BOOK 37 HAZARDOUS MATERIALS OPERATIONAL PLAN CHAPTER 4 FIRST RESPONDER OPERATIONS Flashcards
(131 cards)
1
Q
Once the first responder has arrived on scene, one of the initial considerations must be to establish ______ for the incident.
A
Perimeters
2
Q
These perimeters will designate the Initial ______ Zone, _______ boundaries and _____ _______ Area(s) for holding civilians and Fire Department personnel who have been exposed to a hazardous product.
A
Isolation zone
Evacuation boundaries
Safe refuge areas
3
Q
The Initial Isolation Zone should be established using the recommendation of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), taking the following factors into consideration:
A
Topography
Materials released
Wind/weather
4
Q
the incident will dictate the location of the Initial Isolation Zone.
A
Topography
5
Q
The location of the fire line tape designating the isolation area should be placed in an ____ or _____ location to ensure that initial actions are undertaken from a safe location.
A
Uphill or upwind
6
Q
The physical and chemical properties of the material released will determine the size of the
A
Isolation zone
7
Q
Upon arrival, the _____ ______ _____ ____ may either expand or reduce the Initial Isolation Zone to establish the Exclusion Zone.
A
Hazardous materials task force
8
Q
should be established within the outer-most perimeter of the isolation area to contain those people who have been exposed.
A
Safe refuge area
9
Q
Considerations En Route
A
- What is the location of the hazardous materials incident
- Is the site heavily populated
- Is the site near major street or freeway
- What is the current weather conditions
- What is the time of day
- Is it a significant historical date?
- What is the best approach route?
- What resources are responding?
10
Q
According to the erg 2000 edition what is a distance within which all person should be considered for evacuation in all directions from the actual spill/leak source. It is a distance (radius)which defines a circle within which persons may be exposed to dangerous concentrations upwind of the source and may be exposed o life threatening concentrations downwind of the source
A
Initial isolation zone
11
Q
Once on scene, place a short length of ____________ or other suitable material on the apparatus antennae and keep a close watch on wind direction.
A
Fire line tape
12
Q
At any incident it is wise to ___________ and evaluate the scene before committing yourself or others. ________ provide the first responder with an opportunity to view the scene from a safe distance.
A
Stop short
Binoculars
13
Q
is intended to limit the effect of hazardous materials on victims of exposure and prevent the spread of contaminants beyond the contaminated area.
A
Decontamination
14
Q
Prior to initiating decontamination efforts, first responders should ______ patients by attempting to separate symptomatic from asymptomatic patients. This assessment will serve to identify those people who need immediate decontamination.
A
Triage
15
Q
Emergency decontamination is also referred to as
A
Gross decon
16
Q
is the expansion of the Emergency Decontamination process to accommodate large numbers of contaminated people.
A
Mass decontamination
17
Q
follows Emergency Decon, is a process that includes scrubbing with soap or other solution and thorough rinsing.
A
Secondary decontamination
18
Q
follows Emergency Decon, is a process that includes scrubbing with soap or other solution and thorough rinsing.
A
Technical decontamination
19
Q
Technical Decontamination is intended for all _______ _________ and is ideally performed in a separate area, away from the incident victims.
A
Emergency responders
20
Q
involves moving the victim from the hazardous atmosphere, and may involve oxygen therapy.
A
Respiratory decontamination
21
Q
The best personal protective equipment for first responders engaged in decontamination is the _______ ensemble provided for every position on each fire suppression company and rescue ambulance.
A
Level B
22
Q
What kind of stream patter should be used during emergency decon and for how long
A
High volume fog spray
2-3 mins per person
23
Q
First-arriving companies can initiate Mass Decontamination by using fog and spray streams with:
A
Ladder pipes
* Portable monitors
* Wagon batteries
* Discharge gates
* Hand lines
24
Q
Patients who have received emergency decontamination, or who remain or become symptomatic while in Safe Refuge, will receive
A
Secondary decontamination
25
All exposed victims will receive Secondary Decontamination prior to
medical triage or transport.
26
Approximately __% or more of the contaminants will be removed by removing clothing.
