Burns Flashcards
A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after a house fire. He has burns around his mouth and his voice is hoarse, but breathing is unlabored. What most appropriate next step in management?
A. Immediate endotracheal intubation.
B. Examination of oral cavity and pharynx, with fiberoptic laryngoscope if available.
C. Place on supplemental oxygen.
D. Placement of two large-bore intravenous (IV) catheters with fluid resuscitation.
Answer: B
With direct thermal injury to the upper airway or smoke inhalation, rapid and severe airway edema is a potentially lethal threat.
Anticipating the need for intubation and establishing an early airway is critical.
Perioral burns and singed nasal hair are signs that the oral cavity and pharynx should be further evaluated for mucosal injury, but these physical findings alone do not indicate an upper airway injury.
Signs of impending respiratory compromise may include a hoarse voice, wheezing, or stridor; subjective dyspnea is a particularly concerning symptom, and should trigger prompt elective endotracheal intubation.
In patients with combined multiple trauma, especially oral trauma, nasotracheal intubation may be useful but should be avoided if oral intubation is safe and easy. (See Schwartz 10th ed., p. 227.)
What percentage burn does a patient have who has suffered burns to one leg (circumferential), one arm (circumferential), and the anterior trunk?
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 36%
D. 45%
Answer: D
A general idea of the burn size can be made by using the rule of nines.
Each upper extremity accounts for 9% of the total body surface area (TBSA), each lower extremity accounts for 18%, the anterior and posterior trunk each accounts for 18%, the head and neck account for 9%, and the perineum accounts for 1%.
Although the rule of nines is reasonably accurate for adults, a number of more precise charts have been developed that are particularly helpful in assessing pediatric burns.
Most emergency rooms have such a chart. A diagram of the burn
can be drawn on the chart, and more precise calculations of the burn size made from the accompanying TBSA estimates given.
Children younger than 4 years have much larger heads and smaller thighs in proportion to total body size than do adults.
In infants the head accounts for nearly 20% of the TBSA; a child’s body proportions do not fully reach adult percentages until adolescence.
Even when using precise diagrams, interobserver variation may vary by as much as ±20%.
An observer experience with burned patients, rather than educational level, appears to be the best predictor of the accuracy of burn
size estimation.
For smaller burns, an accurate assessment of
size can be made by using the patient’s palmar hand surface, including the digits, which amounts for approximately 1% of TBSA. (See Schwartz 10th cd., p. 229.)
A 40-year-old woman is admitted to the burn unit after an industrial fire at a plastics manufacturing plant with burns to the face and arms. Her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows S-T elevation, and initial chemistry panel and arterial blood gas reveal an anion gap metabolic acidosis with normal arterial carboxyhemoglobin. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Correction of acidosis by adding sodium bicarbonate to IV fluids.
B. Administration of 100% oxygen and hydroxocobalamin.
C. Transthoracic echocardiogram.
D. Blood culture with IV antibiotics.
Answer: B
Hydrogen cyanide toxicity may also be a component of smoke inhalation injury.
Afflicted patients may have a persistent lactic acidosis or S-T elevation on ECG.
Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase, which is required for oxidative phosphorylation.
Treatment consists of sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin, and 100% oxygen.
Sodium thiosulfate works by transforming cyanide into a nontoxic thiocyanate derivative, but it works slowly and is not effective for acute therapy.
Hydroxocobalamin quickly complexes with cyanide and is excreted by the kidney, and is recommended for immediate therapy.
In the majority of patients, the lactic acidosis will resolve with ventilation and sodium thiosulfate treatment becomes unnecessary.
(See Schwartz 10th cd., p. 228.)
Which of the following is a common sequelae of electrical injury?
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Paralysis
C. Brain damage
D. Cataracts
Answer: D
Myoglobinuria frequently accompanies electrical burns, but the clinical significance appears to be trivial.
Disruption of muscle cells releases cellular debris and myoglobin into the circulation to be filtered by the kidney.
If this condition is untreated, the consequence can be irreversible renal failure.
