C/B final Flashcards

1
Q

anatomy of language is lateralized to ___

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

-regions surrounding Sylvian fissure
-left perisylvian language network
-variation among individuals, therefore cortical stimulation mapping to locate language areas is routine before surgical removal of tumors or epileptic foci

A

anatomy of language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where is wernicke’s area

A

Superior temporal gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where is Broca’s area and insular cortex

A

inferior frontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where is the supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus

A

inferior parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what areas are important to language

A

-Superior temporal gyrus
-temporal cortex
-inferior parietal lobe
-inferior frontal cortex

*THINK STII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

deficits in language comprehension and production

A

aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

-expressive aphasia
-hard time speaking
-referred to telegraphic speech
-syntax aphasia (easier to understand that boy hit girl not girl was hit by a boy)
-pars triangular and pars opercularis –> broca’s area

A

broca’s aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T or F
not all patients with damage to broca’s are will have speech problems

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

-comprehension problems

A

wernicke’s aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what connects both wernicke and and Broca’s area

A

arcuate fasciculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T or F
if wernicke is not affected but arcuate fasciculus is then there won’t be comprehension problems

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

inability to find words to label things
ex. tip of the tongue phenonmenon

A

anomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

difficulty controlling articulatory muscles

A

dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

deficits in motor planning of articulations

A

speech apraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

difficulty coordinating speech

A

developmental dyspraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

retrieval error

A

agnosia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lose ability to do something

A

apraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

partially lose the ability to do something

A

dyspraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

inability to read words despite other language processes being intact
-due to damage in the MEDIAL OCCIPITOTEMPORAL GYRUS or VISUAL WORD FORM AREA (VWFA(

A

Alexia (root word)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

inability to write, motor dysfunction

A

agraphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what can patients do with Alexia without agraphia

A

-can write but cannot read
-can write because their language areas are still connected to motor areas
-letter by letter reading compensation mechanism – slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

vision based

A

orthographic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

stored representations (words, meanings, concepts, and rules)

