Broad Questions

Question 1

What action would increase the levels of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?

Answer 1

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

Question 2

What are the effects of Ephedrine?

Answer 2

Mild CNS stimulation (cross BBB), increase BP, and treats HTN

Question 3

When xerostomia is cause by hypoactivity of the parasympathetic nervous system, which cholinergic drug could be used to increase the volume of salivary secretion?

Answer 3

Pilocarpine

Question 4

Which type of drug would increase secretion of digestive enzymes, HCl and saliva

Answer 4

M3 Agonist

Question 5

Which type of cholinergic receptor acts on the heart by decreasing HR and results in bradycardia

Answer 5

M2 Receptors

Question 6

What are the general cholinergic side effects caused by general cholinergic stimulation

Answer 6

sweating, salivation, flushing, decrease in BP with reflexive tachycardia, nausea, abdominal pain/diarrhea, and bronchospasm

Question 7

Which of the following conducting passages are most affected by the action of ipratropium?

Answer 7

Large-diameter central bronchiols

Question 8

You need to intubate a patient in shock but you don’t want the pre-intubation drug to cross the BBB and effect the small respiratory first, which drug do you choose

Answer 8

Recuronium/Vecuronium

Question 9

What drug is used in rapid intubations

Answer 9

Succinylcholine

Question 10

Alpha 1 receptors generally produce which outcome to vasculature

Answer 10

Vasoconstriction, increase blood flow, and increase BP

Question 11

What are the effects of alpha 2 receptors being agonized

Answer 11

Inhibit NE release
Inhibit Ach release
Inhibit insulin release

Question 12

What are the effects of Beta 1 receptor agonists

Answer 12

Increase in HR
Increase in lipolysis
Increase myocardial contractility
Increase renin

Question 13

What are the effects of Beta 2 receptor agonists

Answer 13

Vasodilation
Decrease periferal resistance
Bronchodilation
Increase glycogenolysis
Relax uterine smooth muscles

Question 14

What do D1 receptors act upon

Answer 14

Smooth muscle, dilates renal blood vessels

Question 15

What do D2 receptors act upon

Answer 15

Nerve endings, modulates transmitter release

Question 16

What do you give people who are dry as fuck (Sjogrens)

Answer 16

Pilocarpine

Question 17

What is pilocarpine used in an emergency for

Answer 17

Reduce opthalmatic pressure in glaucoma (fast acting)

Question 18

What receptors does Acetylcholine act

Answer 18

M3, M, and N

Question 19

What selective adrenergic antagonist used for pregnancy induced HTN and brings about hypertension without less significant tachycardia

Answer 19

Lebetalol (acts on alpha 1, beta 1, beta 2)

Question 20

What are the simplified muscarinic agonist side effects

Answer 20

Diarrhea, diaphoresis, miosis, nausea, urinary urgency

Question 21

In addition to supportive therapy, a victim of antimuscarinic poisoning would be given drugs to abolish delirium and coma. Which of the following is the best choice for such treatment?

Answer 21

Physostigmine

Question 22

Tracheobronchial gland hypersecretion can be suppressed by
Atropine
Succinylcholine
Recuronium
Histamine

Answer 22

Atropine

Question 23

Which of the following drugs used in glaucoma therapy has a prolonged longest duration of action and can be administered relatively infrequently?
Timolol
Albuterol
Echothiophate
Epinephrine

Answer 23

Echothiophate

Question 24

What is the only clinical use of Echothiophate?

Answer 24

Treatment of occular hypertension in chronic glaucoma

Question 25

Release of vesicular norepinephrine requires an increase in the concentration of which of the following cations near the inner surface of the presynaptic membrane?

Answer 25

Calcium

Question 26

A drug that is an agonist both of β1- and β2-adrenoceptors can be expected to cause

Answer 26

A decrease in total peripheral vascular resistance

Question 27

What is the mechanism and medical effects of Phenylephrine

Answer 27

Is a direct adrenergic agonist acting on alpha 1 receptors that results in increased BP and reflexive bradycardia

Question 28

What are the adverse effects of albuterol?

Answer 28

Tremor and tachycardia

Question 29

Medication used in treatment of nonobstructive urinary retention and neurogenic atony of the urinary bladder?

Answer 29

Bethanecol

Question 30

What is the MOA of Physotigmine?

Answer 30

binds with acetylcholinesterase, making it reversibly inactivated. Stimulates M, N in the CNS and N in NMJ

Question 31

What is the clinical indication of oxybutinin/solifecin/tolteradine

Answer 31

overactive bladder and incontinence

Question 32

What is the MOA of oxybutinin/solifecin/tolteradine

Answer 32

Is an antimuscarinic cholinergic antagonist that competatively binds to M3 receptors that results in decreased bladder pressure and capacity

Question 33

Which type of drugs can increase both sympathetic and parasympathetic symptoms through the same mechanism?