However, modern burn resuscitation protocols alone appear to be sufficient treatment for myoglobinuria.
Cardiac damage, such as myocardial contusion or infarction, may be present.
More likely, the conduction system may be deranged.
Household current at 110 V either does no damage or induces ventricular fibrillation.
If there are no electrocardiographic rhythm abnormalities present upon initial emergency department evaluation, the likelihood that they will appear later is minuscule.
Even with high-voltage injuries, a normal cardiac rhythm on admission generally means that subsequent dysrhythmia is unlikely.
Studies confirm that commonly measured cardiac enzymes bear little correlation to cardiac dysfunction, and elevated enzymes may be from
skeletal muscle damage.
Mandatory ECG monitoring and cardiac enzyme analysis in an ICU setting for 24 hours following
injury is unnecessary in patients with electrical burns, even those resulting from high-voltage current, in patients who have stable cardiac rhythms on admission.
The nervous system is exquisitely sensitive to electricity.
The most devastating injury with frequent brain damage occurs when current passes through the head, but spinal cord damage is possible whenever current has passed from one side
of the body to the other.
Schwann cells are quite susceptible, and delayed transverse myelitis can occur days or weeks after
injury.
Conduction initially remains normal through existing myelin, but as myelin wears out, it is not replaced and conduction ceases.
Anterior spinal artery syndrome from vascular dysrégulation can also precipitate spinal cord dysfunction.
Damage to peripheral nerves is common and may cause permanent functional impairment.
Every patient with an electrical injury must have a thorough neurologic examination as part of the initial assessment.
Persistent neurologic symptoms may lead to chronic pain syndromes, and posttraumatic stress
disorders are apparently more common after electrical burns than thermal burns.
Cataracts are a well-recognized sequela of high-voltage electrical burns.
They occur in 5 to 7% of patients, frequently are bilateral, occur even in the absence of contact points on the head, and typically manifest within 1 to 2 years of injury.
Electrically injured patients should undergo a thorough ophthalmologic examination early during their acute care.
(See Schwartz 10th ed., p. 229.)
An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room after accidentally touching a hot iron with his forearm. On examination, the burned area has weeping blisters and is very tender to the touch. What is the burn depth?
A. First degree
B. Second degree
C. Third degree
D. Fourth degree
Answer: B
Burn wounds are commonly classified as superficial (first degree), partial thickness (second degree), full thickness (third degree), and fourth degree burns, which affect underlying soft tissue.
Partial thickness bums are classified as either superficial or deep partial thickness bums by depth of involved dermis.
Clinically, first-degree bums are painful but do not blister, second-degree burn have dermal involvement and are extremely painful with weeping and blisters, and third-degree burns are leathery, painless, and nonblanching.
(See Schwartz 10th ed., p. 229.)
Three hours after a burn injury that consisted of circumferential, third-degree burns at the wrist and elbow of the right arm, a patient loses sensation to light touch in his fingers. Motor function of his digits, however, remains intact. The most appropriate treatment for this patient now would consist of
A. Elevation of the extremity, Doppler ultrasonography every 4 hours, and if distal pulses are absent 8 hours later, immediate escharotomy.
B. Palpation for distal pulses and immediate escharotomy if pulses are absent.
C. Doppler ultrasonography for assessment of peripheral flow and immediate escharotomy if flow is decreased.
D. Immediate escharotomy under general anesthesia from above the elbow to below the wrist on both medial and lateral aspects of the arm.
Answer: C
Third-degree burn injuries are characterized by almost complete loss of elasticity of the skin.
Thus, as soft tissue swelling progresses, neurovascular compromise may occur.
Failure to recognize this problem may result in the loss of distal extremities.
The most reliable signs of decreased peripheral blood flow in burned patients are slow capillary refill as observed in the nail beds, the onset of neurologic deficits, and decreased or absent Doppler ultrasonic pulse detection.
When vascular impairment is diagnosed, immediate escharotomics are indicated.
