Bone lesions of the jaw Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Bone structure (3)

A
• Gross structure
• Blood supply
• Microscopic structure
– lamellar bone - mature
– woven bone - immature (see this in embryology and healing or in a lesion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bone histology (5)

A

Cortical/ compact bone on outside
Cancellous bone on inside
-haemopoetic marrow and fat
In centre of traversian systems/ osteon are Haversian canals (contain BVs)
Osteocytes contained in holes you see on histology
Osteoblasts lining surface of woven bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bone turnover (4)

A
  • Laid down by osteoblasts (some osteoblasts osteocytes)
  • Removed by osteoclasts
  • Turnover occurs in response to forces on bone
  • Results in resting and reversal lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bone remodelling overseen by (4)

A

• Mechanical stimuli
• Systemic hormones
– parathyroid hormone (PTH) to stimulate resorption of bone to increase serum cacium
– vitamin D3 increases calcium absorption from diet and net absorption of calcium into bone
– oestrogen good at maintaining bone mass (loss of this in menopause can result in osteoporosis i.e. loss of bone mass)
– others: e.g. calcitonin for osteoclast function
• Cytokines (stimulus for osteoclasts and osteoblasts)
• Complex interactions promote growth of cells and
bone matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Special tests - bone biochemistry (5)

A
• Serum calcium - cheapest and simplest, analysis of bone metabolism
• Osteoblast activity (bone formation)
– serum alkaline phosphatase
– osteocalcin
• Osteoclast activity (bone resorption)
– collagen degradation urine & blood
• Parathyroid hormone: regulates serum calcium (specialised)
• Vitamin D assays (specialised)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oral developmental abnormalities of bone: torus (5)

A
• torus: developmental
exostosis (i.e. growing out from surface of bone)
• problem with fitting
dentures
• torus palatinus
– midline of palate
• torus mandibularis
– bilateral on lingual
aspect of mandible
Histology: compact bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Oral developmental abnormalities of bone: osteogenesis imperfecta (4)

A
– type 1 collagen defect
– inheritance varied - 4 main types
Clinical
– weak bones, multiple fractures
– sometimes associated with dentinogenesis
imperfecta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Oral developmental abnormalities of bone: achondroplasia (3)

A

– autosomal dominant
– dwarfism
– poor endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oral developmental abnormalities of bone: osteopetrosis (4)

A

– lack of osteoclast activity
– failure of resorption
– marrow obliteration
Made of compact bone only, becomes very fragile and has a tendency to fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Infections of bone and their prevalence (4)

A

Dry socket: very common
Sclerosing osteitis: relatively common
Osteomyelitis: rare
Osteonecrosis: rare, but increasingly more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Dry socket (alveolar osteitis)
-what does it affect
-how is it caused
-how might this have happened 
(6)
A
Usually affects molars, particularly impacted 3rd molars
• Caused by loss of or failure of the clot to develop in a socket.
This may be due to:
• Excessive rinsing
• Fibrinolysis of clot
• Poor blood supply due to
radiotherapy, Paget's disease
• Excessive use of vasoconstrictors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dry socket (alveolar osteitis) what is happening in the socket? (4)

A

Localised inflammatory reaction in bone adjacent
to socket
• Bone adjacent to socket becomes necrotic and is
removed by osteoclasts.
• Healing is very slow
– Irrigation
– Antiseptic dressing
• Very rarely develops into osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differential diagnosis for sclerosing osteitis (3)

A

Hypercementosis, cementoblastoma, osteoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is sclerosing osteitis and who/ where does it affect? (4)

A
  • Focal bone reaction to low-grade inflammation e.g. chronic pulpitis
  • Any age
  • Commonly affects mandibular molars
  • Asymptomatic, incidental finding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sclerosing osteitis - radiography (2)

A
  • Uniform opacity at apex tooth,

* Often with peripheral lucency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for sclerosing osteitis (1)

A

Cause of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
Osteomyelitis 
-what is it?
-who does it affect?
-subtypes
(5)
A

• Inflammation within marrow cavities of bone
• Can affect any age
• Acute or chronic
Subtypes:
• Sclerosing osteomyelitis - nightmare for pt and to treat
• Proliferative periostitis (Garré’s osteomyelitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Causes of osteomyelitis (6)