Answer 33

Nn agonists

Question 34

Beta 1 receptors generally function to

Answer 34

Increase cardiac function

Question 35

What is the clinical indication of Esmolol

Answer 35

Used only for supra-ventricular tachycardia (SVT)

Question 36

What are the adverse effects of selective adrenergic antagonists

Answer 36

Bradycardia, reduced cardiac output, AV heart block Safe to use in COPD/asthma because there is no blockage of B2

Question 37

In general what receptors do non-selective adrenergic antagonists act on

Answer 37

B1 and B2

Question 38

What is the MOA of amphetamines

Answer 38

release dopamine + NE (catecholamines) and has powerful CNS effect alpha 1, alpha 2, and beta 1

Question 39

What is dopamine useful for treating

Answer 39

treating both cardiac and septic shock

Question 40

What is the mechanism of action of cocaine

Answer 40

propagation of action on norepinephrine by inhibiting its active transport from the synapse

Question 41

What do all preganglionic neurons release

Answer 41

Acetylcholine

Question 42

What do acebutolol and metoprolol have in common

Answer 42

both are selective B-blockers and may be used in hypertensive patients with impaired pulmonary function

Question 43

The effects of bethanecol can be reversed by

Answer 43

Atropine

Question 44

What is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin?

Answer 44

Inhibition of the release of acetylcholine

Question 45

Which of the following is a competitive muscarinic antagonist used to treat some symptoms of organophosphate poisoning? Neostigmine Atropine Carbachol

Answer 45

Atropine

Question 46

What drug is used to conduct cardiac stress tests?

Answer 46

Dobutamine

Question 47

What receptors mimic the parasympathetic nervous system?

Answer 47

Muscarinic

Question 48

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in

Answer 48

The thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord

Question 49

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in and send signals through

Answer 49

the CNS through the cranial nerves (especially the third, seventh, ninth, and tenth).

Question 50

What are the primary acetylcholine subtypes

Answer 50

Muscarinic and Nicotinic receptors

Question 51

How do direct-acting cholinomimetic act

Answer 51

Bind to and activate muscarinic or nicotinic receptors

Question 52

How do indirect-acting agents produce their primary effects

Answer 52

by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, which hydrolyzes acetylcholine to choline and acetic acid

Question 53

The nerve fibers that innervate the adrenal medulla are best described as

Answer 53

Cholinergic sympathetic

Question 54

The nerve fibers that innervate skeletal muscle are best described as

Answer 54

Somatic Cholinergic

Question 55

Sympathetic postganglionic fibers release

Answer 55

Acetylcholine

Question 56

What is the mechanism of action of an indirect-acting agonist like amphetamine

Answer 56

Interferes with the enzymatic breakdown of a neurotransmitter

Question 57

What are the Alpha Antagonist Drugs

Answer 57

Phenoxybenzamine Prazosin/Terazosin Tamsulosin

Question 58

What are the nonselective beta antagonists (B1 and B2 antagonists)

Answer 58

Propranolol Nadolol Pindolol (partial B1 agonistic activity) Timolol

Question 59

What are the B1 Selective Antagonists

Answer 59

Metoprolol Acebutolol (partial B1 agonistic activity) Esmolol Atenolol Nebivolol (vasodilation effect)

Question 60

What are the A1, B1, and B2 selective antagonists (has vasodilation effect)

Answer 60

Carvedilol Labetalol

Question 61

What are the direct adrenergic agonists

Answer 61

Epinephrine Norepinephrine Dopamine Dobutamine Isoproterenol Phenylephrine Albuterol

Question 62

What are the indirect adrenergic agonists

Answer 62

Cocaine Amphetamine

Question 63

What are the direct and indirect agonists

Answer 63

Ephedrine Pseudophedrine

Question 64

What are the direct cholinergic agonists

Answer 64

Acetylcholine Bethanecol Pilocarpine

Question 65

What are the Indirect cholinergic agonists

Answer 65

Edrophonium Pyridostigmine/neostigmine Physostigmine

Question 66

What are the Direct and Indirect cholinergic agonists

Answer 66

Echothiophate

Question 67

What are the antimuscarinic cholinergic antagonists

Answer 67

Atropine Scopolamine Ipratropium/Tiotropium Oxybutinin/Solifecin/Tolteradine

Question 68

What are the neuromuscular cholinergic antagonists

Answer 68

Recuronium/Vecuronium Succylcholine

Question 69

Selective adrenergic antagonists that can be given to lower blood pressure in HTN and increase exercise tolerance

Answer 69

Metropolol Nebivolol Atenolol

Question 70

What drug is useful in diagnosing mysthenia gravis

Answer 70

Edrophonium

Question 71

What are the clinical indications for Propranolol

Answer 71

Diminishes cardiac output and depresses SA/AV node HTN and angina management Performance anxiety

Question 72

Ganglionic antagonists

Answer 72

nicotine is rarely used, often used in research

Question 73

A drug that is a selective alpha 1 agonist that causes exaggerated orthostatic response and syncope​ with the first dose

Answer 73

Prazosin