Anesthesia is not required for escharotomy—the burn area is insensate because skin nerve endings arc destroyed by third-degree burns. (See Schwartz 10th cd., p. 234.)
What is the fluid requirement of a 50-kg man with first-degree burns to his left arm and leg, circumferential second-degree burn to his right arm, and third-degree burns to his torso and right leg.
What is the rate of initial fluid resuscitation?
A. 4.5 L over 8 hours, followed by 4.5 L over 16 hours
B. 4.5 L over 8 hours, followed by 6 L over 16 hours
C. 6 L over 8 hours, followed by 6 L over 16 hours
D. 6 L over 8 hours, followed by 9 L over 16 hours
Answer: A
The most commonly used formula, the Parkland or Baxter formula, consists of 3 to 4 mI/kg/% burn of lactated Ringer solution, of which half is given during the first 8 hours postburn, and the remain ing half over the subsequent 16 hours.
The concept behind continuous fluid requirements is simple.
The burn (and/or inhalation injury) drives an inflammatory response that leads to capillary leak; as plasma leaks into the extravascular space, crystalloid administration maintains the intravascular volume.
Therefore, if a patient receives a large fluid bolus in a prehospital setting or emergency department that fluid has
likely leaked into the interstitium and the patient still requires
ongoing burn resuscitation according to the estimates.
Continuation of fluid volumes should depend on the time since
injury, urine output, and mean arterial pressure.
As the leak clones, the patient will require less volume to maintain these
two resuscitation end points.
(See Schwartz 10th cd., p. 230.)
A patient with a 90% burn encompassing the entire torso develops an increasing PCO, and peak inspiratory pressure.
Which of the following is most likely to resolve this
problem?
A. Increase the delivered tidal volume.
B. Increase the respiratory rate.
C. Increase the Fio2.
D. Perform a thoracic escharotomy.
Answer: D
The adequacy of respiration must be monitored continuously throughout the resuscitation period.
Early respiratory distress may be due to the compromise of ventilation caused by chest wall inelasticity related to a deep circumferential burn wound of the thorax.
Pressures required for ventilation increase and
arterial PCO2 rises.
Inhalation injury, pneumothorax, or other causes can also result in respiratory distress and should be appropriately treated.
Thoracic escharotomy is seldom required, even with a circumferential chest wall burn. When required, escharotomies are performed bilaterally in the anterior axillary lines.
If there is significant extension of the burn onto the adjacent abdominal wall, the escharotomy incisions should be extended to this area by a transverse incision along the costal margins.
(See Schwartz 10th ed., p. 230.)
Which of the following is FALSE regarding silver
sulfadiazine?
A. Used as prophylaxis against burn wound infections with a wide range of antimicrobial activity.
B. Safe to use on full and partial thickness burn wounds, as well as skin grafts.
C. Has limited systemic absorption.
D. May inhibit epithelial migration in partial thickness wound healing.
Answer: B
Silver sulfadiazine is one of the most widely used in clinical practice.
Silver sulfadiazine has a wide range of antimicrobial activity, primarily as prophylaxis against burn wound infections rather than treatment of existing infections.
It has the added benefits of being inexpensive and easily applied, and has soothing qualities.
It is not significantly absorbed systemically and thus has minimal metabolic derangements.
Silver sulfadiazine has a reputation for causing neutropenia, but this association is more likely due to neutrophil margination from the inflammatory response.
True allergic reactions to the sulfa component of silver sulfadiazine are rare, and at-risk patients
can have a small test patch applied to identify a burning sensation or rash.
Silver sulfadiazine destroys skin grafts and is
contraindicated on burns or donor sites in proximity to newly grafted areas.
Also, silver sulfadiazine may retard epithelial
migration in healing partial thickness wounds.
Successful antibiotic penetration of a burn eschar can be achieved with
A. Mafenide acetate
B. Neomycin
C. Silver nitrate
D. Silver sulfadiazine
Answer: A
Mafenide acetate is the antibiotic agent that penetrates burn eschar to reach the interface with the patient’s viable tissue.
