C-130H Flight Engineer MQF 01Sep19 Flashcards

Question

Four low speed ground idle buttons located on the flight control pedestal may be pushed in to reduce engine RPM to approximately __ at any time the throttles are in the range between 9-30°. a. 92 % b. 65% c. 94% d. 72%

Answer 1

Four low speed ground idle buttons located on the flight control pedestal may be pushed in to reduce engine RPM to approximately __ at any time the throttles are in the range between 9-30°. d. 72%

Answer 2

Ensure that the secure voice system mode switch is in the ________ position to provide normal operation (plain text) of the UHF radio when secure voice is not to be used. b. P

Answer 3

The electrical control system of the ramp and door is inactivated when the: c. Anchor line support arms are not in the UP position

Answer 4

The LAPES/CDS switches must remain _________ in the NORMAL/OFF (guarded) position except when required to be in ARM for operational check or mission requirements. d. Safetied

Answer 5

When 100 percent oxygen is being supplied, _________ oxygen is consumed per person as altitude ________. b. Less/increases

Answer 6

The normal hydraulic pressure range is based on the following conditions: 100 percent RPM, all flight controls in neutral, suction boost pumps ON, and no system actuation. Pressure as low as _______ PSI may be experienced in low speed ground idle and is acceptable as long as the normal limits are attained as specified above. C. 2,550

Answer 7

Do not enter/exit from the ________ side of the nose wheel well due to possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen. d. Right

Answer 8

The CVR is operational anytime the ________ bus is powered by any source other than external power. b. Essential AC

Answer 9

While visually inspecting the Halon fire extinguisher pressure gage, the needle should be in the green zone, _______ PSIG. a. 125 +-50

Answer 10

With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center overhead escape hatch using the ________ side of the ladder. b. Left

Answer 11

In emergencies, MIL-L-7808 and MIL-L-23699 may be mixed. The amount of emergency oil added should not exceed __________ tank capacity. C. One-half

Answer 12

During the BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION and before any electrical power is applied to the airplane, the engineer will: d. All of the above

Answer 13

While accomplishing the POWER ON INSPECTION, if a light in the overheat test panel fails to illuminate during testing, bleed air systems: b. Should not be pressurized until proper inspection and repairs have been made

Answer 14

During the POWER ON INSPECTION, movement of the flaps is essential at this time to enable detection of ________ or malfunctions during the walk-around inspection. c. Hydraulic leaks

Answer 15

Do not ________ or open the ground test valve if ramp hydraulic actuators are preloaded or cargo loading operations are in progress. d. Deplete hydraulic pressure

Answer 16

Depletion of the emergency brake hydraulic system pressure with the brake select switch in normal is an indication of a(n) ________ failure. c. Emergency brake selector valve

Answer 17

During EXTERIOR INSPECTION, if not previously checked by maintenance, a work stand/ladder will be required to check: d. All of the above

Answer 18

Normally, the quick don oxygen mask system is the _______ use equipment. c. Primary

Answer 19

After moving the condition lever to ground stop, do not move the lever from this position until ________. d. Engine rotation has stopped

Answer 20

During low air density conditions (high temperature above approximately 28 degrees C/ high altitude), if the engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on speed is ________ seconds. a. 70

Answer 21

The throttles must not be moved out of the ________ detent during engine starting. a. GROUND IDLE

Answer 22

If there is no positive indication of oil pressure on the engine and reduction gear by _________ % RPM, immediately discontinue the start. b. 35

Answer 23

A positive hydraulic pressure indication must be noted by the time the engine is _______. Normal operating pressure should be indicated within ________ after on speed. a. On speed/30 seconds

Answer 24

If start TIT is less than _________degrees C, record in AFTO Form 781. Maintenance action is required prior to flight. c. 720

Answer 25

If auxiliary feather motor operation is not indicated for a propeller: c. The malfunction will be corrected prior to flight