80
27
Provide a Haz Mat ______ _____to each patient entering Secondary Decontamination.
Triage tag
28
Direct the patient to place their outer garments in the large plastic bag, and secure the bag. Tear off the long “______” tag and place it into the bag.
Contaminated
29
Direct the patient to place personal belongings in the clear plastic ________ bag, with identification facing outward. Tear off the ______ ______ receipt from the Triage Tag and place it into the bag. The sealed bag will accompany the patient.
Ziplock
Personal property
30
Decon bucket inventory for civilian decon
1 Bucket, plastic ___gallons
10 trash bag, __’’x___’’
10 ziplock bag __’x __x __mil
2 _____counter brush
10 disposable post decon_____xlg
1______ _______ _____
___ haz mat triage tag
5 gallons
40’’x48’’
10’x12’x2mil
Foxtail counter brush
Coveralls
Liquid dishwasher soap
10 hazmat triage tags
31
To differentiate victim rescue from rescue of first responders, the term used to describe actions directed at retrieving civilian exposure victims is
Rapid extrication
32
Types of extrication
which represents the least risk to the responder;
self-rescue or bystander rescue
33
Types of extrication
where the level of risk and potential benefit may be initially unknown;
Responder rescue
34
Types of extrication
such as that performed by USAR or the Hazardous Materials Task Force (HMTF).
Technical rescue
35
Assessment of risk vs benefit
Low risk, high benefit?
Low-high risk benefit unknown?
Med-high risk benefit low?
Self rescue and bystander
Responder rescue
Technical rescue
36
Where the hazardous material is unknown, exposure victims are considered viable when they are able to control their movement (______, ______, or _______), or are able to respond verbally or physically.
Standing sitting kneeling
37
Those victims who are unable to respond, or are unable to voluntarily control movement, may still be viable under certain conditions, e.g., the number of victims is _____, they are not located in an enclosed space or the enclosed space can be adequatel_______ and access to ________ and ______ is immediately available.
Low
Ventilated
Decontamination and treatment
38
The assessment to determine the presence of viable victims may include
Direct observation, interview of witnesses or employees exiting the venue, and reports from other first responders
39
To limit exposure time during rapid extrication guidelines state extrication teams shall use no more than one ____min scba bottle prior to evaluation for exposure by haz mat personnel
45 min bottle
40
Reserve what percent of your bottle for exiting and decontamination?
25%
41
What personnel examine responders for post- entry symptoms and vitals
Als personnel
42
The minimum protection for all hazardous material incidents consists of full structural PPE, SCBA, and
personal dosimeter2.
43
During extraction operations, the responders’ ____ and ____ are most at risk to become contaminated.
Feet and hands
44
______ footwear and gloves represent a grave risk of absorption and continuous exposure to the wearer.
Leather
45
Consequently, turnout boots must be _____, which prevents absorption and provides some measure of chemical resistance. In addition, gloves should be the chemically resistant gloves provided with the level “__” decontamination ensemble.
Rubber
B
46
The personal dosimeter will detect and alarm to _____ radiation and strong ____ sources, allowing sufficient warning to prevent injury.
Gamma
Beta
47
______ radiation represents a risk only if inhaled or ingested, and donning an SCBA eliminates this route of exposure.
Alpha radiation
48
Other than the rescue and decontamination of exposure victims, the most difficult task that first responders may face is
Evacuation
49
_____ units on the scene are only responsible for evacuating those areas where no special protective clothing or equipment is required.
Lapd
50
It is the duty of _____first responder units to evacuate or secure only those areas where work may be conducted safely in standard personal protective equipment and SCBA.
Lafd
51
These suits provided for performing decontamination do not enable firefighters to enter hazardous zones, and shall not be worn for that purpose.
Level b splash suits
52
If it is required _____ teams shall enter only those areas where standard structural PPE and SCBA’s provide an appropriate level of protection.
Evacuation
53
The minimum isolation distance for each product found in the ERG is listed on the individual Guide page under
Public safety
54
If the material has not been identified, officers may use Guide _____ as an initial estimate of minimum distances.