This agent has the disadvantages that it is quite painful on any partial thickness areas, and it is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that interferes with renal buffering mechanisms.
Chloride is retained, and metabolic acidosis results. For these reasons, silver sulfadiazine is more commonly used in burn centers unless a major problem with burn wound sepsis is present.
(See Schwartz 10th ed., p. 232.)
Which of the following is true regarding nutritional needs of burn patients?
A. The hypermetabolic response to burn wounds typically raises the basic metabolic rate by 120%.
B. Oxandrolone, an anabolic steroid, can improve lean body mass but can be associated with hyperglycemia and clinically significant rise in hepatic transaminitis.
C. Early enteral feeding is safe when burns are less than 20% TBSA, otherwise enteral feeding should await return of bowel function to avoid feeding a patient with gastric ileus.
D. For patients with greater than 40% TBSA, caloric needs are estimated to be 25 kcal/kg/day plus 40 kcal/%TBSA/day.
Answer: D
The hypermetabolic response in burn injury may raise baseline metabolic rates by as much as 200%. This can lead to catabolism of muscle proteins and decreased lean body mass that may delay functional recovery.
Early enteral feeding for patients with burns larger than 20% TBSA is safe, and may reduce loss of lean body mass, slow the hypermetabolic response, and result in more efficient protein metabolism.
Calculating the appropriate caloric needs of the burn patient can be challenging. A commonly used formula in nonburned patients is the Harris-Benedict equation, which calculates caloric needs using factors such as gender, age, height, and weight.
This formula uses an activity factor for specific injuries, and for burns, the basal energy expenditure is multiplied by two.
The Harris-Benedict equation may be inaccurate in burns of less than 40% TBSA, and in these patients the Curreri formula may be more appropriate.
This formula estimates caloric needs to be 25 kcal/kg/day plus 40 kcal/%TBSA/day.
The anabolic steroid oxandrolone has been extensively studied in pediatric patients as well, and has demonstrated improvements in lean body mass and bone density in severely burned children.
The weight gain and functional improvements seen with oxandrolone may persist even after stopping administration of the drug.
A recent double-blinded, randomized study of oxandrolone showed decreased length of stay, improved hepatic protein synthesis, and no adverse effects on the endocrine function, though the authors noted a rise in transaminases with unclear clinical significance.
(See Schwartz 10th cd., p. 232.)
A 14-year-old girl sustains a steam burn measuring 6 by 7 inches over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm. Blisters develop over the entire area of the burn wound, and by the time the patient is seen 6 hours after the injury, some of the blisters have ruptured spontaneously. All of the following therapeutic regimens might be considered appropriate for this patient EXCEPT
A. Application of silver sulfadiazine cream (Silvadene) and daily washes, but no dressing.
B. Application of mafenide acetate cream (Sulfamylon), but no daily washes or dressing.
C. Homograft application without sutures to secure it in place, but no daily washes or dressing.
D. Heterograft (pigskin) duplication with sutures to secure it in place and daily washes, but no dressing.
Answer: D
A number of different acceptable regimens exist for treating small, superficial second-degree burn injuries. In all cases, the necrotic epithelium is first debrided.
Topical antibacterial agents then may be applied and the wounds treated open or closed with dressings changed daily or every other day.
Biologic dressings (homografts or heterografts) may be applied to superficial second-degree burns at the time of initial debridement. Typically, these dressings quickly adhere to the wounds, relieve pain, and promote rapid epithelialization.
These dressings should not be sutured in place, however, because suturing creates the potential for a closed-space infection and for conversion of a second degree to a full-thickness injury.
If a biologic dressing does not adhere, it should be removed immediately, and the wound should then be treated with topical antibacterial agents.
(See Schwartz 10th cd., p. 234.)
Which is FALSE concerning surgical treatment of burn wounds?
A. Tangential excision consists of tangential slices of burn tissue until bleeding tissue is encountered. Thus, excision can be associated with potentially significant blood loss.
B. Human cadaveric allograft is a permanent alternative to split-thickness skin grafts when there are insufficient donor sites.