Answer 26

When down-shifting from normal to low-speed ground idle, the engineer will monitor the engine instruments and be prepared to shut down the engine by placing the condition lever to GROUND STOP if the temperature exceeds ________ degrees C or a stall occurs. c. 850

Answer 27

If a stop, sudden or severe braking application has occurred during turns: b. Record in Form 781A

Answer 28

The use of brakes during reverse taxiing should be ________ to prevent the airplane from setting on the tail. b. Avoided

Answer 29

Do not hold the ice detector TEST switch in the No. 2 or No. 3 position longer than five seconds. The test cycle may be repeated once, but then wait ________ minutes for the ice detector to cool before performing this test again. a. Five

Answer 30

With engines running, never operate the propeller anti-icing or de-icing system for more than ________ cycles while the airplane is on the ground. d. Two

Answer 31

If the BLADE DE-ICING ammeter falls below________, do not fly into icing conditions. c. 65 amperes

Answer 32

Observe engine torque and TIT when placing each ________ switch in the ON position when accomplishing the Before Takeoff checklist. a. ENGINE INLET AIR DUCT ANTI-ICING

Answer 33

Main tank boost pump switches ________ be turned off in-flight unless directed by a specific procedure in the flight manual. d. Will not

Answer 34

Above crossover, if the engine instruments are not similar in ________, with throttles aligned, a propulsion system malfunction may exist. d. Fuel flow, TIT, or torque

Answer 35

On airplanes modified by TO 1C-130-2098, with brakes fully applied and engines at maximum power, forward movement may occur at a constant rate of ______ or less, and is acceptable. a. 1 foot/second

Answer 36

Never place the throttles in the TAKEOFF position without monitoring the ________, since it is possible to exceed the maximum allowable torque. b. Torque meters

Answer 37

The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is: c. Obstacle clearance speed plus 10 knots

Answer 38

If performance is critical and a takeoff with brake creep is unacceptable, engine power may be checked symmetrically (e.g. outboard engines checked with inboards at ground idle, inboards checked with outboards at ground idle) before advancing all engines towards maximum power. A. True

Answer 39

For GCAS ESCAPE during night/IMC En route. If required, rotate the airplane to maintain a maximum climb angle (flaps up: no less than 160 KIAS, flaps 50% or 100%: no slower than 130 KIAS). a. 160/130

Answer 40

New TOLD will be required any time gross weight changes 5,000 pounds or more, outside temperature changes ________ degrees C or more, or pressure altitude changes 1,000 feet or more. d. 5

Answer 41

Higher than normal ________ system pressure may be encountered in-flight. b. Emergency brake

Answer 42

At high airspeeds, abrupt movement of the throttles into the ground range could result in: a. Pitchlock

Answer 43

Do not downspeed the engines when taxi speed, wind, or a combination of the two exceeds 30 knots. Damage to the safety coupling could occur. b. 30

Answer 44

If severe wind shear is encountered on final and a recovery is flown, the navigator/engineer will monitor and call out ___________________. c. Radar Altimeter

Answer 45

The only sound response when severe wind shear is encountered during an approach is an immediate decision to _______________ a. Execute a go around

Answer 46

During landing, at the first indication of directional control difficulties during reversing, immediately: b. Return all throttles to GROUND IDLE

Answer 47

The nose gear must be on the ground prior to _________. b. Reversing

Answer 48

When moving the flaps at low airspeed, an asymmetrical flap may go undetected until near or above ___________. d. Takeoff speed

Answer 49

If a go-around is accomplished, retracting flaps from 100 to 50 percent will: d. Increase stall speed

Answer 50

The flight engineer should monitor engine instruments during shutdown for: b. Zero fuel flow and TIT and RPM decrease

Answer 51

If NTS advisory lights do not illuminate when shutting down engines from low-speed ground idle: b. A recheck of the NTS system must be made before the next flight

