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MCAT Behavioral Sciences > C1 - Biology and Behavior > Flashcards

C1 - Biology and Behavior Flashcards

1
Q

Franz Gall (1758-1828)

A

Developed the doctrine of phrenology, which if a particular trait was well-developed, then the part of the brain responsible for the trait would expand

Was proven to be FALSE

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2
Q

Pierre Flourens (1794-1867)

A

First person to study functions of major sections of brain, done by extirpation I.E ablation where parts of brain are removed and behavior consequences are observed

His work led to the idea that certain parts of the brain had specific functions

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3
Q

William James (1842-1910)

A

Known as the founder of American psychology

Studied how the mind adapts, leading to functionalism in psychology

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4
Q

John Dewey (1859-1952)

A

Had an 1896 article thay criticized the concept of the reflex circuit

He believed that psychology should focus on the study of the organism as a whole

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5
Q

Paul Broca (1824-1880)

A

First person to demonstrate that specific functional impairments could be linked to specific brain lesions

Studied a person who was unable to speak, discovered it was due to a lesion in a specific area on the left side of the brain now called the Broca’s area after Paul Broca

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6
Q

Hermann van Hemholtz (1821-1894)

A

First person to measure the speed of a nerve impulse

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7
Q

Sir Charles Sherrington (1857-1952)

A

First person to infer the existence of synapses

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8
Q

Interneurons

A

Found between other neurons and are the most numerous of the 3 types of neurons

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9
Q

Interneurons are linked to what?

A

Reflexive behavior by sending autonomic signals to effector in reflex before getting to brain in a reflex arc

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10
Q

What nerves are included in the PNS?

A

31 pairs of spinal nerves, and 12 pairs of cranial nerves

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11
Q

What cranial nerves are structural outgrowths of the CNS but are still considered components of PNS?

A

CN1 (olfactory nerve) and CN2 (optic nerve)

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12
Q

Nervous system breaks up into what other systems?

A

Nervous system branches into CNS and PNS

CNS includes brain and spinal cord

PNS further branches into somatic and autonomic

Autonomic further branches into sympathetic and parasympathetic

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13
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system main role?

A

To conserve energy

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14
Q

Main neurotransmitter responsible for parasympathetic responses?

A

Acetylcholine

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15
Q

What cranial nerve constricts the pupils?

A

CN3 (oculomotor nerve)

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16
Q

What cranial nerves stimulate flow of saliva?

A

CN7 (facial nerve) and CN9 (glossopharyngeal nerve)

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17
Q

For the parasympathetic nervous system name as much as you can that the Vagus nerve does?

A

-Constricts bronchi
-Slows HR
-Inhibits release of glucose
-Stimulates bile release
-Inhibits adrenaline production
-Stimulates peristalsis and secretion

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18
Q

Pelvic splanchnic nerves function

A

-Contracts bladder
-Promotes erection of genitals

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19
Q

Sympathetic nervous system gets activated by what?

A

Stress

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20
Q

The sympathetic nervous system includes what nerves?

A

T1-L2 sometimes L3 depending on individual

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21
Q

List as many things you can that the sympathetic nervous system does

A

-Dilates pupils
-Inhibits saliva
-Relaxes bronchi
-Accelerated HR
-Stimulates glucose production and release
-Inhibits peristalsis and secretion
-inhibits bladder contraction
-secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline
-stimulates orgasm
-stimulates sweating or piloerection

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22
Q

What are the meninges?

A

They are 3 layers of sheets that cover the brain, helping to protect it by keeping it anchored to skull

Consist of (dura, arachnoid, and pia Mater)

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23
Q

What do the meninges resorb?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid produced by specialized cells that line the ventricles

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24
Q

Of the 3 brain parts what developed first?

A

The hindbrain and midbrain developed first with the brainstem being the most primitive region, forebrain developed last

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25
Q

What is the most recent evolutionary developement of the forebrain?

A

The cerebral cortex which is the outer covering of the cerebral hemispheres

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26
Q

Name some structures of forebrain?