C. Bleeding from tangential excision can be helped with injection of epinephrine tumescence solution, pneumatic tourniquets, epinephrine soaked compresses, and fibrinogen and thrombin spray sealant.
D. Meshed split thickness skin grafts allow serosanguinous drainage to prevent graft loss and provide a greater area of wound coverage.
Answer: B
The strategy of early excision and grafting in burned patients revolutionized survival outcomes in burn care.
Excision is performed with repeated tangential slices using a Watson or Goulian blade until viable, diffusely bleeding tissue remains.
The downside of tangential excision is a high blood loss, though this may be ameliorated using techniques such as instillation of an epinephrine tumescence solution underneath the burn.
Pneumatic tourniquets are helpful in extremity burns, and compresses soaked in a dilute epinephrine solution are necessary adjuncts after excision.
A fibrinogen and thrombin spray sealant (Tisseel Fibrin Sealant; Baxter, Deerfield, IL) also has beneficial effects on both hemostasis and graft adherence to the wound bed.
Since full thickness burns are impractical for most burn wounds, split-thickness sheet autografts harvested with a power dermatome make the most durable wound coverings, and have a decent cosmetic appearance.
In larger burns, fleshed autografted skin provides a larger area of wound coverage. This also allows drainage of blood and serous fluid to prevent accumulation under the skin graft with subsequent graft loss.
Areas of cosmetic importance, such as the face, neck, and hands, should be grafted with nonmeshed sheet grafts to ensure optimal appearance and function.
Options for temporary wound coverage include human cadaveric allograft, which is incorporated into the wound but is rejected by the immune system and must be eventually replaced.
(See Schwartz 10th ed., p. 234.)
A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a hospital because of a third-degree burn injury to 40% of her TBSA, and her wounds are treated with topical silver sulfadiazine cream (Silvadene). Three days after admission, a burn wound biopsy semiquantitative culture shows 10’ Pseudomonas
organisms per gram of tissue. The patient’s condition is stable at this time. The most appropriate management for this patient would be to
A. Repeat the biopsy and culture in 24 hours.
B. Start subeschar clysis with antibiotics.
C. Administer systemic antibiotics.
D. Surgically excise the burn wounds.
Answer: B
Bacterial proliferation in a burn wound may occur despite topical antibacterial agents. When bacterial proliferation has escaped control, as proved by quantitative burn wound biopsy, administration of antibiotics by needle clysis beneath the eschar is indicated.
This therapy is most effective if initiated early, before invasive burn wound sepsis has developed or wound colonization has reached greater than 10^4 organisms per gram of tissue.
Systemic antibiotics usually are ineffective at this point because by the third day after a burn, blood flow to a burn wound is markedly decreased. Thus, adequate levels of antibiotic are not achieved at the eschar-viable tissue interface where the bacterial proliferation is occurring.
Before the use of subeschar antibiotics, Pseudomonas sepsis of bum wounds accompanied by ecthyma gangrenosum was uniformly fatal in children.
Once colonization of a burn wound has occurred, surgical excision is extremely dangerous, as systemic seeding will occur.
(See Schwartz 10th ed., p. 232.)
Fourteen days after admission to the hospital for a 30% partial thickness burn and hemodynamic instability requiring central venous access, a patient develops a spiking temperature curve. On physical examination, the central venous catheter insertion site was red, tender, and warm. The best treatment for this complication is to
A. Exchange of central venous catheter over guidewire, culture tip of previous catheter.
B. Treat patient with IV antibiotics until blood cultures drawn from catheter are negative.
C. Removal of central venous catheter, culture tip, and placement of new catheter on contralateral site.
D. Removal of catheter and treat patient with oral antibiotics and pain medication as needed.
Answer: C
Bum patients often require central venous access for fluid resuscitation and hemodynamic monitoring. Because of the anatomic relation of their burns to commonly used access sites, burn patients may be at higher risk for catheter-related bloodstream infections.