Answer 52

Regardless of specific emergency encountered: d. All the above

Answer 53

When pulling the condition lever to FEATHER, pull it all the way to the detent to assure that the propeller is fully feathered when the engine fuel is shut off. If the lever is left at a mid-position, and NTS is inoperative, a(n) c. Engine decoupling is possible

Answer 54

If on crossfeed during the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE, ________ before shutting off the fuel boost pump and closing the crossfeed valve for the affected engine. c. Ensure source of fuel to operate engines

Answer 55

If cabin pressure increases at an excessive rate and cannot be reduced by normal means then: d. All the above

Answer 56

If either the left or right wheel well overheat light illuminates after takeoff and the condition persists after isolation procedures have been accomplished, it may be indicative of: b. Overheated brakes

Answer 57

81. The correct procedure for high TIT on the ground is: C. Retard the throttle toward GROUND IDLE, and place the temp datum control valve switch to the NULL position. If this fails to eliminate the over temperature condition, place condition lever to GROUND STOP

Answer 58

If a tailpipe fire occurs in-flight, follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If the fire persists: c. The airplane should be accelerated as rapidly as possible, not exceeding maximum airspeed

Answer 59

If a turbine overheat occurs in-flight: A. Retard the throttle toward FLIGHT IDLE. If the condition persists, proceed with the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE

Answer 60

During GROUND EVACUATION; if pyrotechnics are loaded on the airplane, evacuate a minimum of ______ feet from the airplane. d. 600

Answer 61

If a main wheel well fire exists or hot brakes are suspected and conditions require personnel to be close to an overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from the ______ only. d. fore or aft

Answer 62

If aborting for a propeller malfunction or any other malfunction which could result in asymmetric power causing directional control problems when the throttles are placed in the ground range, shut down the affected engine while throttle is in: a. FLIGHT IDLE

Answer 63

For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to ________ the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration. B. Turn toward

Answer 64

For a takeoff continued after engine failure, flap retraction should be accomplished in ______ percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately ________ knots between retraction increments. c. 10, 5

Answer 65

In all combinations of two engine failures, monitor ________ to keep it within the range of available output. d. Generator loading

Answer 66

Two-engine operation above ________ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal. c. 120,000

Answer 67

If a propeller malfunction occurs after refusal speed and there is no indication of fire, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least ________ is reached. Ref: TO 1C-130 H/K-1 Pg: 3A-22, 3A-21 Chap: 3 Para: Note b. Two-engine inoperative air minimum control speed

Answer 68

During pitchlocked propeller operation, the engine should be shutdown when: d. All of the above

Answer 69

If a propeller fails to feather in flight, it is critical to restore oil to the ________ of the windmilling propeller as soon as possible. c. Reduction gearbox

Answer 70

For PROPELLER BRAKE FAILURE; if the propeller does counter-rotate, and the procedures are ineffective: b. Land as soon as practical

Answer 71

If throttle control cable failure is suspected, do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause: d. The propeller to go into reverse pitch or to full power

Answer 72

Any time an IGNITION CONTROL circuit breaker is pulled on an inboard engine, the ________ for that engine is inoperative. d. Ice detection system

Answer 73

A sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by: d. All the above

Answer 74

In case of loss of oil pressure: b. Shut down the engine in accordance with the Engine Shutdown Procedure

Answer 75

A negative G condition may allow air to enter the engine oil supply line resulting in a loss of oil pressure approximately ________ later due to oil pump cavitation. c. 30 to 90 seconds

Answer 76

If a Tachometer Generator Failure occurs on the engine selected as the master engine, first: b. Place the synchrophaser master switch to OFF/other master

Answer 77

When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative fuel boost pump, avoid: c. Rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes

Answer 78

Do not select ________ unless the crossfeed system is pressurized by operating fuel boost pumps in other tanks. a. Crossfeed

Answer 79

After confirmed fuel pump failure, fuel boost pump circuit breakers may be reset and the pump operated only: b. To prevent fuel starvation when a landing cannot be accomplished within the range of available fuel