A
Problems with:
• Blood supply:
– Age related
– Paget's disease
– Radiotherapy
• Host response
• Immunosuppression
• Poor nutrition
• Other causes:
– bisphosphonates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acute osteomyelitis aetiology (3)

A

Most commonly infectious (Staphylococci,
Streptococci)
• Extension of periapical abscess
• Physical injury/fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acute osteomyelitis acute inflammatory response (4)

A

Pain, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute osteomyelitis histology (3)

A
  • Acute inflammatory infiltrate
  • ↑ Bone resorption
  • ↓ Bone formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chronic osteomyelitis aetiology (2)

A
  • Low-grade inflammatory reaction

* May be progression from acute osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chronic osteomyelitis - Chronic inflammatory response associated with low-grade infection (4)

A

Pain, swelling, bone loss, sequestrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chronic osteomyelitis histology (4)

A
  • Chronic inflammatory infiltrate - lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • Both osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity
  • Reversal lines
  • Osteonecrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is proliferative periostitis? (1)
chronic osteomyelitis with periosteal inflammation
26
Chronic osteomyelitis radiograph (3)
Radiolucency, focal opacity, ‘moth eaten’ Indistinct margins Sequestrae
27
Osteomyelitis - patient management (3)
* Resolve source of infection * Remove infected bone * Hyperbaric oxygen
28
Osteonecrosis of the jaws - causes (8)
``` • Osteoradionecrosis – Complication of irradiation – Head and neck malignancies – Compromised vasculature - endarteritis obliterans • Bisphosphonate/Medication related osteonecrosis of the jaws – MRONJ, BRONJ, DRONJ • Associated with certain medications – Bisphosphonates – Denosumab • Diabetes • Smoking • Poor OH • Prolonged drug use • Dental extractions ```
29
Osteonecrosis of the jaws - patient management - prevention (4) - low risk (2) - high risk (2)
``` • Prevention – Dental assessment – Oral hygiene – Smoking cessation – Limiting alcohol • Low risk – Osteoporosis – Atraumatic extractions • High risk – Malignancy/ Paget's/ immunosuppressed/ history of MRONJ – Refer to OS/OMFS ```
30
Types of bone neoplasms (4)
Benign: osteoma, osteoblastoma Malignant: osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma
31
Osteoma - clinical (4)
``` • Localised bony nodule on maxilla or mandible • Shows continued growth • Distinguish from tori • May be associated with syndromes (multiple osteomas --> Gardener's syndrome - colon cancer) ```
32
Osteoma - histopathology: composed of (2)
• Compact bone • Compact and cancellous bone
33
Osteosarcoma (6)
* Malignant tumour which produces bone * Very rare - 120 cases per year all sites * Most in long bones * 2% to 10% in the jaws * About 10 jaw lesions per year in UK * Young adults
34
Osteosarcoma of the jaws (3)
• Age 20-40 years • Males slightly more common • Mandible > maxilla
35
Why is early dx essential in osteosarcoma of the jaws (3)
* Rapidly growing swelling * Pain * Nerve involvement
36
Osteosarcoma of the jaws - radiographic features (2)
• Radiolucency with bone formation (sunray) • Loss of lamina dura is an important sign
37
Osteosarcoma - patient management (3)
* Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy * Wide local excision +/- radiotherapy * 5 year survival – about 50%
38
Fibro-osseus lesions (1)
Lesions where the normal bone is replaced by fibrous | tissue in which abnormal bone is laid down
39
Fibro-osseus lesions - radiographically (3)
• Initially radiolucent because of bone loss • Later more mixed radiodensity lesion as the abnormal bone is laid down. • the extent of this varies with the lesion and some lesions are almost always radio-opaque or radiolucent
40
Types of fibro-osseus lesions (4)
``` • Neoplastic: (Cemento) ossifying fibroma • Developmental: Fibrous dysplasia • Reactive: (Cemento) osseous dysplasia Osteodystrophy • Idiopathic: Paget's disease ```
41
Ossifying fibroma (6)
• Benign neoplasm composed of fibrous tissue which forms spicules, islands or cementicles of bone -pattern of bone and cellularity is variable -lesion has well defined margin and is separated from the cortical bone • Age: 20-50, average 35 years – Children may be affected • Females > males (>3:1) • Mandible overall most common site (65%) – Premolar or molar region – May be in craniofacial bones
