Lower Extremities (foot, ankle, knee, hip) Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

what is the typical etiology of an achilles tendon rupture?

A

kick to the post calf, males, missed 25% of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the two endpoints of the wtbearing axis?

A

femoral head to talar dome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the physiological heel position?

A

valgus, varus when walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what predisposes people to rolling ankles?

A

naturally varus ankles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what joint is responsible for dorsi/plantar flexion of the foot?

A

tibiotalar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what joint is responsible for inversion/eversion of the foot?

A

subtalar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

should you inject steroids into the achilles tendon?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what tendons make up the achilles?

A

gastrocnemius and soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why is the achilles tendon slow healing?

A

watershed area at calcaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the most effect Dx of achilles rupture?

A

thompson test
no plantarflexion of ankle with squeezing calf
ability to plantar-flex is not good method (FDL, Tib Post, FHL, Plantaris, Peroneus Longus can also plantar-flex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the best Tx for achilles rupture?

A

plantarflex splint for 1-2 wks, refer to surgery if needed
high risk DVT, follow up
rehab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the typical mechanism of ankle sprains?

A

inversion and plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what ligament is the most commonly torn in ankle sprains?

A

ATFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

according to the ottawa ankle rules, when is an XR needed in ankle sprains?

A

bony tenderness of lateral & medial malleoli, inability to bear wt, age >55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the Tx for ankle sprains?

A

RICE, functional rehab (months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when would you order an MRI in ankle sprains?

A

usually people

suspected talar osteochondral injury, peroneal tendon damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DDx for persistant ankle sprain (2-3 mo):

A

bony injury, tendon injury, ligament injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what type of fractures usually happen in the ankle?

A

rotational

pilon fractures from axial load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what Hx elements indicated an ankle fracture?

A

sounds like sprain but unable to bear wt, or reported dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is surgery needed in ankle sprains?

A

displaced LM fracture, bimalleolar/trimalleolar fracture

avulsive lateral malleoli fractures are on the same spectrum as ankle sprains and can be treated like them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the biggest risk factor for bunions (hallux valgus)?

A

genetics

medial deviation of first metatarsal and lateral deviation and pronation of hallux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the firstline Tx for bunions?

A

accommodative footwear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when is surgery indicated in bunions?

A

pain, progression, transfer metatarsalgia (secondary pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is hallux rigidus?