Answer 80

Prior to performing any procedure which involves removing all AC power: c. Configure the fuel system for tank to engine operation

Answer 81

Failure of the reverse current relay connecting the essential and isolated DC bus will be indicated by: d. Illumination of the ISOL DC ON BATT/BAT DSCH light and/or a battery voltmeter indication of 24 volts or less

Answer 82

If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete the FUSELAGE FIRE/SMOKE AND FUME ELEMINATION procedure should: c. Not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated

Answer 83

Smoke developed in the cargo compartment ________ move forward into the flight station. The hatch ________ be opened to effectively eliminate smoke and fumes during all elimination emergencies. B. Will/must

Answer 84

If an in-flight door warning occurs and it cannot be determined what caused the door light to illuminate, the flight ________ at the discretion of the pilot (below the point where the light illuminates and with all personnel secured with safety belts). b. May be continued with partial pressurization

Answer 85

If the inner and outer panes of a flight deck windshield should crack in-flight, reduce the cabin pressure to ___________. d. 10 inches or less

Answer 86

In the event that utility or boost hydraulic pressure in excess of 3,450 psi is indicated: b. Do not turn off the individual hydraulic pump switches

Answer 87

If elevator control should fail (hydraulic assistance is lost), achieve approximately level flight and ________ KIAS and land with 50% flaps recommended. c. 170

Answer 88

If movement of the flaps, after an outboard flap failure, must be attempted, return them in increments of ________ toward the position last selected before failure. During flap movement, check aileron control ________. d. 10 percent/constantly

Answer 89

Protection against asymmetrical operation is provided only during ________ hydraulic flap operation. a. Normal

Answer 90

________ take-off with a known or suspected landing gear malfunction. b. Do not attempt a

Answer 91

If the landing gear selector valve DOWN button requires holding to lower the gear, hydraulic pressure will not be available for: b. Nose wheel steering

Answer 92

For Manual Gear Extension, make sure the ratchet on the hand crank is set for ______ rotation before placing it on the emergency extension stub shaft. a. Down

Answer 93

A controllability check is conducted if suspected or actual in-flight damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed occurs, d. All of the above

Answer 94

When landing with two engines inoperative, a go-around is not recommended: b. After the flaps are lowered

Answer 95

If one main landing gear cannot be extended, the recommended procedure is to retract the other main gear and land with only the nose gear down, or land with all landing gears retracted. (Refer to Gear-Up Landing.) a. True

Answer 96

If a decision is made by the pilot to ditch the airplane then a minimum of ________ pounds of fuel should remain at time of descent from altitude. C. 2,000

Answer 97

Negative thrust from propeller(s) retarded to the FLIGHT IDLE position will produce _____ drag than a feathered or windmilling propeller and _________ air minimum control speeds for the condition. c. More, increase

Answer 98

If NTS is not indicated during an airstart, interruption of the start cycle after light off by an attempt to feather before the engine has reached a stabilized speed may result in: c. Decoupling and severe over speed

Answer 99

Ensure INU power switch has been off for more than ________ seconds before turning SCNS power switch OFF. b. 10

Answer 100

When oil temperature exceeds ________ degrees C. for any time duration, an entry will be made in the Form 781 to include duration and temperature. d. 100

Answer 101

Normal limits for AC voltage: d. 110 to 125 Volts

Answer 102

Power section oil pressure up to ________ PSI is allowable during start and warm-up. d. 100

Answer 103

Normal limit for the cabin differential gage: c. -1.2 to 15.8 In. Hg

Answer 104

The external fuel tank fuel boost pump pressure limits are ________ PSI. b. 28 to 40

Answer 105

The normal limits on the DC voltmeter are ________ volts. d. 25-30

Answer 106

In case of emergency, oxygen usage may be continued until: d. System is empty

Answer 107

During propeller reversing check, if symmetrical torque differences are ________ inch pounds or more, record in AFTO Form 781. c. 1,000