111
55
Certain listings found in the blue and yellow pages of the ERG may be highlighted. These highlighted entries identify those materials that qualify as
Toxic inhalation hazard
55
Certain listings found in the blue and yellow pages of the ERG may be highlighted. These highlighted entries identify those materials that qualify as
Toxic inhalation hazard
56
TIH materials have a separate section of the ERG to be used in the event of a spill or release, the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances (______-bordered pages).
Green
57
A small spill qualifies as _____liters or less approximately equivalent to a _______
200
55 GALLON DRUM
58
A large spill is greater than?
55 gallon drum
59
If the material is found in the Protective Action Distances table, then both the ______ ________ and downwind ________ distances are listed in this table.
INITIAL ISOLATION
EVACUATION DISTANCES
60
If the material is found in the Protective Action Distances table, then both the ______ ________ and downwind ________ distances are listed in this table.
INITIAL ISOLATION
EVACUATION DISTANCES
61
Those materials which are not highlighted in the blue or yellow pages, and which do not contain a reference in the Guide pages to the Protective Action Distances table, have both the recommended isolation and evacuation distances stated directly on the Guide page.
Non TIH materials
62
The ERG contains a discussion of the two methods of protecting people during a hazardous materials incident:
Evacuation and sheltering in place
63
Is preferred where the material is flammable, it may take a long time to clear the vapor from the area, or buildings cannot be tightly secured against atmospheric incursion.
Evacuation
64
is indicated where the process of evacuation would expose people to a greater level of risk than leaving them indoors, or an evacuation cannot be performed.
Sheltering in place
65
The objective for any hazardous materials emergency is the _______ and/or _____ of the release in a safe and expeditious manner, with the least number of injuries and a minimum of ______ damage.
Containment/control
Property
66
_______ ________ and ______ assessment are essential to reach this objective.(Hazardous materials objectives)
Product identification
Hazmat assessment
67
regulates the types of labels and placards that must be attached to hazardous materials transport containers and the vehicles that carry them.
The DOT
68
DOT placards are diamond-shaped signs (_____ inches on each side) that are required to be affixed on each side and each end of vehicles carrying hazardous materials.
10 3/4
69
Placards indicate the ______ hazard or the most dangerous property associated with the material being transported. Some materials also require secondary placards to indicate additional hazards. Secondary placards do not have
PRIMARY
HAZARD CLASS NUMBERS
70
DOT labels are __-inch diamonds (or smaller, for cylinders) affixed to non-bulk packages of hazardous materials. They are generally required for the same materials for which placards are necessary.
4 INCH DIAMONDS
71
Unlike placards, _______ is not limited to the primary hazard of a material.
LABELING
72
Both DOT placards and labels convey information by their _____, _______ ______ number, _________ ________(UN) identification number and symbol (_______).
COLOR
HAZARD CLASS NUMBER
UNITED NATIONS NUMBER
PICTOGRAPH
73
DOT PLACARD BACKGROUND COLOR TABLE
ORANGE=
RED=
RED WITH WHITE BAND IN
CENTER=
GREEN=
WHITE OVER RED=
WHITE=
WHITE WITH VERTICAL RED
STRIPES=
YELLOW=
YELLOW OVER WHITE=
WHITE OVER BLACK=
BLUE=
BLACK STRIPES OVER WHITE=
EXPLOSIVE
FLAMMABLE/ COMBUSTIBLE
DANGEROUS
NONFLAMMABLE GAS
SPONTANEOUSLY COMBUSTIBLE
POISONOUS MATERIAL
FLAMMABLE SOLID
OXIDIZER
RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL
CORROSIVE MATERIAL
DANGEROUS WHEN WET
MISCELLANEOUS HAZARDOUS MATERIAL
74
CLASS I
CLASS 2
CLASS 3
CLASS 4
CLASS 5
CLASS 6
CLASS 7
CLASS 8
Explosives
Gases
Flammable liquids
Combustible liquids
Flammable solids
Dangerous when wet
Spontaneously combustible
Oxidizers
Organic peroxides
Toxic
Infectious materials
Radioactive materials
Corrosive materials
Miscellaneous dangerous goods (sometimes referred to as other regulated materials ORMs)
75
How many digits are un numbers
4
76
What may replace the descriptive text in the center of the placard for bulk shipments of hazardous materials.