A

Cerebral cortex
Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Limbic system

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27
Q

Where are the superior and inferior colliculi?

A

Midbrain

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28
Q

Functions of cerebral cortex

A

Complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes

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29
Q

List some hindbrain structures

A

Cerebellum
Medulla oblongata
Reticular formation
Pons

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30
Q

Medulla oblongata functions

A

(HR, RR) vital reflexes, (vomiting and coughing)

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31
Q

Reticular formation function

A

Arousal and alertness

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32
Q

Pons main functions

A

Communicating with brain, breathing

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33
Q

During brain development the swellings prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon develop into what other swellings

A

Prosencephalon - telencephalon, and diencephalon

Mesencephalon - stays as singular vesicle

Rhombencephalon - myelencephalon, and metencephalon

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34
Q

Myelencephalon, and metencephalon makes what specific structures?

A

Myelencephalon - medulla oblongata

Metencephalon - pons, and cerebellum

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35
Q

What does alcohol impair?

A

The cerebellum

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36
Q

Cerebellum function?

A

Helps maintain posture, balance, and coordinates body movements

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37
Q

Damage to cerebellum causes

A

Slurred speech, clumsiness, and loss of balance

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38
Q

Superior and inferior colliculus receive what sensory information?

A

Superior receives visual while inferior receives auditory sensory information

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39
Q

Inferior colliculus reflexive function?

A

Reactions to sudden loud noises

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40
Q

Forebrain is associated with what?

A

Complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes, also memory and emotion

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41
Q

Telencephalon makes what structures?

A

Basal ganglia
Cerebral cortex
Limbic system

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42
Q

Diencephalon makes what structures?

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Posterior pituitary gland
Pineal gland

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43
Q

Neuropsychology

A

Refers to the study of function and behaviors associated with specific regions of brain

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44
Q

What is an EEG?

A

Electroencephalogram - involved placing several electrodes on the scalp, broad patterns of electrical activity can this be detected and recorded

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45
Q

What is rCBF?

A

Regional cerebral blood flow - it detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased blood flow to different parts of brain

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46
Q

How is blood flow measured in rCBF?

A

A patient inhales a harmless radioactive gas; special device that can detect radioactivity in the bloodstream can then correlate radioactivity levels with regional cerebral blood flow

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47
Q

What is CT?

A

Computed tomography also known as (CAT) compute axial tomography scan

Takes multiple X-Rays of different angles and is processed by a computer to produce cross-sectional images of the tissue

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48
Q

What is PET?

A

Positron emission tomography scan - works with a radioactive sugar getting injected and absorbed in the body, it’s dispersion and uptake throughout target tissue is imaged

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49
Q

What is MRI?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging - magnetic fields that interact with hydrogen atoms are used to map out hydrogen dense regions of the body

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50
Q

What is fMRI?

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging - it uses the same base as MRI, but specifically measures changes associated with blood flow

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51
Q

What is MS?

A

Multiple sclerosis - it is a demyelinating disease that results in a host of neurological and physiological symptoms

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52
Q

Thalamus function?

A

Relay station for incoming sensory information, includes all senses except smell

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53
Q

What are the 3 parts of the hypothalamus

A

Anterior, ventromedial, and lateral hypothalamus

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54
Q

Name as many functions of the hypothalamus

Also what are the 4 F’s

A

-homeostasis
-emotional experiences during high arousal states, aggressive behavior, and sexual behavior
-endocrine functions
-autonomic functions

4 F’s
-feeding
-fighting
-flighting
-functioning sexually

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55
Q

Lateral hypothalamus function

A

Triggers eating

Referred to as hunger center

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56
Q

Ventromedial hypothalamus function

A

Provides signals to stop eating

“Satiety center”

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57
Q

Anterior hypothalamus function

A

Controls sexual behavior

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58
Q

Posterior pituitary gland is the site of release of what hormones?

A

Oxytocin and ADH (antidiuretic hormone also know as vasopressin)

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59
Q

What does the pineal gland secrete?