Answer 108

Do not exceed ________ KIAS with the ramp (or ramp and cargo door) open regardless of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed or the position of the air deflectors. c. 150

Answer 109

Maximum airspeed with the paratroop doors open and locked is: a. 250 KIAS

Answer 110

With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ________ G in unsymmetrical maneuvers. b. 1.5

Answer 111

Secondary fuel management will shorten the service life of the wings and should be avoided unless necessary for mission accomplishment. This becomes more critical when: d. All of the above

Answer 112

Maximum effort operations with airplane configuration (fuel, cargo, etc.) that necessitate 300 FPM rate-of-sink should be restricted to wartime operation only. To perform during peacetime will require ________ approval. d. Major Command

Answer 113

Under stable conditions, allowable oil pressure fluctuation is _________ psi (_________ psi excursion) for the power section. b. +/- 10 psi/20 psi

Answer 114

Normal speed ground idle RPM limits are ________ percent. d. 94-102

Answer 115

Reduction gearbox oil pressure is permitted to go below ________ PSIG when RPM is below 100% if 150 PSIG can be maintained at 100% RPM with oil temperature normal. c. 150

Answer 116

If start TIT is between 720-750 degrees C: d. All the above

Answer 117

If the feather override button fails to pop out within 6 seconds after the the propeller is feathered: b. Pull it out manually to shut off the pump. Maintenance action is required prior to flight

Answer 118

Allowable propeller fluctuations are: b. Plus/minus 0.5% either side of a stable RPM for a total of 1%

Answer 119

Raising of the flaps is permissible during stall recovery to decrease drag and assist in the recovery. b. False

Answer 120

Fin stall can occur at all speeds between stall speed and approximately ________ KIAS in all flap configurations with power________. d. 170/ON

Answer 121

The recommended airspeed for penetration into thunderstorms is: c. 65 knots above power-off stall speed not to exceed 180 KIAS

Answer 122

Cold weather procedures are generally considered to be applicable when the temperature is ________ and below. d. Both B and C

Answer 123

Starts in cold weather conditions may result in start TIT less than normal starting limits. If all engine starts are similar in TIT: a. Consider this a normal start, no further action is required

Answer 124

________ should be on during takeoff and climb if temperature is 32 degrees F or lower and any visible moisture is present. b. Propeller and engine anti-icing and deicing

Answer 125

Takeoff run is ________ and rate of climb decreased in high temperatures. c. Considerably increased

Answer 126

In accordance with hot weather procedures, during descent (for landing) below ________ feet, manually open the oil cooler flaps and place the switches to the FIXED position. c. 15,000

Answer 127

As soon as the airplane is parked during hot weather, chock wheels and ________ in order to avoid possible damage to brake components from excessive heat generated while taxiing. b. Release brakes

Answer 128

In accordance with desert procedures; when propeller reversing is used during landing, start moving the throttles from MAXIMUM REVERSE to GROUND IDLE at approximately ________ KIAS and have the throttles at GROUND IDLE by the time 40 KIAS is reached. a. 60

Answer 129

Take-Off factor combines the parameters of: b. Torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency

Answer 130

When the crosswind component and_____________ fall within the caution area, the take-off or touchdown speed should be increased until the recommended area is reached or until the aircraft speed has been increased by 10 knots. b. Normal take-off or touch down speed

Answer 131

When corrected refusal speed exceeds take-off speed, use _________. d. Take-off speed for refusal speed

Answer 132

When computing climb-out performance, a headwind ________used for obstacle clearance, but the tailwind component ________ used to determine an effective obstacle distance. c. is not / is

Answer 133

The RCR factor ________ affect the 4-engine climbout, but ________ affect the 3engine climbout. a. does not / does

Answer 134

All take-off data are based on rotation occurring at rotation speed and lift-off occurring at take-off speed. Any delay in rotation will require corrections to take-off data. A. True