42
Ossifying pt management (3)
``` • Conservative enucleation • Resection • Low recurrence rate ```
43
Fibrous dysplasia (7)
``` • Developmental disorder of bone – Mutations in GNAS1, not inherited • 25% affect head and neck • Age: 15-30 • Males = females • Painless smooth enlargement/swellings • Maxilla most frequent site in H&N • Poorly demarcated radiopacity ```
44
Fibrous dysplasia - radiographically (2)
• Stippled “orange peel” appearance • Merges with the surrounding bone
45
Clinical variants of fibrous dysplasia: monostotic (single bone involved) (5)
* Single skeletal lesions * Ribs and femur most common site * 25% of lesions in head and neck * Age 15-30 (average 25) * Males = females
46
Clinical variants of fibrous dysplasia: polyostotic (multiple bones involved) (5)
* Multiple lesions * Head & neck involved in 50% * Age: <15 * 75% in females * May be part of McCune-Albright’s syndrome
47
Fibrous dysplasia: patient management (5)
• Growth stabilises over time (skeletal maturity) • Debulking and contouring of bone -recurrence if during growth phase -can reactivate in pregnancy • Surgical removal • Orthodontics and orthognathic surgery • Very low risk of malignant transformation
48
Fibrous dysplasia vs ossifying fibroma (4)
Poorly defined vs well defined No margin vs clear margin M=F vs F>M Often maxilla vs often mandible
49
Cemento-osseus dysplasias (5)
• A clinicopathological spectrum of reactive lesions • Age: 30-50 • Often females • Often multiple radiopacities in the tooth bearing areas of the jaws • Composed of irregular trabeculae of woven bone and ‘cementum’ in fibrous stroma
50
Classification of osseus dysplasias (3)
Focal: single lesions Perapical: multiple mixed radiodensity lesions at apex of teeth Florid: multiple lesions throughout jaws
51
Familial gingatiform cementoma (3)
• Usually described as a variant of Florid OD -appears to be a different entity to Florid OD -autosomal dominant inheritance pattern • M=F • Found in white patients
52
Paget's disease (4)
* Rare disorder affecting all bones * Bone turnover is increased and no longer related to functional demands * Early stages bone becomes very vascular: may result in heart failure * Later stages bone becomes sclerotic and shows numerous resting and reversal lines
53
Paget's disease epidemiology (4)
``` • More common in Western Europe, USA, Canada, Australia, New Zealand • Rare in Asia, Africa • Cause unknown. • Possible genetic/hereditary association or infective cause ```
54
Paget's disease clinical features (3)
``` • Legs become bowed • Enlargement of the skull causing constriction of foramen: deafness, hats do not fit etc • Jaws become enlarged: tooth spacing and dentures do not fit ```
55
Paget's disease: dental implications (4)
``` • Bone sclerotic: difficulty with extractions and prone to infections • Hypercementosis: difficulty with extractions • Bisphosphonates may complicate matters • Increased incidence of osteosarcomas and other bone malignancy ```
56
Giant cell lesions of the jaws: what are they and types (4)
``` Characterised by replacement of bone by fibrous tissue containing numerous multi-nucleate giant cells (osteoclasts) • Cherubism • Central giant cell granuloma • Hyperparathyroidism ```
57
Cherubism (5)
• Developmental condition • Autosomal dominant inheritance • Bilateral expansion of posterior mandible • May regress after puberty Histology: vascular multinucleated giant cell lesions
58
Giant cell lesions of the jaws (6)
* Reactive or hyperplastic lesions * Benign but may be locally destructive * Age: 10-30 * 60% in females * Usually mandible * Characterised by osteoclasts
59
Central giant cell granuloma (3)
* Well demarcated radiolucency * Composed of giant cells - osteoclasts * May be destructive
60
Giant cell lesions of the jaws: patient management (4)
* Blood biochemistry (serum calcium initially) * Curettage * Resection * 20% recurrence rate
61
Hyperparathyroidism types and tests (5)
``` Hyperparathyroidism: – Primary: parathyroid adenoma (90%) – Secondary: renal failure, malabsorption – Hereditary: autosomal dominant • Blood biochemistry: – Raised serum Calcium, Phosphate – Parathyroid hormone ```
62
Hyperparathyroidism mnemonic (1)
Stones, bones, groans and moans
63
Hyperparathyroidism giant cell lesion (3)
• Radiolucent lesion • “Brown tumour” – Identical to central giant cell granuloma • Management: – Treatment of hyperparathyroidism (surgery)