The 2009 CDC NHSN report (http://www.cdc.gov/nhsn/dataStat.html) indicates that American burn centers have higher infectious complication rates than any other ICUs. Because burn patients may commonly exhibit leukocytosis with a documented bloodstream infection, practice has been to rewire lines over a guidewire and to culture the catheter tip. However, this may increase the risk of catheter-related infections in burned patients and a new site should be used if at all possible.
(See Schwartz 10th ed.,p. 233.)
A 24-year old male arrives at the emergency room with 2nd and 3rd degree burns to 50% TBSA. His weight is 70 kg. According to the Parkland formula how much fluid should you be administering in the first 8 hours:
a. NSS at 1,200 ml/hr
b. Ringer’s lactate at 1,200 ml/hr
c. Ringer’s lactate at 7,090 ml/hr
d. Ringer’s lactate at 875 ml/hr
d. Ringer’s lactate at 875 ml/hr
Which type of burn would spontaneously re-epithelialize from retained epidermal structures in the rete ridges, hair follicles, and sweat glands in 7 to 14 days?
a. Superficial second degree
b. Deep second degree
c. Third degree
d. Fourth degree
a. Superficial second degree
Which of the following is a determinant of a burn patient’s final appearance and functional outcome?
a. Burn size
b. Burn depth
c. Rapidity of resuscitation
d. Nature of burn
b. Burn depth
What is the basic pathology contributing to shock in burn patients?
a. Shift of interstitial fluid to intravascular space
b. Increased microvascular permeability
c. Dehydration 2 to exposure to extreme heat
d. Increased insensate loss due to exposure of burned areas
b. Increased microvascular permeability
Select the true statement regarding the epidemiology of burn injury:
A. Most burn injuries occur in occupational environments.
B. Young adult men are the most likely to suffer burn injury.
C. The most common cause of death after admission for a burn injury is airway occlusion.
D. Scalding is the most common cause of burns in children younger than 5 years.
E. Prevention has not had a significant impact on the incidence or mortality of burn injury.
ANSWER: D
COMMENTS: Approximately 1 million injuries are caused by thermal trauma yearly in the United States.
The majority of burn injuries occur in the home (43%).
In general, 65% of burns occur in non–work-related accidents, 17% in work-related accidents, and 5% each in recreational or in assault or abuse cases.
House fires contribute to 75%–80% of deaths from burns. Burns occur in a bimodal distribution, with an increased risk occurring in children younger than 4 years and adults 65 years and older.
African-Americans and Native Americans are disproportionately affected.
Burns occur more frequently in vulnerable populations, including those with epilepsy, those with heavy alcohol use, the poor, and people living in substandard housing.
Asphyxiation is a common cause of death at the scene of a fire, but the most common recorded cause of death in burn patients after admission is multi- organ failure.
Other causes, in decreasing order of frequency, are shock, trauma, pulmonary failure or sepsis, cardiovascular failure, and burn wound sepsis.
Hot-water scald injuries are the most common cause in children younger than 5 years, with flame burns becoming more frequent in those 5 years and older.
Ordinances requiring water heaters to be set at no higher than 120°F have decreased the incidence of scald burns.
Efforts at prevention have significantly decreased the number of burn injuries occurring in the United States, although disabled or impaired individuals are still at risk.
Which of the following regarding burn wound depth is true?
A. First-degree burns heal rapidly but contribute significantly to the total body surface area (TBSA) burned in large, mixed-depth wounds.
B. Second-degree burns characteristically cause erythema, pain, and blistering.
C. Third-degree burns are generally painful and extremely sensitive to touch.
D. Fourth-degree burns mandate amputation of the involved extremities.
E. Superficial partial-thickness burn is the contemporary term for first-degree burns.
ANSWER: B
COMMENTS: The skin consists of two layers: epidermis and dermis. The epidermis is composed of five progressively differentiated layers of keratinocytes, the outermost of which, the stratum corneum, is relatively impermeable.
The epidermis provides barrier functions and protects against infection, absorption of toxins, exposure to ultraviolet light, and fluid and heat loss.