United Nations (un) identification numbers
77
the UN identification number cannot replace the _______ placard or the class name for ________ materials or any class of _________.
Dangerous
Radioactive
Explosive
78
UN identification numbers can be incorporated into a ___ placard, or posted on a separate orange panel next to the placard.
Dot
79
The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has developed a placarding system for fixed facilities to indicate the dangers associated with various hazardous materials found at a location.
National Fire Protection Association 704 Diamond
80
National Fire Protection Association 704 Diamond is not used in
Transportation
81
The NFPA diamond is divided into ____ color-coded quadrants.
Four
82
Each quadrant is a specific color and indicates the following types of hazards:
* Flammability Hazard –
* Reactivity Hazards –
* Special Hazards –
* Health Hazards -
Red
Yellow
White
Blue
83
The Health, Flammability, and Reactivity Hazards are ranked from __ to __, with __ indicating no risk and __ indicating the greatest risk.
0 to 4
0
4
84
What portion of the 704 diamond area may contain a special symbol or letter indicating a specific danger.
The special hazard area
85
____ indicates an oxidizer
* A ____ (or _____) indicates a radioactive material
* A __ indicates a water-reactive material
* ____ indicates a corrosive material
OX
Trefoil or propeller
W
COR
86
Although not recognized by NFPA, some users will insert the letters ____ for alkaline materials, _____ for acidic materials and ___ for artisans (occupied).
ALK
ACID
A
87
Since different hazardous materials may be stored together, displayed NFPA 704 numbers often represent a
CUMULATIVE HAZARD RATING
88
Disadvantages to the erg
* Information is very _____
* Evacuation table is good for first ___ minutes, only
* Effectiveness of recommended actions may be limited
General
30 mins
89
When using the erg and you identify the material using the 4 digit id number on a placard or orange panel or shipping papers you can locate that number what what color bordered pages
Yellow bordered
90
What pages list the 3- digit guide numbers after you find the numbers that correspond with the chemical from the yellow or blue bordered pages
Orange
91
rovide detailed information about the contents of the shipment which may alert first responders to the presence of hazardous materials through a variety of required entries.
Shipping papers
92
All businesses in the City of Los Angeles must maintain a copy of their Hazardous Materials Business Plan that includes an _______ ______ plan, a _________ ________ inventory, and _______ ________ information.
Emergency response plan
Hazardous material inventory
Training program
93
The owner or manager of a facility is required to keep an ______ for all hazardous materials (above an established quantity) handled or stored at the facility.
MSDS material safety data sheets
94
Responders should access these Sheets during
Pre-incident planning
95
Material Safety Data Sheets will provide information on:
*______ and ______ properties of the material
* _______ associated with the material
* Basic directions for response actions
Physical and chemical
Hazards
96
The location of msds sheets should be determined when?
During fire prevention and pre-incident inspections
97
This form lists the inventory of all hazardous materials at a business.
B-8
98
B-8
The inventory list is maintained on site for not less than _____ years, and is available to Fire Department members upon request.
Three
99
affects specific facilities, such as refineries, and ammonia or chlorine gas handlers.
The california accidental release prevention program
100
CalARP businesses have the responsibility to maintain _____ _________ Prevention Plans and coordinate response activities with local responding agencies.
Risk management prevention plans
101
Formerly referred to as Target Hazard Occupancies, these are businesses within the City of Los Angeles that use quantities of specific materials listed by the state as commonly encountered high hazard chemicals.
High hazard facilities
102
The materials of concern include: ammonia, chlorine, sulfur dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, ethylene oxide, hydrochloric acid & hydrogen chloride, methyl chloride, nitric acid, dimethyl sulfide, formaldehyde, chloroform, hydrogen fluoride and hydrofluoric acid, propylene oxide, phosgene, vinyl acetate, and phosphorus oxychloride.