A

Melatonin which regulates circadian rhythms

Does so by receiving direct signals from the retina for coordination with sunlight

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60
Q

Basal ganglia function

A

Coordinates muscle movement

61
Q

What disease is associated with destruction of portions of the basal ganglia?

A

Parkinson’s disease

62
Q

What is different about the way basal ganglia sends signals?

A

It does not function directly through motor neurons

63
Q

Limbic system is primarily associated with what?

A

Emotion and memory

64
Q

Septal nuclei contains what?

A

One of the primary pleasure centers in the brain

Mild stimulation = pleasure

Associated with addictive behavior

65
Q

Amygdala functions

A

Defensive and aggressive behaviors including fear and rage

66
Q

Hippocampus main function

A

Having a vital role in learning and memory processes, specifically helps consolidate information to form long term memories

67
Q

How does hippocampus communicate with other portions of limbic system?

A

Through the fornix

68
Q

How did people first discover a link between the connection of the hippocampus and memory?

A

A patient named Henry Molaison had his hippocampus removed to control epileptic seizures, his intelligence was largely intact but suffered a drastic irreversible loss of memory for any new information

69
Q

Difference of anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia

A

Anterograde amnesia is not being able to establish new long term memories, but memories for events that occurred before the Brian injury usually remain intact

Retrograde amnesia refers to memory loss of events that transpired before brain injury

70
Q

Anterior cingulate cortex function

A

Higher order cognitive processes

71
Q

What else is the cerebral cortex called? And how is the cortex made up and what is the purpose?

A

Also called the neocortex, made up of numerous bumps and folds called gyri and sulci, helps to increase surface area

72
Q

3 important parts of frontal lobe

A

Prefrontal cortex, motor cortex, Broca’s area

73
Q

Prefrontal cortex function

A

Manages executive function by supervising and directing the operations of other brain regions

74
Q

Prefrontal lesions can cause what?

A

More impulsive and generally being in less control behavior

75
Q

Primary motor cortex location

A

Precentral gyrus, just in front of central sulcus that divides the frontal and parietal lobes

76
Q

Primary motor cortex function

A

To initiate voluntary motor movements by sending neural impulses down the spinal cord to muscles

77
Q

Broca’s area function

A

Speech production

78
Q

Somatosensory cortex location

A

Postcentral gyrus just behind central sulcus

79
Q

Somatosensory cortex receives what?

A

All incoming sensory signals for touch, pressure, temperature, and pain

80
Q

The Occipital lobe is sometimes called what? And what is it’s function

A

Sometimes called striate nucleus, contains visual cortex for sight

81
Q

2 main things temporal lobe contains

A

Auditory cortex, and wernickes area

82
Q

Wernickes area function

A

Language reception, and comprehension

83
Q

Temporal lobe functions

A

Memory, emotion, language, auditory

84
Q

Opposite of body, same side of body is called what?

A

Opposite = contralaterally

Same side = ipsilaterally

85
Q

What are neurotransmitters

A

Chemicals used by neurons to send signals to other neurons

86
Q

A drug that mimics the action of neurotransmitters is called?

A

Agonist

87
Q

A drug that blocks the action of neurotransmitters

A

Antagonist

88
Q

Acetylcholine is linked to what in PNS and CNS?

A

In PNS it transmits nerve impulses to the muscles in CNS it is linked to attention and arousal

89
Q

Loss of cholinergic neurons connecting with hippocampus is associated with what disease?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

90
Q

Acetylcholine has what effects in muscles?

A

Both excitatory and inhibitory depending on type of receptor found in the cell

91
Q

Acetylcholine within CNS has what types of effects usually?

A

Excitatory

92
Q

The main 3 types of catecholamines are what?

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine

93
Q

What are monoamines? And list them

A

Neurotransmitters or hormones that have a single amino group

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, histamine

94
Q

Catecholamines play important roles in what?

A

Experience of emotions

95
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine involved in what?

A

Controlling alertness and wakefulness, also fight or flight response

96
Q

Main difference between norepinephrine and epinephrine?