The dermis is a cellular and extracellular layer that provides the skin with durability and elasticity. Within the dermis, fibroblasts synthesize mesenchymal proteins, and inflammatory cells are present and contribute to the inflammatory responses to injury.
Dermal papillae interdigitate with the epidermal rete ridges to form the dermal–epidermal junction, a site affected by some exfoliative diseases of the skin.
Superficial, or first-degree, burns involve only the epidermis and are erythematous and painful.
The damaged epidermis will slough off within 3 to 4 days and be replaced by regenerating keratinocytes.
Most sunburns are first degree, and the treatment of superficial burns is similar to that of sunburns. Superficial burns do not contribute significantly to the systemic response to burn injury and are not counted in the percentage of TBSA (%TBSA) burned.
Partial- thickness burns (second degree) involve both the epidermis and dermis and are subdivided into superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness, depending on the depth of dermal involve- ment.
Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the papillary dermis. Blistering occurs within 24 h of injury.
The exposed underlying dermis is typically pink, blanching, moist, and tender to touch because the nerve endings are preserved. These burns heal within 2 to 3 weeks with little risk of scarring.
Deep partial-thickness burns extend to the reticular dermis and may require more than 3 weeks to heal. These wounds blister and reveal mottled pink/white dermis. Sensation may be decreased, and the wounds may dry after initial observation. If deep partial-thickness wounds take longer than 3 weeks to heal, grafting may be required.
Full-thickness (third-degree) burns extend through the entire dermis into subcutaneous tissue. Full-thickness burns may be dry, leathery, firm, and insensate. Even if mottled in appearance, they do not blanch and may be hemorrhagic. These wounds require excision of the burn eschar and skin grafting for closure.
Indeterminate-depth wounds may be difficult to judge by initial appearance. Their potential to heal should be determined with serial observations because the initial evaluation may be inaccurate, even by experienced clinicians.
Light reflectance techniques, fluorescein, thermography, and magnetic resonance imaging have not proved useful with respect to serial clinical evaluation.
Noncontact laser Doppler imaging can be helpful but has not gained widespread clinical use.
Fourth- degree burns extend to muscle, bone, or other deep structures. They are particularly common with electrical injuries or burns with prolonged contact occurring in impaired patients. These very deep burns pose serious reconstructive challenges, and amputation may be required when the extremities or digits are involved.
Which of the following statements regarding the order or description of the zones of injury is correct?
A. A zone of hyperemia inside a zone of stasis
B. A zone of hyperemia superficial to a zone of stasis, with a deeper zone of coagulation beneath
C. A zone of coagulation at the surface of a burn wound, a zone of stasis within the injured dermal layer, and a deep zone of hyperemia characterized by vasodilated subcutaneous vessels
D. A zone of coagulation, surrounded by a zone of stasis, which is surrounded by a zone of hyperemia
E. A zone of hemorrhagic burn that must be coagulated, a zone of stasis in which the depth of burn injury is already fixed, and a zone of hyperemia that may convert to coagulation
ANSWER: D
COMMENTS: Jackson’s classification of zones of injury in 1953 referred to the varying depth of injury radiating outward from a burn wound and defined the pathophysiology of cutaneous thermal injury.
The central zone of coagulation is necrotic and irreversibly damaged; it represents a full-thickness injury that will require excision and grafting.
The zone of stasis refers to the immediately surrounding region and is characterized by constricted vessels and hypoxia.
Initially viable, this tissue may convert to coagulation or a full-thickness injury as a result of edema, infection, or shock with decreased perfusion.
The zone of stasis may remain viable if adequately perfused.
In a patient with a large-TBSA burn, the viability of this zone may be critical in providing donor sites and reducing the total area that requires grafting.
The zone of hyperemia surrounding this is characterized by vasodilation as a result of inflammatory mediators and is viable.