High hazard facilities
103
Containment And Control Of Hazardous Materials
Typical methods of containment for first responders include:
Dam
Dike
Divert
Disperse
Dilute
Cover
Foam
104
are barriers across a waterway or between two objects intended to hold back flowing water or material.
Dams
105
There are two types of dams used for containment.
Simple dam
Complex dam(separation dam)
106
are normally constructed of dirt, sandbags, fire hoses, hay bales, trash bags, plastic sheeting etc.
Dams
107
There are two types of complex or separation dams
Overflow and under flow
108
_______ dam is used when a material is lighter than water, and will float. A pipe, hard suction, rain gutter, hollow fence post, etc, is placed through the dam at an angle to create a flow from the bottom of the dam, and keep the material high enough to hold it behind the dam.
Under flow
109
______ dam is used when the material is heavier than water and will sink. A pipe is placed through the dam at the top
Overflow dam
110
is a bank constructed to control or confine a liquid. An absorbent or non-absorbent material can be used, e.g., dirt, plastic sheeting, sand bags, etc.
Dike
111
is a simple operation that is often overlooked. This containment process involves covering the material to stop the spread, e.g., using salvage covers or plastic over a powder spill, a foam blanket over flammable liquids, etc.
Covering
112
_______ airborne hazardous materials is a defensive action which uses heavy spray streams to direct or knock down a material. Care must be taken to ensure that this action does not create a larger problem. In most cases, responders should seek advice from the Hazardous Materials Task Force prior to attempting.
Dispersing
113
is moving material to a less environmentally sensitive locale, and then isolating the area. This is an effective tactic for incidents involving slowly leaking liquids that have low volatility.
Diverting
114
Additional auto injectors can also be found on
Squads
Ems sedans
Haz mat tender
Rescue ambulance disaster cache
115
Used to counter the effects of nerve agent exposure.
Mark I auto injectors
116
Protects against Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (NBC) warfare agents
Not to be used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres
Draeger emergency escape mask
117
Draeger emergency escape mask
Filter provides a minimum of __-minutes protection time against chemical warfare agents
15 mins
118
Consists of a nylon web belt with pouch for Mark I Auto–Injector and a cylindrical pouch for the Draeger Emergency Escape Mask.
Personal escape kit (PEK)
119
is a personal dosimeter/radiation monitor used to detect accumulated dose and/or rate of radiation exposure.
Canberra MR113B Mini-Radiac Personal Dosimeter
120
All company commanders shall wear the Mini-Radiac on the
TURNOUT COAT
121
Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of “____” (______/LEVEL __) or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the PEK/Mini-Radiac shall be worn when dispatched on all incidents.
HIGH ORANGE LEVEL 4
122
Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of _________” (____/_____ 5) or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the following policy shall be in effect. Mini-Radiacs shall be worn:
SEVERY RED LEVEL 5
123
Members are not required to wear the PEK/Mini-Radiac while on
FIRE DEPARTMENT PROPERTY
124
Found in the black haz mat bag assigned to each position on each apparatus.
* To be used by first responders engaged in decontamination activities.
LEVEL B PROTECTIVE SUIT
125
DONNING PROCEDURES IT IS RECOMMENDED THAT A _______ SYSTEM BE USED
BUDDY SYSTEM
126
All equipment should be checked ______, including the contents of the decon bucket.
MONTHLY
127
PRE CHECK
Equipment: Turnout boots (must be watertight), latex gloves, facepiece and breathing apparatus (__ min. bottle preferred), __-inch adhesive tape, __-H silver inner glove, _____ outer Nitrile glove.
60 MIN
2’’
4-H
GREEN
128
Stationed at lax and Ontario airports provides the ability to shower large numbers of victims at a mass decon incident
MODEC Trailer
129
Surmounted tents housed at hazmat task forces and hazmat tender provides how many shower stalls for mas decon
6
130
Hazmat assignment consists of
One BC
1 HAZMAT TASK FORCE
1 EMS CAPTAIN
1 PARAMEDIC ENGINE
1 ALS RECUE
*(FOR CHEMICAL INVESTIGATIONS 1 FIRE COMPANY FOR MOST*)