A

Epinephrine acts more systemically while norepinephrine is more locally

97
Q

Low levels of norepinephrine and high levels are linked to what?

A

High = mania and anxiety
Low= depression

98
Q

Dopamine plays an important role in what?

A

Movement and posture

99
Q

The basal ganglia has high concentrations of what?

A

Dopamine

100
Q

What does the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia say?

A

That delusions, hallucinations, and agitation associated with schizophrenia arise from either too much dopamine or over sensitivity to dopamine in brain

101
Q

Parkinson’s is associated with loss of what?

A

dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia

102
Q

Antipsychotic medications used for schizophrenia do what? And what are the main side effects

A

They block dopamine, Main side effects are motor disturbances “extrapyramidal symptoms”

103
Q

What is the main drug to treat Parkinson’s and what does it do?

What could an overdose of the drug cause?

A

L-DOPA, it is used to increase dopamine in the brain

An overdose of L-DOPA can lead to psychotic symptoms similar to schizophrenia

104
Q

Serotonin behavioral functions

A

Regulate mood, sleep, eating, dreaming

105
Q

Oversupply and undersuply of serotonin cause what?

A

Oversupply = mania
Undersupply = depression

106
Q

What is GABA? What does it do?

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid produces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials, exerts its effects by hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic membrane

107
Q

What is Glycine and what does it do in CNS?

A

Is one of the amino acids, served as an inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS by increasing chloride influx into neuron

108
Q

How is GABA and Glycine similar?

A

They both hyperpolarize postsynaptic membranes

Known as brain “stabilizers”

109
Q

What is glutamate and it’s function?

A

One of the amino acids that has excitatory effects

110
Q

How are neuropeptides/neuromodulators different than neurotransmitters

A

They have relatively slow and longer effects on the postsynaptic cell than neurotransmitters

111
Q

What are endorphins? And what is another neurotransmitter very similar to it?

A

Endorphins are natural pain killers produced by the brain, similar to enkephalins

They both have similar actions to morphine or other opioids in the body

112
Q

What does the endocrine system use?

A

Chemical messengers called hormones that travel to their target destinations through the bloodstream

113
Q

What does the hypothalamus link?

A

The endocrine and nervous system

114
Q

How does the hypothalamus control the pituitary gland?

A

Through endocrine release of hormones into the hypophyseal portal system that directly connects the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland

115
Q

Pituitary gland and adrenal glands locations?

A

Pituitary gland is at the base of the brain while the adrenal glands are on top of the kidneys

116
Q

Parts of the adrenal glands and what they make?

A

2 main parts, the adrenal cortex which produces many hormones called corticosteroids, including the stress hormone cortisol, also contributes to sexual functioning by producing sex hormones such as estrogen and testosterone

and the adrenal medulla which releases epinephrine and norepinephrine

117
Q

What are the gonads?

A

Sex glands of the body- ovaries in females, testes in males

118
Q

What does sex hormones cause?

A

Increased libido, also higher levels of testosterone increases aggressive behavior

119
Q

Innate behaviors vs learned behaviors

A

Innate behavior - genetically programmed as a result of evolution and is seen in all individuals regardless of environment or experiences

Learned behaviors - not based on heredity but on experiences and environment

120
Q

What is Adaptive value

A

The extent to which a trait or behavior positively benefits a species leading to adaption through natural selection

121
Q

Nature vs nurture

A

Nature - is the influence of inheritable characteristics on behavior

Nurture - refers to the influence of environment and physical surroundings on behavior

122
Q

List the 3 research methods used to determine the degree of genetic influence on behavior

A

Family studies
Twin studies
Adoption studies

123
Q

What does family studies rely on?

A

The fact that genetically related individuals are more similar genotypically than unrelated individuals

124
Q

How does family studies compare rates of a given trait? Also how are they limited?

A

They compare rates of a given trait among family members to rates of that trait among unrelated individuals

Family studies are limited due to families sharing both genetics and environment

125
Q

What are DZ and MZ twins?