A

arthritis in big toe MTP joint
trauma, idiopathic
may coexist with bunions
osteophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what Tx are given for HR?
rest, NSAIDs, activity mod. footwear mod, mortons extension shoe inserts cortisone surgical options avail
26
in what cases are flatfeet (Pes planovalgus) problematic?
pediatric stiff flatfeet (bony fusions), progressive, acquired flatfeet in adults
27
what are the dynamic stabilizers of the foot?
Tibialis posterior tendon (key), spring ligament, deltoid ligament, plantar fascia
28
what symptoms would be seen in TPT dysfunction?
pain in medial foot first, then lateral, static stabilizers fail first test with single limb heel rise Tx with RICE, NSAID, ankle supports, no cortisone, surgery
29
what does healthy articular cartilage need?
attachment to healthy subchondral bone (if detached, detect as foreign material and sets off inflammation), healthy synovial fluid in joint
30
what causes abnormal forces on cartilage in joint?
instability, malalignment, obesity
31
what are the hallmarks of degenerative joint disease (DJD)?
increased water, decrease chondrocytes and proteoglycan, abnormal collagen
32
what are the primary causes of arthritis?
degenerative, autoimmune
33
what are the XR features of arthritis?
joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, cysts, osteophytes
34
what does varus knees indicate?
significant OA
35
what is the trendelenberg sign?
limp in arthritis
36
what are common signs of hip arthritis?
limb length discrepancy, muscle atrophy
37
``` in classical OA of hip, which motion is lost first? A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Internal rotation D. External rotation ```
internal rotation
38
what does the crescent sign indicate?
fracturing femoral head
39
what is the last stage of hip arthritis?
femoral head collapse and secondary arthritis
40
can arthroscopy fix arthritis?
No | in setting of head collapse, total hip replacement and decompression
41
what is the requirement for knee realignment?
joint space
42
what causes knee replacement failure?
infection, loosening (infection or aseptic), plastic wearing out, trauma revision arthroplasty has higher risk of DVT/PE, failure, stiffness, etc.
43
what is the cause of aseptic loosening?
obesity
44
what is the gold standard for advanced AVN?
total arthroplasty
45
what's the most common mechanism of ACL injury?
non-contact pivot external
46
what is a chronic risk of torn ACL?
arthritis due to bone shift (instability)
47
what Tx can be done for an ACL tear if the pt is too young for knee replacement?
stabilizing plates
48
what are indications for urgent MRI in acute soft tissue knee problems?
hemarthrosis in the skeletally immature, multiply ligamnet injury, patellar dislocation/osteochondral fractures, discordance between Hx and PE, comorbidities that contraindicate XR, inability to distinguish locked and stiff knee
49
can a locked knee perform flexion?
yes
50
what can cause a locked knee?
meniscus tear, torn ACL, loose body
51
if the joint is swollen immediately after injury, what is the fluid made of?
blood
52
what test can be used to Dx a dislocated knee cap?
apprehension sign w varus/valgus
53
what is the typical mechanism of patella/quad tendon rupture?
EC loading
54
how would a meniscus tear present?
no swelling/bruising, tenderness at joint line
55
what does the MCL prevent?
genu valgus
56
what is the Lachman's test used for?
ACL/PCL function test
57
what common radiographic feature can be found on ACL tears?
segond fracture from avulsion
58
what is a risk factor for ischemia in knee dislocation?
proximity to popliteal artery
59
what is hemarthrosis?
bleeding in joint capsule
60
what's the difference between acute and chronic MSK injuries?
acute-trauma, energy input to tissue> absorbed chronic-overuse, inadequate recovery between stress
61
what are the most common areas of stress fractures?
lower extremity (tibial and metatarsal)
62
what do you Dx stress fractures?
TBS
63
why are stress fractures in the anterior tibia harder to tx?
higher rate of delay and non union
64
what part of the LE is most affected by periostitis?
medial tibia
65
how should quadricep contusions (crush injury) be managed?
immobilize in flexion to prevent stiffness, compression to prevent hematoma
66
what is a potential complication of muscle strain/tear?
myositis ossificans secondary to muscular bleed
67
what types of tendon tears are indicative of urgent surgery?
young RC tear, distal biceps tendon, quads/patellar tendons, achilles/peroneal/post tib
68
what disorder is indicated by lateral knee pain worse with downhill, "catching feeling", and lack of knee swelling?
ITBS
69
where is acute post trauma bursitis likely to occur?
olecranon or pre-patellar area
70
what causes frozen shoulder?
capsule synovitis and fibrosis
71
what is synovial fluid
ultrafiltrate of blood plasma lubrication, nutrition, shock absorption 10cc
72
DDx of hemarthrosis
``` bleeding disorder (hemophilia A,B, VWD) fracture (patella, femoral condyle, tibial plateau) extensor mechanism injury meniscus tear ligament tear ```
73
Ottawa knee rules include
``` Age 55 or older Isolated tenderness of patella or tenderness of head of fibula or inability to flex >90 degrees or inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for 4 steps ```
74
describe patellar dislocation (extensor mechanism injury)
Hx: pop, painful, deformity, risk factors of valgus, F>M, 'double jointed' Tx: imaging often normal, usually non-operative (PT + bracing)
75
describe quadriceps/patellar tendon rupture (extensor mechanism injury)
Hx: pain, pop, difficulty weightbearing, eccentric contraction, risk factors of steroids, Abx, age, pre-existing tendonitis, uremia Dx: straight leg raise, XR, Tx: surgical correction
76
mechanism of injury for tendon rupture; which of the following is incorrect? Lunging for ball in squash game (Achilles) Catching a TV that’s falling off a shelf (biceps) Clean and jerk (quadriceps) Landing from a basketball lay-up (Achilles) Lifting a heavy tire into the back of a pickup truck (biceps)
Lifting a heavy tire into the back of a pickup truck (biceps)
77
function of meniscus
stability, lubrication and nutrition, axial load transfer, shock absorption
78
describe bucket handle tear
tear along the length, leaves handle-like flap Hx: pop, twisting mechanism, no bruising, PMT along joint line Dx: Mcmurray/Apleys MRI Tx: non-op if no pain, transplant from cadavers
79
Medial collateral ligament (MCL) prevents ____ and can be tested with ______
Medial collateral ligament (MCL) prevents valgus and can be tested with valgus stress at 0 and 30 degrees
80
Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) prevents ____ and can be tested with ______
Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) prevents varus and can be tested with varus stress at 0 and 30 degrees
81
Anterior cruciate ligament prevents ____ and can be tested with ______
anterior translation, rotation | Anterior drawer test, pivot shift
82
Posterior cruciate ligament prevents ____ and can be tested with ______
posterior translation, posterior drawer/Lachman
83
what is a segond fracture?
avulsion fracture (soft tissue structures tearing off bits of their bony attachment) of the lateral tibial condyle of the knee
84
healing potentials of knee ligaments
ACL has no potential to heal | MCL & LCL have better blood supply and are surrounded by synovial fluid
85
Tx for ligament tears
``` Crutches; collaterals: 4-6 weeks, cruciates: for comfort purposes Bracing; collaterals: 4-6 weeks, cruciates: no, put PCL is exception Surgical reconstruction (ACL) ```
86
define valgus
bone segment distal to a joint is angled outward, that is, angled laterally
87
define varus
excessive inward angulation (medial angulation) of the distal segment of a bone or joint
88
composition of articular cartilage (joint)
65-80% water Type II collagen proteoglycans chondrocytes
89
Tx for knee arthritis
NSAID, cortisone, visco-supplementation, analgesic, walking aids, weight loss, PT, orthotics, conditioning severe: arthroscopy
90
Etiology of avascular necrosis
SCD, viral, bacterial, fracture, dislocation, EtOH, Gaucher's, hyperlipidemia, steroid therapy, MM, irradiation induced, Caisson's disease (nitrogen bubble)