descent (indicated on the VSI while stabilized at ___ KIAS with gear, flaps, and speed brake retracted and ___% torque) is greater than ___ ft/min, increase torque as necessary (up to ___%) to achieve approximately ___ ft/min rate of descent. If engine power is insufficient to produce a rate of descent less than ___ ft/min, set PCL to OFF
125 KIAS 4-6% 1500 ft/min 131% 1350-1500 ft/min 1500 ft/min
67
Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather NOTE: The pilot should consider moving the PCL through the ___ to determine power available
full range of motion
68
Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather CAUTION: Consideration should be given to leaving the engine operating with the PCL ___
at mid range
69
Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather WARNING: With the PROP SYS circuit breaker pulled and the PMU switch ___, the feather dump solenoid will not be powered. The propeller will feather at a slower rate as oil pressure decreases and the feathering spring takes effect. Glide performance will be considerably ___ and it may not be possible to intercept or fly the ___
OFF reduced Emergency Landing Pattern
70
Compressor Stalls Compressor stalls may be initially identified by abnormal engine noise, increasing ___, and decreasing ___ and ___, possibly followed by fluctuations in these indications
increasing ITT decreasing N1 and torque
71
Compressor Stalls NOTE: Setting the DEFOG switch to ___ automatically selects ___ and will alleviate back pressure on the engine compressor
ON high bleed air inflow
72