A

DZ twins = dizygotic twins; fraternal twins sharing approximately 50% of their genes

MZ twins = monozygotic twins; identical twins sharing 100% of their genes

126
Q

How do twin studies work?

A

Comparing concordance rates for a trait between MZ and DZ twins

The assumption is that MZ and DZ twins share the same environment, thus the difference between the two would be hereditary factors

127
Q

What is concordance rates?

A

The likelihood that both twins exhibit the same trait

128
Q

How can twin studies also measure environmental effects?

A

By comparing traits in twins raised together be twins raises apart

129
Q

How do adoption studies work?

A

Comparing the similarities between biological relatives and the child who was adopted to similarities between adoptive relatives and the child

130
Q

Specific periods in development where children are particularly susceptible to environmental factors is called…

A

Critical periods

131
Q

Development of nervous system starts with what?

A

Neuralation (3-4weeks)

132
Q

When does neuralation occur?

A

When the ectoderm overlying the notochord begins to furrow, forming a neural groove surrounded by 2 neural folds

133
Q

Cells at the leading edge of the neural fold are called what? And what does it end up forming?

A

The neural crest, it ends up forming dorsal root ganglia, melanocytes, calcitonin producing cells of thyroid

134
Q

The remaining furrow closes to form what? And what does it end up forming?

A

The neural tube, ends up forming the CNS

135
Q

The neural tube has what 2 plates and what do they differentiate into?

A

The alar plate which differentiates into sensory neurons and the basal plate which differentiates into motor neurons

136
Q

Fetus is attached to the uterine wall and placenta by what?

A

The umbilical cord

137
Q

What does the placenta do?

A

Transmits food, water, and oxygen to fetus while returning water, waste to mother

138
Q

What is known as the most infamous drug given to pregnant mothers that caused problems to babies? Describe as much as you can about it

A

Thalidomide, it was prescribed in late 50s to early 60s to reduce morning sickness. Tragically, it was later discovered that thalidomide had severe teratogenic effects often leading to mothers giving birth to babies with missing and malformed limbs and defects of the heart, eyes, ears, digestive tract, and kidneys

139
Q

Pregnant mothers taking antiepileptic medications are associated with what?

A

Neural tube defects, in which the neural tube fails to close completely, leads to malformations like spina bifida or anencephaly

140
Q

List the main environmental factors or exposures that may affect maturation?

A

Maternal malnutrition specifically protein deficiency, maternal narcotic addiction, cigarettes smoking, daily use of alcohol, exposure to X-Rays

141
Q

What is a reflex

A

A behavior that occurs in response to a given stimulus without higher cognitive input (brain)

142
Q

What are primitive reflexes

A

Reflexes that infants have but disappear with age in a healthy individual

143
Q

Explain the primitive reflex for breast feeding

A

When an object is placed in front of the mouth of an infant it will begin sucking and swallowing

144
Q

Why do physicians compare the point in time at which each of an infants primitive reflexes disappear relative to the established norms?

A

It is a good way of seeing whether neurological development is taking place in a normal fashion

145
Q

What is the Moro reflex? How can it be looked at for neurological development?

A

It is an infants reaction to an abrupt sound or movement by throwing back his or her head, extending arms and legs out and crying, then slowly pulls the arms and legs back in

This reflex usually disappears after 4 months, continuation at one year is a strong indicator of developmental difficulties

146
Q

What is the basinski reflex?

A

When the infants toes are spread apart automatically when the sole of the foot is stimulated

147
Q

What is the grasping reflex?

A

When the infant closes their fingers around an object when played in hand

148
Q

What are the two categories of motor skills? Describe them

A

Gross motor skills - incorporate movement from large muscle groups and the whole body motion

Fine motor skills - involve the smaller muscles of fingers, toes? And eyes providing more specific and delicate movements

149
Q

What are the trends for motor skill development in infants?

A

Gross motor skills progress in head to toe

Children first develop the ability to lift head, then stabilize the trunk, then walk

Motor skills are developed at the core prior to extremities

MCAT Behavioral Sciences (3 decks)

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