C2 Firearms, Taser, sudden Death, Policing act 2008, Victims Rights act 2002

Question 1

Title; firearms

Police responsibility

New Zealand police is responsible for ensuring compliance with arms ACT. Please for photos and tailor interventions in line with

-the levels of risk
-the actual or potential consequences
-behaviour / attitude and capability of firearms licence holders

True or false

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Police focus on two aspects of risk

• magnitude of the consequences that may eventuate shouldn’t event

-likely Hood of the event occurring. True or false

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Police expect firearm licence holders to operate safely securely and responsible

Police know that

Answer 3

-barriers such as lack of awareness or understanding prevent some people from operating in a safe secure responsible manner

-some people will make efforts in these areas only because they see risk from police of noncompliance

-some people will not complain adult

Question 4

Title; interventions principles

What are the four factors for consideration for applicants?

• E of H or R of H
• CNDCT
• P I
• A 2 C

Answer 4

• extent of harm or risk or risk of harm
  -conduct
  -public interest
  -attitude to compliance

Question 5

Available compliance interventions

From: approach based on information engagement education to support and encourage compliance

To: approached at me to enforce enforcement intervention such as issue nin improvement notice, warning, temporary suspension, revocation of firearm licence. True or false

Answer 5

True

Question 6

Title; disqualification

Arms act 1983, section 22H

10yrs

Answer 6

A person is disqualified from holding foreign licence if they have within the previous 10 years been committed or release from custody after being convicted of any of the following

-serious violent offences
-misuse of drugs
-a person who has had within the previous 10 years a protection order made against them to sueno the family violence ACT

Question 7

Revocation of holder becomes disqualified

22h does not apply to a previous convictions of a person who is an existing firearms licence holder at the date of the commencement. Which means:

Answer 7

-an existing licence holder convicted of an offence specified in section 22h in March 2020 or who previous 24 December 2020 had a protection order made against them, is not a disqualified person because the complexion occurred water protection order was made before the commencement of section 22 h

-an existing holder convicted of an offence specified in February 2021 or has a protection order made against him 24 December 2020 is a disqualified person.

-a person who is not a firearms order convicted of an offence in section 22 h within the last 10 years or has had a protection automatic NZ system within last 10 years is a disqualified person

Question 8

Title; other acts impacting on firearm licence

Trespass act 1980

A person who commits an offence carrying a weapon may be disqualified from holding a firearms licence or any licence.

-the court also order the person not to carry any weapon for such a period not exceeding……yrs

Answer 8

2 yrs

Question 9

Protection orders

A police inspector or higher rank must issue respondent with a written notice of revocation and to ensure the holder fire licence and any fire position control is surrendered. True or false?

Answer 9

True

Question 10

Total; arms act 1983 section 40 and 66

S40 details - 3m $1000

S66 O of P or D of V Deemed

Answer 10

S40 any person found with firearms or restricted weapons musk full details

OR prison 3 months and $1000

S66 any person found with a weapon or a firearm or restrict forum on the land or building or the driver of any vehicle, to be deemed to be in possession of their firearm or weapon
- unless he or she proved it was not his property and that it was in the possession of some other person

Question 11

Hepi v R

S66 - this perception could be rebutted on the balance of probability that the firearm was not on his or her property and was in the position of some other person

The district court found the evidence unsafe so the conviction was quashed

True or false

Answer 11

True

Question 12

Title: search and surveillance ACT 2012

S8 warrantless search associated with arms

Answer 12

• search a person or anything in the person’s position or control including a vehicle
  -enter replace all vehicle to carry out the activity

-seize and detain any firearms found
-cease entertain fire arm licence
-breach of arms ACT 1983
-his all her physical and mental condition: incapable of having proper control or make kill or cause Woodley injury to any person
-under the family violence act 2018: a protection order or police safety order is enforce and grounds to make it application against him or her for a protection

-a police Constable without a warrant me enter place or vehicle search and sees any arms found there or she has reasonable grounds to suspect that the arms are in the place or vehicle:
-and respect to category 3 category 4 of the object has been committed
-evidential material in relation to category 3 and 4 of the offence

Question 13

Title: police firearms

Operational carriage and position of firearms

What must a Constable do if they fear death GBH?