Answer 135

For Refusal Speed, in the event of an engine failure, the options available are based on ________. a. Vmcg, Vr, and Vcef

Answer 136

In the case of a balanced critical field length,the Refusal Speed is always higher than Critical Engine Failure Speed. This is because Vr is based on the runway length available, while Vcrf is based on the critical field length. a. Vr/Vcef

Answer 137

________ is operation at the speed which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given configuration, altitude, temperature, and gross weight. c. Maximum endurance

Answer 138

When landing with one or two engines inoperative, it is recommended that the in-flight ________ be compared to the ________ and the higher speed be used for approach. b. Minimum control speed/recommended approach speed

Answer 139

Presented landing field length distance performance is based on multiple conditions to include ________. d. Maximum anti-skid braking

Answer 140

Take-off and immediate landing data for the departure airfield will be completed prior to _____. The destination landing data will be computed prior to the completion of _____. d. Take-off/DESCENT checklist

Answer 141

The ___________ is the final authority in determining the overall suitability of an aircraft for the mission. a. PIC

Answer 142

A PIC who accepts an aircraft with degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same degraded equipment. a. True

Answer 143

For peace-time do not use runways less than __________ feet. a. 3,000

Answer 144

Minimum runway width is _____ (____for max effort). Minimum taxiway width is ______. b. 80 feet/60 feet/30 feet

Answer 145

All maximum effort operations must fall in the ___________ area of charts (corrected for RCR) unless otherwise approved by OG/CC. b. recommended

Answer 146

When runway widths less than 80 feet have lengths that fall within performance requirements for a normal landing, max effort crews are ________ but max effort landing procedures are __________. c. required/not required

Answer 147

Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____ feet. c. 25/10

Answer 148

__________ detecting the illumination of the radar altimeter Low Altitude Warning Light will immediately notify the pilot flying the aircraft. c. Any crewmember

Answer 149

Pilots will normally use __________ for takeoffs provided refusal speed (Vr) is equal to or greater than takeoff speed. b. reduced power

Answer 150

Reduced power for formation takeoffs are 970 or 937 degrees TIT dependent upon installed engines. Formation leaders brief takeoff TIT/torque settings when different variants are in the same formation. d. TIT/torque settings

Answer 151

Crewmembers will carry a personal helmet: D. All of the above

Answer 152

Each crewmember must carry an operable flashlight. a. True

Answer 153

All crewmembers issued an electronic flight bag (EFB) will ensure it is ______ and ______ on all flights. b. current/carried

Answer 154

The __________ will provide the obstacle height, distance, and gradient information necessary for performance computations to the flight engineer. b. Pilot In Command (PIC)

Answer 155

The aircrew T.O. 1C-130XX-1 preflight inspection will remain valid until either: Ref: d. all of the above

Answer 156

Under no circumstance will any crewmember act as the towing supervisor. a. True

Answer 157

Crewmembers will fit and adjust LPUs for overwater flights and will wear them on overwater missions below _______ feet. c. 2,000

Answer 158

The C-130 is a category “C” aircraft. If approach speeds exceed _____ knots, the minimums for category “D” will be used. c. 140

Answer 159

If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull the ___________ power circuit breaker. b. CVR and FDR

Answer 160

Limit personnel on the flight deck to the minimum commensurate with the mission requirements. At no time will this exceed _____ . b. seven

Answer 161

Passengers ______________ during initial qualification or re-qualification training (N/A with MEP). b. are not authorized

Answer 162

Minimum runway length for 50% flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is _____ feet. Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _____ feet. c. 5,000/6,000

Answer 163

Touch and go landings are only authorized when the crosswind component corrected for RCR is within the ___________ zone for the landing crosswind chart. b. Recommended

Answer 164

Maximum gross weight for a no-flap landing is _____ lbs. B. 120,000

Answer 165

When performing a Stop-and-Go landing, runway remaining for takeoff must be greater than or equal to __________. a. CFL