A

mental lexicon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
we see or hear a word and then need to retrieve the word from our mental lexicon
lexical access
26
making a selection
lexical selection
27
words are integrated into the message (sentence, larger context to facilitate understanding)
lexical integration
28
smallest meaningful represention - ex. root word such as frost in defrost and defroster -pre and suffix also changes meaning of words
morpheme
29
smallest unit of sound -combine to form syllables
phoneme
30
what are the 4 principles of lexical organization
1. morpheme 2. how frequently a word is used/how common It is 3. phoneme 4. representations organized into semantic relationships
31
explains semantic priming during word recognition
connectionist model of the mental lexicon
32
T or F high level semantic representions are not distributed throughout the brain and are confined to the LH
F high level semantic representions ARE distributed throughout the brain and are NOT confined to the LH
33
type of language output error commonly associated with aphasia -characterized by the production of unintended syllables, words or phrases during the effort to speak
paraphasia
34
wernicke's aphasia --> ___ ___ -might say horse instead of cow -this shows that cow and horse are probably connected in the brain
semantic paraphasia
35
deep dyslexia likely commit to ___ ___ when reading
semantic paraphasia
36
difficultly visually recognizing words
surface dyslexia
37
difficulty assigning objects to a category -might say animal instead of cow -shows how these words are categorized
semantic dementia
38
highest perceptual ability to distinguish phonemes is within the ___ year
first
39
how do we differentiate auditory sounds into separate words
segmentation problem
40
spoken input = ?
understanding speech
41
sound perception relies on the ___ ___ ___
superior temporal cortex
42
area sensitive to speech and non speech sounds
-heschl's gyrus containing the primary auditory cortex
43
area sensitive to speech sounds
STS part of the secondary auditory cortex
44
areas sensitive to words (lexical-semantic info)
inferior temporal gyrus, angular gyrus, temporal pole
45
when some biological function takes a novel advantage of another function
exaptation
46
language was exapted from thinking, for communication
Gould's theory
47
suggested language arose from a combo of gestures and facial movements, speculating that mirror neurons are a piece of the language puzzle
rizzolatti & arbib
48
-altering the sequence to match the human gene, in mice, resulted in higher synaptic plasticity -many of the genes regulated involve motor function
FOXP2 gene
49
represents a dramatic dysregulation of motivational circuits that is caused by a combo of exaggerated incentive salience and habit formation, reward deficits and stress surfeits, and compromised executive function (response inhibition, decision making, working memory) in 3 stages
drug addiction
50
chronic relapsing disorder characterized by
1. compulsion to seek and take the drug 2. loss off control in limiting intake and continued use despite the negative consequences 3. emergence of a negative emotional state (ex. dysphoria, anxiety, irritability) reflecting a motivational withdrawal syndrome when drug access is prevented
51
people with fewer __ receptors are more likely to become addicted than those with many of the receptors
D2
52
concerns the extent to which your test or measure accurately assesses what its supposed to -are you testing what you think you're testing
construct validity
53
refers to the ability of a test or other measurement to predict a future outcome -an outcome can be a behavior, performance, or even a disease that occurs at some point in the future
predictive validity
54
incentive salience / "wanting" is generated by neural systems that include mesolimbic ____
DA
55
LIKING / or the actual pleasurable impact of reward consumption, is mediated by different neural systems and is ____ dependent on DA (involved opioids
NOT
56
essence of drug addiction to be excessive amplification specifically of psychological 'wanting', especially triggered by cures without necessarily an amplification of 'liking' *DUE TO SENSITIZATION (plasticity) of dopaminergic systems in susceptible individuals
incentive-sensitization theory
57
binge/intoxicaitno stage involve changes in DA and opioid peptides in the _____ ___
basal ganglia
58
craving and deficits in executive function in the ______ involve dysregulation of key afferent protections from the ___ ___ and insult, to the basal ganglia and extended amygdala
1. preoccupation/anticipation stage 2. prefrontal cortex
59
negative emotional states and dysphoric and stress-like responses in the ______ involve decreases in DA function and recruitment of brain stress NT such as corticosteroidstropin releasing factor and dynorphin in the neurocircuitry of the _____ ____
1. withdrawal/negative affect stage 2. extended amygdala
60
-*motivation linked with hedonic, affective, or ,emotional states in the transition to addiction -these states are automatically modulated by mechanisms that reduce the intensity of hedonic feelings -positive hedonic responses in drug use occur shortly after presentation of a stimulus, correlate closely with the intensity of hedonic feeling --the role of the opponent processes begins early in drug taking, reflects changes in the brain reward and stress systems, and later forms one of the major motivations for compulsivity in drug taking in the form of a motivational withdrawal syndrome
Solomon's opponent process theory
61
alcohol and drug releases DA and opioid peptides into the ____ _____
ventral striatum
62
T or F D2 receptor activation not sufficient for drug reward -- they may even limit drug reward
True
63
motivation for rewards derived from both one's physiological state previously learned association about a reward cue that is mediated by the mesocortoicolimbic DA system