Select the most accurate statement regarding burn injury:
A. Contact burns occur commonly and rarely require grafting.
B. Intoxication is infrequently associated with deep burn injury.
C. Circumferential burns on both feet are seen in accidental bathing injuries in children.
D. Flash burns are generated by brief, intense heat, and articles of clothing are frequently protective.
E. Electrical burns are deeper than they appear because of the high flash temperatures generated by arcing.
ANSWER: D
COMMENTS: The mechanism of burn injury, if known, may aid in assessing the wound depth and predicting its capacity to heal. Flash burns are responsible for 50% of admissions to burn centers.
Explosions caused by natural gas, propane, and gasoline vapors generate brief, intense heat.
If not directly ignited, clothing is protective, with burns affecting only the exposed skin.
The depth of injury can be variable; many flash burns heal without grafting.
Flame burns generally result in a deep dermal or full-thickness injury because of the duration of exposure.
Structure fires and ignition of bedding or clothing are common causes of flame burns, and burn depth is proportional to the time required to remove the burning or smoldering material from the victim.
Intoxication or carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning occurring during a house fire increases the likelihood of deep flame burns.
Scald burns are the second most common cause of burns in the United States. The depth of injury is related to the water temperature and the duration of contact. At 140°F (60°C), water causes a deep dermal injury in 3s. Clothed areas may be scalded more deeply because of prolonged contact with the wet fabric before removal. Young children and elderly patients will scald faster and at lower temperatures. If not cautious, diabetic patients may accidentally scald themselves when soaking neuropathic or insensate feet in hot water. These burns are frequently deep partial to full thickness, and such patients are likely to have impaired healing as a result of their comorbid conditions. Hot oil and grease burns tend to be deep partial or full thickness because of the very high temperatures reached while cooking or heating oil.
Contact burns result from direct contact with a heat source and often occur in work environments. The hot presses used in industrial applications can cause particularly devastating combined crush/burn injuries that may result in poor functional outcomes.
Deep contact burns in domestic environments occur in children or impaired individuals (drugs, alcohol). Palmar or plantar surface burns generally deserve a period of observation because of the propensity of the thicker dermis of these surfaces to heal and less optimal results in terms of sensation and function obtained with split-thickness skin grafting in these areas.
Electrical injuries may cause deep tissue destruction that belies the surface wound when current flows through the patient, but flash burns from electrical arcing without direct contact are similar to flash burns from other sources.
Which of the following patients do not meet the criteria for referral to a burn center?
A. A 50-year-old woman with a 1% TBSA partial-thickness burn on her left hand from a cooking accident
B. A 30-year-old construction worker with pain and blistering bilaterally on the knees after kneeling in wet cement all afternoon
C. A 25-year-old man with 7% TBSA partial-thickness burns on the chest
D. A 42-year-old woman with no cutaneous injury, found lying down at the scene of a house fire, and noted to have carbonaceous sputum after intubation in the field
E. An 18-year-old man in a motor vehicle collision with 30% TBSA burns on his chest and circumferential burns bilaterally on his arms
ANSWER: C
COMMENTS: The American Burn Association and the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma have published guidelines for patient referral to a burn center for care:
(1) partial- thickness burns on greater than 10% of TBSA;
(2) burns that involve the face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints;
(3) third-degree burns (any size) in any age group;
(4) electrical burns, including lightning injury;
(5) chemical burns;
(6) inhalation injury;
(7) burn injury in patients with preexisting medical disorders that could complicate management, prolong recovery, or affect mortality;
(8) any patient with burns and concomitant trauma (such as fractures) in which the burn injury poses the greatest risk for morbidity or mortality (in such cases, if the trauma poses a greater immediate risk, the patient’s condition may be stabilized initially in a trauma center before transfer to a burn center);
(9) burned children in hospitals without qualified personnel or equipment for the care of children; and
(10) burn injuries in patients who will require special social, emotional, or rehabilitative intervention.
These criteria are not meant to be exclusive, and many centers will treat patients with wounds smaller than those mentioned in the guidelines.
Many burn centers care for patients with exfoliative skin disorders, major wounds, necrotizing infections, and other diseases that require significant wound management and critical care.