Answer 166

If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available to clear it, the highest qualified flight engineer on scene may obtain authorization to sign off the Red X from the ___________, in accordance with TO 00-20-1. d. Home station MXG/CC or designated representative

Answer 167

When crewmembers are required to refuel, the flight engineer will act as the __________. a. Refueling team supervisor

Answer 168

Unless servicing JP-4, simultaneous servicing of fuel while loading passengers, cargo, performing maintenance, aircrew members performing inspections, or operating aircraft systems is considered to be a normal fuel servicing operation. a. True

Answer 169

During normal fuel servicing operations, simultaneous fuel and oxygen servicing is not authorized. a. True

Answer 170

When conducting flaps up landings, compute and post VMCA speeds for both configurations; flaps 50% and flaps up (normal boost). For example: VMCA, in ground effect, one engine inoperative - 105/122. a. True

Answer 171

Minimum TOLD requirements for a termination landing are: Air Minimum Control Speeds, Obstacle Clearance Speed, 3 Engine Climb Speed, 100 & 50% Flap Landing Speeds and Distances, 0% Landing Approach Speed (Night or IMC), and __________. d. 3 Eng Ft/NM

Answer 172

The AF IMT 4108 will be completed whenever the navigator completes the __________. c. AF IMT 4116, C-130 Flight Plan and Record

Answer 173

Authority to use the HERP is granted by OG/CC/CD for Operations; this authority is documented on the: d. Both A and C

Answer 174

Aircrews will consider delaying engine start on all departures whenever practical to minimize fuel consumption. a. True

Answer 175

If either the pilots' NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, or radar altimeter fail, climb to MSA until resolving the problem. In addition, climb to MSA to resolve any T.O. 1C130(X)/(X)-1 Section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation. a. True

Answer 176

Airdrops will not be conducted below the following altitudes: d. All of the above

Answer 177

Low Altitude Approach maneuvers may be flown on continuation training and operational missions with passengers aboard. In all cases plan to roll out on final at __________ speed no lower than _____ ft _____. b. approach/150/AGL

Answer 178

EROs will not be conducted simultaneously through the __________ door and __________ door. c. crew entrance door/paratroop doors/cargo ramp and door

Answer 179

During ERO procedures, use __________ and __________ to enhance safety at night as the situation dictates. d. wing leading edge/taxi lights

Answer 180

When personnel on-load and off-load through the crew entrance door, station a crewmember (normally the loadmaster) on interphone with cord held taut at approximately ______-feet at an angle of _____-degrees from the aircraft axis. a. 20/45

Answer 181

Combat Off-load Method “A” Procedures. A taxiway or ramp at least ______ feet long is required, however, _____ feet is desired to provide a margin of safety. b. 500/1000

Answer 182

NVG Airland. Coordinated actions during the final segment of an NVG __________ and _________ are critical. c. approach/landing

Answer 183

NVG Operations. For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed _____ degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until rolled on final. b. 45/150’

Answer 184

NVG Operations. IMC Approaches. The transfer of aircraft control for the landing will be no lower than _____. a. 300’ AGL

Answer 185

Formations. At no time will aircraft be operated within _____ feet of another aircraft. b. 500

Answer 186

When flying at night, potential for spatial disorientation increases with: d. All of the above

Answer 187

Do not perform touch-and-go landings during formation recoveries unless: d. Never

Answer 188

Analyze pre-drop gross weight to determine if obstructions can be cleared with __________. a. one engine inoperative

Answer 189

Towed Parachutist. The PIC must consider density altitude, aircraft weight, position in formation, or other factors deemed important in determining what flap setting between _____ and _____ percent should be used. c. 50/100

Answer 190

An aircraft or system that has suspected or known biological, chemical, or radiological contamination is maintenance status Alpha______. c. 4

Answer 191

Aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating. If no minimum climb gradient is published, _____ ft/nm to an appropriate IFR altitude will be used. b. 200