incentive salience
64
___ - ____ is observed when conditioned responding is directed toward the CS whereas goal-tracking manifest as responding directed to the SITE OF EXPECTED REWARD DELIVERY
sign-tracking
65
dopamine neurons initially fire in response to ______ -after repeated exposure, they stop firing during predictable reward delivery and instead dire during exposure to stimuli predictive of the reward
novel reward
66
pathway of habit formation, compulsivity, encoding behavioral automaticity
ventral striatum --> stratal-globus pallidalthalamocotrical loops --> dorsal
67
predisposition toward rapid, unplanned reactions to internal and external stimuli without regard for the negative consequences of these reactions to themselves or others -often accompanied by feelings of pleasure or gratification
impulsivity
68
manifestation of preservative, repetitive actions that are excessive and inappropriate -often performed to reduce tension or anxiety from obsessive thoughts
compulsivity
69
decrease in DA, 5HT, and GABA, increases in glutamate and u-opioid receptors responsively in the NAC during drug withdrawal
withdrawal
70
what are the 3 things that are recruited in the extended amygdala and contribute to the development of negative emotional states in acts withdrawal and protracted abstinence
CRF, Norepinephrine, an dynorphin
71
elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), corticosterone, and CRF in amygdala during ______ _____
acute withdrawal
72
_____ & ____ are antagonists in the NAC block anxiety and stress-like effects of withdrawal
CRF & KOR
73
decreases in ____ in the NAC can also be driven by increases in the activity of the KOR system in the NAC and possibly increases in the activity of CRF int eh VTA, which contributes to the negative emotional state associated with withdrawal
DA
74
____ _____ plays a key role in mediating and encoding aversive states -controls decrease in DA firing in the VTA associated with failure to receive an expected reward
lateral habenula
75
combo of decreases in reward function and increases in stress function in the motivational circuits of the (what 3 regions) is a power trigger of negative reinforcement that contributes to compulsive drug seeking behavior and addiction
ventral striatum, extended amygdala, and habenula
76
stage in which individuals reinstate drug-seeking behavior after abstinence remains a focus for identifying neurobiology mechanism of relapse and the development of medications for treatment
preoccupation/anticipation stage
77
deficits in executive function ex. impulsivity reflected by decreases in FRONTAL CORTEX that interfere with decision making, self regulation, inhibitory control , and WM, might involve disrupted _______ activity in PFC
GABAergic
78
cues, drug prime, and stress can contribute to ____
relapse (reinstatement)
79
in rats GLUT projection from PFC to NAC that is modulated by DA
drug-induced reinstatement
80
-in rats GLUT protection from PFC< BLA< and ventral subiculum to the NAC; DA modulation in the BLA and dorsal stratum
cue-induced reinstatement
81
-in rats CRF and NE in extended amygdala
stress-induced reinstatement
82
in humans dLPFC, anterior cingulate gyrus, and medial OFC
cue-induced reinstatement
83
neurological processes evolved to guide behavior -consists of NEURAL CIRCUITS and RESPONSE SYSTEM -involves APPRAISAL PROCESSES
emotions
84
short term, discrete emotions
affect
85
more diffuse, longer-lasting state -enduring subjective feelings without identifiable trigger -no well defined neuro-hormonal substrate
mood
86
multiple components ---> coordinated
conventional view of emotion
87
central emotional state causes multiple parallel responses
Anderson & adolph's theory
88
emotions are composed of what 3 things
1. physiological state 2. behavioral state (expression/actions, etc.) 3. cognitive state (subjective experience/feeling)
89
acute HPA response --> ?
state
90
chronic stress can lead to changes in ___ functioning which can in turn lead to mood and anxiety disorder
HPA
91
critical to many theories of emotions -HPA axis -reticular activation system ------attention, arousal, modulation of muscle tone, and ability to focus -amygdala
arousal
92
basal and lateral amygdala (BLA) --- escape and avoidance
neural signatures
93
-medial temporal lobe lesions -lack of fear manifested by a tendency to approach objects that would normally elicit a fear response
Kulver-Bucy syndrome
94
___ is the forebrain's most connected structure
amygdala
95
_____ is responsive to positive and negative valanced stimuli
amygdala
96
amygdala is sensitive to changes in ___ ___
emotional intensity
97
T or F amygdala is more flexible when It comes to negative stimuli than positive stimuli
F LESS FLEXIBLE
98
creation of new associative memory can inhibit the original fear memory
extinction
99
fear response in the same context
spontaneous recovery
100
fear response in different context
contextual renewal
101
fear exposure upon re-exposure to the US
reinstatement
102
______ lesions block ability to aquire and express CR (freezing) to a neutral CS (cue or context) that is paired with an aversive US (shock)
amygdala
103
can the cortex generate physiological changes associated with fear
no because there is no link to the amygdala & its midbrain connections
104
a person can know something bad is going to happed but still experience no fear
explicit fear
105
learning via someone else's experience other than you own can lead to conditioning
implicit fear
106
-thalamaus to amygdala -fast, crude -allows for immediate response
low road
107
thalamus to cortex to amygdala -slower + finer -allows for cognitive assessment
high road
108
role of amygdala during emotional arousal and memory consolidation
James McGaugh
109
ability to recollect arousing and non-arousing events may be similar immediately after they occur but arousing events are NOT forgotten as quickly as non-arousing events