Answer 13

-advise the immediate supervisor in the police communications centre of decision to deploy as soon as possible

-deploy whether taser where one is available

Question 14

Fire orders

S48 - police may use a firearm to defend himself for others if they feed ther fear GBH to themselves cannot reasonably protect themselves in a less violent manner. True or false

Answer 14

True

Question 15

S39 to arisen offender if they believe on reasonable grounds at the offender poses a threat of death GBH and resisting the arrest and the rest cannot be reasonably affected in less Violet manner and the rest cannot be delayed without danger to other people. True or false

Answer 15

True

Question 16

S40 to prevent anything escaping please believe under reasonable grounds at the vendor poses a threat or death or GBH 2nd person and the offender flee to avoid arrest escapes after arrest and the flight or escape cannot reasonably be prevented in less Violet Manner. True or false

Answer 16

True

Question 17

Warning shots

Warning shot should not be fired however there may be circumstances we are warning shop may be appropriate

Answer 17

-the suspect has been asked to surrender and has not done so
- it can be clearly aimed as a warning shot
-take extreme caution to safeguard the safety of others

Question 18

Shooting at motor vehicles

Answer 18

-shots may only be filed at moving vehicles in exceptional circumstances

-small margin for error and pose a high probability of mystery action or ricochet increasing the risk of causing death injury or damage

Question 19

Title; discharge of police firearms

* DC*
1. Death or injury incident:
What steps do you take if the incident of involving death or GBH due to a discharge of a firearm by a police employee?

2. In all other instances of firearms discharge **supervisor”

Answer 19

-incident controller or the person appointed must
-take control of the scene
-ensure first aid
-manage the scene
-inform the district Commander who will initiate an alcohol and drug test

2. Incident controller must take control of the scene and advise the employee’s immediate supervisor who will advise the district Commander

Question 20

Title; unintentional discharge no death or injury

What are the 2 unintentional discharge of firearms

• Op E
  -MAc F

Answer 20

Operator error

Mechanical fault

Question 21

Reporting in NZ investigating unintentional discharges

You must notify supervisor or senior employee present as soon as possible
-the supervisor must in follow the steps
-notify the district police professional conduct manager
-send the bullet and cartridge cases to the police armoury for examination
-close a detailed report

True or false

Answer 21

True

Question 22

TOR report

-tactical option report must be submitted by the employee in position or a firearm on these occasions. True or False

Answer 22

True

Question 23

Who must submit the tactical option report?

Answer 23

Report must be submitted by a supervisor whenever a firearm has been discharged resulting in death or injury

Question 24

Title; taser

Operational post incident procedures

Who must be notified when a taser is shown or used?

Answer 24

The operator must notify a supervisor as soon as practical or FM real areas notify the nearest on duty supervisor

Question 25

Who submits a tactical options report after using a taser?

Answer 25

The operator or individual involved not the sergeant

Question 26

Supervisor action after operational teaser “show”

-Sergeant must debriefed office involved and review the taste footage
-determine whether the show of the taser was in accordance with the instructions. True or false

Answer 26

True

Question 27

Title; sudden death

The role of a coroner is to evaluate evidence obtained about a death and determines:

-that a person has died
-the person’s identity
-when and where the person died
-the cause of death
-the circumstances of death
-committal recommendations

True or false

Answer 27

True

Question 28

Police’s role?

Answer 28

-actors the coroner’s agent in investigating the death gathering evidence to enable the Corona to make determinations

Question 29

Police attend the scene in undertake roles in respect of?

Answer 29

-senior examination
-ID of deceased
-investigations into the circumstances of death which includes interviewing relevant witnesses

-police provide documentary evidence of the actions observations and evidence gathered at the scene and provide this to the coroner

Question 30

S17- investigations by the police?

Answer 30

-if this has been reported to a coroner and a section 15
-the Commissioner of Police mass calls to be made or investigations

-this is here to help achieve the purpose of this act in relation to the death
-directed by the responsible coroner

Question 31

S115 police to help coronavirus locations

Answer 31

The Commissioner of Police must cause police employees to help coroners investigations under this ACT

Question 32

Title; reporting of deaths in roles of national duty coroner/responsible coroner

National duty coroner: this is one roll the coroner’s have been rostered to undertake that role

NIIO: national initial investigation office

True or false

Answer 32

True

Question 33

What’s the role of a national initial investigation office?

Answer 33

-manage the cases from targeted time of death deceased is released family
-engage in a supplier to complete body transportation
-keep the families informed
-be the conduit in contact centre for the next of kin at the conclusion of police attendance

Question 34

The national duty coroner has an exclusive right to custody of the other body.

The coroner determines:

Answer 34

-weather to take coronial jurisdiction over the death
-weather verification of death has been adequately established
-weather evidence of ID of the deceased is adequate
-weather today at the post-mortem and if so the level of any post mortem
-who may attend the postmortem
-when the body can be released

Question 35

Responsible coroner role?

Answer 35

After a body has been released the Corona investigation is there’s a sign to a responsible coroner who is responsible for carrying out all of it other coronavirus want abilities and respect for that death

Question 36

What are the three pathways responsible coroner concludes investigation

Answer 36

-include the coronal investigation without opening in enquiry
-open the conduct an enquiry into the death by conclude that the enquiry without proceeding to a formal court hearing
-open and conduct enquiry and as part of the enquiry conduct of formal hearing in the coroner’s Court called an inquest

Question 37

Title; attending a sudden death

Initial procedure

Verify death must be done by The following

Answer 37

-registered medical practitioner
-nurse
-registered midwife
-intensive care paramedic
-paramedic
-emergency medical technician

Question 38

In the initial procedure what’s the 2 mandatory steps that must be done?