Answer 192

__________ is the period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the aircrew completes the final engine shutdown of the day. a. Flight Duty Period

Answer 193

Aircrew should minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and extraneous activities that could interfere with flight duties when operating below __________, during critical phases of flight, during periods of increased workload and during all taxi operations. Exception: N/A during non-critical periods of low-workload in level cruise flight regardless of altitude. d. 18,000 feet MSL

Answer 194

Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain. A. True

Answer 195

Do not fly directly above (within _____ feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds. c. 2000

Answer 196

Flight into areas of forecast or reported __________ is prohibited. d. severe turbulence

Answer 197

Maintain at least _____ separation from heavy rain showers. a. 5 NMs

Answer 198

If departure is not possible, the aircrew must secure the aircraft to the best of their ability. In no case, will the entire crew leave the aircraft unattended. Crew rest will be subordinate to aircraft security when the airframe may be at risk. a. True

Answer 199

Crews facing a hijacking threat will notify ground agencies by __________. d. All of the above

Answer 200

The __________ is a tool to notify appropriate authorities of any mishap involving crewmembers or aircraft. b. AMC IMT 97, AMC In-Flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet

Answer 201

This is a closed-loop system of communication designed to significantly reduce typical automation selection errors. b. Verbalize, Verify, and Monitor (VVM)

Answer 202

Any crewmember seeing a deviation of _____ feet altitude or _____ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF. b. 100/10

Answer 203

The stabilization point for precision approaches is at _______ feet above Threshold Elevation (THRE). For all other approaches (except tactical approaches), the stabilization point is at ______ feet above THRE unless otherwise briefed by the PF. d. 1000/300

Answer 204

At the briefed stabilization point, the _____ will state the altitude (AGL) and announce “stable” or “go-around”. b. PM

Answer 205

It is imperative for aircrews to review the airfield environment. Identify key features such as: d. All of the above

Answer 206

IWP in Mountainous Terrain. Carefully consider IWP while operating in or around mountainous terrain. Airspeed is of primary concern. Crews should calculate and post _______ (flaps up) or ______ (flaps 50 percent) speeds to achieve the best climb rate or best climb angle. a. four-engine climb, obstacle clearance

Answer 207

Aircrew members will carry helmets on the following missions: A. All missions

Answer 208

The liquid oxygen system will have at least _____ liters of oxygen prior to going OCONUS? D. 20

Answer 209

When carrying flares, the divert airport order of priority is: C. US Mil, NATO, Joint-Use, Civilian

Answer 210

After flight, NVGs will be ______. B. Placed in the bin chute in the AFE locker room

Answer 211

According to our Squadron Standards, if a dry pass is planned, the doors should remain closed. A. True

Answer 212

All crew members are required to train with a frequency not to exceed _____ . B. 24 months

Answer 213

Aircraft commanders should consider _____ when deciding if a mission should continue after a bird strike. D. All of the above

Answer 214

Individual crewmembers are expected to speak up when they are _______, ______ or _______. D. All of the above

Answer 215

Surface wind limitations for actual LCLA training load airdrops is _____. C. 17 knots

Answer 216

For ANG missions, the approval authority for extending the maximum flight duty period by 2 hours due to unplanned mission delays is ____. A. Pilot-in-Command

Answer 217

Minimum Lox requirements for local area missions is __________. A. 10 Liters

Answer 218

Stop and Go Landings are________________ D. Only approved by the OG/CC during certain upgrade training.

Answer 219

During cold weather procedures the Flight Engineer will wait to up-speed the engine until the oil temp has reached _____________________________. B. 10 Degrees C

Answer 220

For all training/proficiency assault take-offs the crew will simulate a maximum of a ________. C. 50’ Obstacle

Answer 221

During Cross Country sorties the Flight Engineer will at a minimum ____________. D. Both A and C.

C-130H Flight Engineer MQF 01Sep19 Flashcards

(245 cards)