arousal enhances memory (retention)
110
amygdala modulates the hippocampus through ____
NE
111
consolidation might "tag" as important for long-tern retention not only emotional events, but also weak memories related to emotional events
synaptic tag capture
112
T or F acute stress may facilitate memory -NE in amygdala and hippocampus via consolidation
T
113
T or F chronic stress doesn't impair memory -glucocorticoids in hippocampus
F it may
114
functional connectivity btw AMY & HPC grows stronger --> may contribute to ?
dysregulation of NE system in a way that results in generalization
115
perception of internal states
interoception
116
thirst, touch, itch, distention of the bladder and intestinal tract, exercise, heartbeat
representation of bodily signals
117
posterior insular
sexual desire
118
anterior insula
romantic love
119
insular activity associated with ___ ___
evaluative processing
120
patients with insular lesions report both reduced ___ and reduced __ ratings
arousal, valence
121
insula activity associated with what emotion
disgust
122
left insula
anger
123
attention evaluation response
emotion regulation
124
changing input to regulate emotion consists of
-avoiding stimulus altogether -changing ATTENTION paid to it -altering emotional impact of the stimulus by REAPPRAISAL (evaluation)
125
changing output to regulate emotion consists of
-intensifying/diminishign -proloning/curtailing -emotinal experience, expression, or physiological RESPONSE
126
CBT often involves _____ -involves using cognitive and linguistic processes to reframe or reinterpret the meaning of a stimulus or situation in order to up or down regulate the emotions
reappraisal
127
changes in social behavior and perception of social contexts
personality changes
128
frontal lobe (OFC) damage in railroad accident
Phineas gage
129
person doesn't have emotion (numb)
blunted affect
130
regions implicated in self-referencing
IPFC (dlPFC) & mPFC (vmPFC)
131
contributions from subjective feelings come from
mPFC
132
when we try to understand others (ToM, mentalizing, empathy, etc.)
mPFC & IPFC
133
many areas including insula, TPJ, medial parietal cortex
mirror neurons
134
do we use memories of our own past actions to judge our personality traits
no
135
can u maintain a sense of self even if u are robbed of autobiographical memories
yes u may not recognize urself in the mirror but know that you are stubborn
136
what region of the brain is involved in insight, accurate perceptions
OFC
137
infer a persons mental state from what we know about their past and current situation, family, culture, eye gaze direction, body language, etc.
mental state attribution theory
138
we simply observe someone else's behavior, stimulate it, and use our own mental state produced by that simulation to predict the mental state of the other
experience sharing theory
139
representing another's internal state within our own bodies -- embodied simulation
empathy
140
perceivers ability to correctly infer another person's thoughts and feeling strangers: 20%, close friends 30%, romantic partners 35%
empathic accuracy
141
recognizing that other people possess mental states different from your own an being able to explain and predict their behavior as a result
theory of mind / mentalizing
142
babies imitate others from the age ___ mins
42
143
sally placing marble in basket and leaving room then anne moves marble into drawer but then sally asks where she will look for the marble
sally-anne false belief task
144
____ mPFC actuation for self perceptions and for perceptions of "similar" people
ventral
145
____ mPFC activated for perceptions of "dissimilar" people
dorsal
146
what regions involved in mirror neurons
rostral inferior frontal and inferior parietal lobes
147
aware of social norms but fail to conform to them, lack of empathy, impulse control, aggressive behavior, communication deficits, repetitive behaviors
antisocial personality disorder (APD)
148
-deficits in social perception (perceiving soul cues from facial expressions, eye gaze, body motion), social knowledge (being aware of social norms), and theory of mind
SZ
149
poor performance on the reading in the minds eye test (RMET), impairments with theory of mind, tend to perform better on social tasks if given explicit instructions, usually appears in the first 2 years of life, repetitive behaviors -hyperconnectivity within frontal lobe -decreased long range connectivity -decreased reciprocal interactions with other cortical regions
autism spectrum disorder
150
having had one pregnancy/birth
primiparous
151
having had multiple pregnancies / birth
multiparous
152
having no pregnancies or births
nulliparous
153
maternal sensitization process takes __-___ days depending on the strain and numerous other experimental conditions
2-10
154
______ eliminates these aversive properties & results in a rapid onset of maternal behavior
anosmia
155
___ & ___ somatosensory cues are essential for both the onset and maintenance of maternal responsiveness in rats
perioral and ventral
156
______ cries helps mom find her babies, not step on them, and feed them when they are hungry
ultrasonic
157
T or F smell of pups in virgin females help them be more maternal
F it prevents them -it elicits fear and they sometimes cannibilize the pups
158
what happens during parturition
-decrease progesterone during parturition but high during pregnancy -peak estrogen levels at partnirition
159
social bonds may act as a ____ against stress
buffer
160
_____ plays a role in inhibiting threat responding and extinguishing learned fear via inhibitory connection with the amygdala
vmPFC
161
giving support correlates with activity in the ___ ___ & ___ ___ area in parents
ventral striatum and septal area
162
ventral striatum is also more active when giving ___ support to others than when benefiting the self
financial support
163
global physiological and psychological state of there organism -best thought of on a continuum ranging from sleep sleep to hyper focused