Answer 38

-contact victim support
-contact National duty coroner - NIIO

Question 39

Title; identifying the body

What are the 5 hierarchy of identification steps?

Answer 39

-visual ID
-fingerprints
-otontology
-comparison ID process
-DNA

Question 40

Non-visual identification

What must you remember?

Answer 40

The body cannot be released to the next of kin until the formal identification has been confirmed by the coroner. Liason with the next of kin is critical

Question 41

Pol47

This is the document where you record?

Answer 41

-Your observations
-your actions
-item seized

**Ensure names are spelt correctly in used consistently across documents

Question 42

How long does toxicology take and why is it important?

Answer 42

It takes 4 to 6 weeks so seen details are critical

Question 43

Suicide deaths

The Coroner wants to know what happened and why the individual took their life.

Eg? 9 x reasons

Answer 43

-significant life events
-previous suicide attempts
-mental health background
-financial issues
-relationship issues
-worker issues
-living circumstances
-alcohol or drug use
-School online bullying

Question 44

Exhibits may also include

-suicide notes
-electronic evidence example text email or social media Post

*** Ligature
-this should be seized in a manner that preserves are not for forensic examination and accompanies the body to the mortuary.

True or false

Answer 44

True

Question 45

Title; Police Act 2008 section 32 33 and 36

S32 - identifying particulars of person in custody

6mths - $5k

Answer 45

A person who is lawfully in custody must give police identifying particulars

If they fail to comply their liable for imprisonment 6 months or find $5000

Question 46

S33 identifying particulars for summons

6m & $5k

Answer 46

A person in respect of an offence by way of summons a detain that person in order to take person’s identity

After being cautioned and fails to comply the directional constable means they are committing an offence and they are liable for imprisonment not exceeding 6 months and a fine not exceeding $5,000

Question 47

S36 care and protection of intoxicated people

How long must a intoxicated person be detained for?

Intoxicated means?

What can a health practitioner recommend to further do?

Answer 47

-12 hours

• health practitioner can further detain Not exceeding 12 hours

Intoxicated:
-observably
-affected by ALC
-other drugs
-or substances
-***degree
-speech
- balance
-co-ordinaton
-or bahavior
-clearly impaired

Question 48

Title; victims rights act 2002

S4 Intrp
S7 Tr
S8 Accs
S11 info prog
S12 info proc

S17AA V def
S17AB Pur V
S17 Info 4 V
S18 proc B 4 I of V

Answer 48

Title; victims rights act 2002

S4
interpretation
S7
Treatment;
-trick the victim of courtesy and compassion
-respect the victims dignity privacy
S8
-victim access to services like counselling and medical or legal needs arising from the offence
S11
Victims to be spoken about the information about the programs and remedies example ministry of justice or ministry of social development would department of corrections
-also includes participation in restorative Justice process
-**this information can be given to a person who has or was disadvantaged by the offence
S12
Victim to be informed about the proceedings.
-the same information given to victim can we give into a person who was disadvantage from the events as well

S17
The definition of Victim impact statement.
-intersection information May include photographs drawings or other visual representations provided by the victim
S17AB
The purpose of victim impact statements; enable bitdam to pop out of formation or assist accor to understand the victims views or inform the offender about the impact of offending
S17
Information to be ascertained from victim for example physical injury loss or damage to property the effects of the events on the victim or any other matter
S18
The procedure before ascertaining information from the victim; he or she must know that the statement is for a impact statement
-the victim must ensure that it’s true
-information must be recorded and verified
It’s the OC of case who has responsibility to ensure the victim is informed about procedure*

Question 49

Title; the provisions of section 30-48 apply only to victims of specified offences

S29 specified offence is defined as and VNR?
S29A- Commissioner

Question 50

Title; victims views about release on bail of accused or offender?

S30 V V OTB

Answer 50

This applies to a victim of a specified offence; prostitute of us make reasonable efforts and any view of the victim about a accused or defender being released
-opposition to bail comes into play
-victim cannot seek duration of bail conditions
-victims reviews can be written on opposition to bail or covering 2582 the prosecutor
-Victor or police may not want to oppose bail but may just want to clear conditions

Question 51

Title; duties in relation to inform victims about receiving notices under section 34 - 39

S31 Commissioner of “S O” a Rep

S40 Rep notice

S49 complaints

S51 return property

Answer 51

31
- a representative for the victim notification register
- also play to use in 7 cases that have been sentenced imprisonment
*It does not include being in police or order not tamariki custody

S40: section 31 the Commissioner has to inform the victim there right for a representative, however section 40 it’s the victims right for thier rep to receive all his or her notices on their behal

S49 if police fail to afford the rights to a victim of specified offences they will be how to countable via ipca or financial liability
-at a high-level police will be squish nose in there will be a report to Parliament which will be published publicly

S51 police must return victims evidential property soon as practical or does not have to give it back if he or she does not want the properly returned