bone infections and oncology Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

what two factors are needed to differentiate types of infections?

A

depth of involvement and presence of necrosis

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2
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

bone infection characterized by inflammatory destruction and apposition of new bone

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3
Q

what is septic arthritis?

A

a joint infection

staph (most common), mycobacteria, spirochetes, fungi, virus

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4
Q

what category of infection does necrotizing fasciitis fall under?

A

soft tissue infections

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5
Q

what are the routes of infection spread?

A

hematogenous, contiguous (bone/bursa), direct (skin)

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6
Q

what risk factors predispose pts to bone infections?

A
age
diabetes
immune state
RA
Cirrhosis, HIV, CRD
malignancy
obesity, ETOH/smoking
steroids
malnutrition
surgery
vascular insufficiency
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7
Q

what is the mechanism of osteomyelitis spread in peds?

A

hematogenous seeding of bacteria to metaphyseal region w sluggish flow

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8
Q

why is osteomyelitis more common in the first decade of life?

A

rich metaphyseal blood supply, immature immune system

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9
Q

what is the molecular result of OM?

A

pus, osteoblast necrosis, osteoclast activation, inflammatory factors release, thrombosis

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10
Q

where does OM happen in peds?

A

long bones (femur)

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11
Q

where does OM happen in adults?

A

vertebrae most common

spine/ribs for dialysis pt

clavicals for IVDU

foot for diabetics

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12
Q

what is the most common organism causing OM?

A

S. aureus

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13
Q

what is the mainstay of Dx for OM?

A

bone aspirate/biopsy
high CRP, ESR
MRI for early Dx, XR doesn’t show up for a while

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14
Q

under what circumstances can OM be managed by antibiotics alone?

A

no pus, acute

chronic, need surgical drainage, debridement and Abx

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15
Q

where does septic arthritis happen in kids?

A

hip, shoulder, ankle elbow (overlapping joint capsule and metaphysis)

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16
Q

where does SA happen in adults?

A

knee, then hips

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17
Q

what organisms cause SA?

A

staph, neisseria

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18
Q

what is seen on XR for SA?

A

joint space widening/effusion, periarticular osteopenia

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19
Q

what is the Tx for SA?

A

operative: incision + drainage + IV antibiotics

rarely non-op (except neisseria + gonorrhea, treat w penicillin)

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20
Q

what is the golden period in open wounds?

A

time after injury that wound can be closed w/o increasing infection risk

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21
Q

what factors indicate a wound that needs the tetanus vaccine and Ig?

A

unknown/incomplete immunization, >6hrs, irregular, devitalized tissue, gross contamination, >1cm depth, projectile and crush injury, burn/frostbite

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22
Q

what are factors that indicate a wound only needs tetanus vaccine?

A

immunization to date, no booster in 5 yrs, small wounds

23
Q

what is necrotizing fasciitis?

A

rapid progressive infection of deep fascia w secondary necrosis of sc tissue

24
Q

what organism causes NF?

A

strep group A

25
how do you Dx NF?
biopsy for necrosis/microorganisms
26
how is NF tx?
debridement, broad spec antibiotics, hemodynamic support, amputation if needed * Pen G for strep/C diff * Vanco if MRSA * Imipenem if polymicrobial * IVIG for strep and TSS
27
an aggressive bone lesion in >40yo is likely____ an aggressive bone lesion in <40yo is likely___
metastatic carcinoma or myeloma sarcoma
28
what tissues can sarcoma originate from?
fat, muscle, cartilage, bone, nerves, blood vessel | connective tissue of mesenchymal origin
29
what is the order of likely etiology of bone lesions?
benign>carcinoma>soft tissue sarcoma>bone sarcoma
30
when can a benign lesion become deadly?
if subcapital, can lead to AVN
31
what is the gold standard for Dx bone sarcoma?
biopsy
32
where do sarcomas tend to metastasize?
bone and chest
33
what is the most important predictor of survival in bone sarcoma?
presence of metastases
34
what are the characteristics of a ewing sarcoma?
sheets of cells (lamellar), moth eaten look, thickening of periosteum to control tumor growth
35
what is the most common bone sarcoma?
osteosarcoma
36
where do osteosarcomas tend to occur?
ends of long bones
37
what population tends to have chondrosarcomas?
40-70
38
how is chondrosarcoma tx?
surgical (not sensitive to chemo)
39
how does ewing sarcoma differ from osteo/chondrosarcomas?
cellular proliferation that doesn't form bone/cartilage
40
where does ewing sarcoma occur?
diaphysis of long bones, pelvis
41
where does chondrosarcoma occur?
pelvis
42
how does ewing sarcoma present?
with systemic signs present
43
what is the most effective tx for ewing sarcoma?
BM aspirate and radiation
44
what are the complications associated with expandable prosthesis?
joint contractures, small injuries, infections, failures
45
what is epiphysiodesis
halt growth of oppositing growth plate in pt with growth plate tumor
46
what are the types of benign bone lesions?
cysts, cartilage tumors, bone forming tumors, fibrous lesions, infections
47
what is the most common benign bone lesion?
enchodroma
48
what benign lesion is often mistaken for ewing?
osteoid osteoma
49
what benign lesion is most likely to occur at the prox femur/humerus?
bone cysts
50
why is giant cell tumor of the bone considered aggressive?
can destroy bone (recruit osteoclasts) even though it's not a tumor (not life threatening)
51
where do bone lesions metastases from MM tend to form?
spine, ribs, pelvis, femur, humerus
52
where do lung/breast metastases tend to locate?
knee/elbow
53
on x rays, benign vs. malignant
Benign bone lesions = well-defined borders, sclerotic rim, septations Malignant bone lesions = poorly defined borders, periosteal reaction, cortical erosions, ST mass
54
Tx for sarcoma
chemo, surgical resection