arousal
164
-not a global brain state -at any level of arousal, it is the allocation of attention among relative inputs, thoughts, and actions while simultaneously ignoring irrelevant or distracting ones *PRIORITY TO SOME THINGS AND NOT OTHERS
selective attention
165
goal driven is what type of control
top-down control
166
stimulus driven mechanism (ex. reacting to a loud sound) is under what type of control
bottom-up control
167
mechanism that determine what we focus on --> ___ ___ __ -- they involve the interaction of cortical and subcortical networks
attentional control mechanisms
168
-genetic and environmental risk facts -may involve anatomical variations in the white matter, specifically PFC--> impacting Impulsivity, learning, staying tuned, shifting focus, getting started, regulating emotions and memory
ADHD
169
ADHD are deficits in the neural activity within the fronto ____ & _____ circuits and DA function
stratal & parietal
170
_____ is important for shifting tasks in rodents
OFC
171
-spatial attention -damage to this region is associated with impairments in SHIFTING ATTENTION
superior colliculus
172
-disorder of contralesional (opp. hemisphere of a lesion) space awareness -visual system intact but attentional network is damaged in one hemisphere
unilateral spatial neglect
173
blindness over half the field of vision (sensory deficit of vision)
hemianopsia
174
inability to visualize more than one object in the visual at a time -bilateral damage to posterior parietal and occipital cortex -problems seeing object "together" in space ----sensory inputs are competitive
Balint's syndrome
175
difficult in processing visual field as a whole scene
simultanagnosia
176
deficit in making saccades to scan the visual field
ocular apraxia
177
problem in making visually-guided hand movements
optic ataxia
178
endogenous, top-down, goal-driven
voluntary attention
179
exogenous, bottom-up, stimulus driven
reflexive attention
180
attention where you orient towards the thing you are attending to and moving your eyes in that direction
overt
181
attention where you are attending to something, but you do not orient towards the thing you are attending to nor move your eyes in the direction
covert
182
phenomenon where you can focus on a specific thing (like a conversation at a party) even though there is loud boisterous activity all around you -ability to focus one's attention to a particular stimulus while filtering out a range of other stimuli -has been found that it is easier to separate attention and discriminate auditory stimuli if they are not similar in frequency -- otherwise you can get spectral blending -also allows u to hear your name across the room at said party -- even though you were not part of that conversation -- your name is salient, soft doesn't get filtered out
cocktail party effect
183
you can separate attention if 2 two different auditory inputs are coming into each ear -- attending to only one
dichotic listening
184
was out forward as an intermediate solution to early and late selection models: the locus of selective attention depends on task requirements *when load is high, selection is early *when load is low, selection is late
perceptual load theory or Treisman's attenuation theory
185
-descartes -conscious experience is non-physical
dualism
186
-asserts that are not separate; they are both physical
materialism
187
having perceptions, thoughts, feelings, and awareness -movement not a requirement; language not a requirement
consciousness
188
the high-order perceptions of qualities, such as the warmth of war or the redness of red, that are experiences in the normal conscious state
qualia
189
the capacity of being belt o experience feelings and sensations (does it include the perception of these feelings or only the sensation)
sentience
190
-verbal report -rational thought -deliberate decision making -visual processing -memory
conscious processing
191
-includes language -autonomic response -gut level / motor response -vision memory
non-conscious processing
192
projections to cortex via intralaminar nucleus of the thalamus
dorsal pathway
193
projections to cortex via basal forebrain and hypothalamus
ventral pathway
194
brainstem, thalamus, and cerebral cortex help maintain what 2 things
wakefulness and attention
195
the increasingly complex contents of conscious experience provided by input from the cortex
extended consciousness
196
children born without a cerebral cortex
anencephaly
197
where minimal cortex
hydranencephaly
198
eyes open, not in coma, reflexive responding -in contrast with: Minimally conscious state (MCS) -localization to pain and non-reflexive movement (ex. visually fixate on, or pursue a stimulus or follow simple commands like squeeze my hand
unresponsive wakefulness syndrome
199
-normal sleep/wake but cannot move -may be able to blink or move eyes -caused by lesion to the ventral part of the pons where cerebellum and cortex are connected
locked in syndrome
200
____ receives light inputs directly from the retina, allowing its neurons to synchronize to the day-night (light/dark) cycle -through neurochemical and hormonal pathways, the ___ synchronizes cells through the brain and body
suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) -master clock -arousal regulation
201
photoactivated SCN --> ___ ____ --> arousal
locus coeruleus
202
what sleep-producing substance mediates homeostatic mechanism
somnogens (adenosine) adenosine agonists induce sleep and antagonists induce wakefulness
203
disorder that may involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, and dreams -can be triggered by emotional distress, anxiety, fatigue, fever, medication, and alcohol -usually occurs after an abrupt, spontaneous, and incomplete arousal from NREM sleep in N1 -sleepwalkers engage in automatic behaviors and lack conscious awareness or memory of the event
sleepwalking: somnambulism