c8problemsofNEWBORN

Question 1

Which is defined as a vaguely outlined area of edematous tissue situated over the portion of the scalp that presents in a vertex delivery?

a. Caput succedaneum
b. Hydrocephalus
c. Cephalhematoma
d. Subdural hematoma

Answer 1

ANS: A
A vaguely outlined area of edematous tissue situated over the portion of the scalp that presents in a vertex delivery is the definition of a caput succedaneum. The swelling consists of serum and/or blood accumulated in the tissues above the bone, and it may extend beyond the bone margin. Hydrocephalus is caused by an imbalance in production and absorption of cerebrospinal fluid. When production exceeds absorption, fluid accumulates within the ventricular system, causing dilation of the ventricles. A cephalhematoma has sharply demarcated boundaries that do not extend beyond the limits of the (bone) suture line. A subdural hematoma is located between the dura and the cerebrum. It would not be visible on the scalp.

Question 2

Which finding on a newborn assessment should the nurse recognize as suggestive of a clavicle fracture?

a. Negative scarf sign
b. Asymmetric Moro reflex
c. Swelling of fingers on affected side
d. Paralysis of affected extremity and muscles

Answer 2

ANS: B
A newborn with a broken clavicle may have no symptoms. The Moro reflex, which results in sudden extension and abduction of the extremities followed by flexion and adduction of the extremities, will most likely be asymmetric. The scarf sign that is used to determine gestational age should not be performed if a broken clavicle is suspected. Swelling of fingers on affected side and paralysis of affected extremity and muscles are not indicative of a fractured clavicle.

Question 3

The parents of a newborn ask the nurse what caused the baby’s facial nerve paralysis. What knowledge should the nurse’s response be based on?

a. Genetic defect
b. Birth injury
c. Spinal cord injury
d. Inborn error of metabolism

Answer 3

ANS: B
Pressure on the facial nerve during delivery may result in injury to cranial nerve VII, which can occur with birth injury. A genetic defect, spinal cord injury, or inborn error of metabolism would not cause facial paralysis.

Question 4

A mother is upset because her newborn has erythema toxicum neonatorum. What information should the nurse base the response to the mother?

a. Easily treated
b. Benign and transient
c. Usually not contagious
d. Usually not disfiguring

Answer 4

ANS: B
Erythema toxicum neonatorum, or newborn rash, is a benign, self-limiting eruption of unknown cause that usually appears within the first 2 days of life. The rash usually lasts about 5 to 7 days. No treatment is indicated. Erythema toxicum neonatorum is not contagious. Successive crops of lesions heal without pigmentation.

Question 5

What is oral candidiasis (thrush) in the newborn?

a. Bacterial infection that is life threatening in the neonatal period
b. Bacterial infection of mucous membranes that responds readily to treatment
c. Yeastlike fungal infection of mucous membranes that is relatively common
d. Benign disorder that is transmitted from mother to newborn during the birth process only

Answer 5

ANS: C
Oral candidiasis, characterized by white adherent patches on the tongue, palate, and inner aspects of the cheeks, is not uncommon in newborns. Candida albicans is the usual causative organism. Oral candidiasis is usually a benign disorder in the newborn, often confined to the oral and diaper regions. It is caused by a yeastlike organism and is treated with good hygiene, application of a fungicide, and correction of any underlying disorder. Thrush can be transmitted in several ways, including by maternal transmission during delivery; person-to-person transmission; and contaminated bottles, hands, or other objects.

Question 6

What does nursing care of the newborn with oral candidiasis (thrush) include?

a. Avoiding use of pacifier
b. Removing characteristic white patches with a soft cloth
c. Continuing medication for a prescribed number of days
d. Applying medication to oral mucosa, being careful that none is ingested

Answer 6

ANS: C
The medication must be continued for the prescribed number of days. To prevent relapse, therapy should continue for at least 2 days after the lesions disappear. Pacifiers can be used. The pacifier should be replaced with a new one or boiled for 20 minutes once daily. One of the characteristics of thrush is that the white patches cannot be removed. The medication is applied to the oral mucosa and then swallowed to treat Candida organisms in the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 7

Which is a bright red, rubbery nodule with a rough surface and a well-defined margin that may be present at birth?

a. Port-wine stain
b. Juvenile melanoma
c. Cavernous hemangioma
d. Strawberry hemangioma

Answer 7

ANS: D
Strawberry hemangiomas or capillary hemangiomas are benign cutaneous tumors that involve capillaries only. They are bright red, rubbery nodules with rough surfaces and well-defined margin. They may or may not be apparent at birth but enlarge during the first year of life and tend to resolve spontaneously by age 2 to 3 years. Port-wine stain is a vascular stain that is a permanent lesion and is present at birth. Initially it is a pink, red, or, rarely, purple stain of the skin that is flat at birth and thickens, darkens, and proportionately enlarges as the child grows. Melanoma is not differentiated into juvenile and adult forms. A cavernous hemangioma involves deeper vessels in the dermis and has a bluish red color and poorly defined margins.

Question 8

The parents of a newborn with a strawberry hemangioma ask the nurse what the treatment will be. What information does the nurse need to include in the response?

a. Excision of the lesion will be necessary.
b. Injections of prednisone into the lesion will reduce it.
c. No treatment is usually necessary because of the high rate of spontaneous involution.
d. Pulsed dye laser treatments will be necessary immediately to prevent permanent disability.

Answer 8

ANS: C
There is a high rate of spontaneous resolution, so treatment is usually not indicated for hemangiomas. Surgical removal would not be indicated. If steroids are indicated, then systemic prednisone is administered for 2 to 3 weeks. The pulse dye laser is used in the uncommon situation of potential visual or respiratory impairment.

Question 9

Which term refers to a newborn born before completion of week 37 of gestation, regardless of birth weight?

a. Postterm
b. Preterm
c. Low birth weight
d. Small for gestational age

Answer 9

ANS: B
A preterm newborn is any child born before 37 weeks of gestation, regardless of birth weight. A postterm or postmature newborn is any child born after 42 weeks of gestational age, regardless of birth weight. A low birth weight newborn is a child whose birth weight is less than 2500 g, regardless of gestational age. A small-for-gestational-age (or small-for-date) newborn is any child whose rate of intrauterine growth was slowed and whose birth weight falls below the 10th percentile on intrauterine growth curves.

Question 10

Which refers to a newborn whose rate of intrauterine growth was slowed and whose birth weight falls below the 10th percentile on intrauterine growth charts?

a. Postterm
b. Postmature
c. Low birth weight
d. Small for gestational age

Answer 10

ANS: D
A small-for-gestational-age (or small-for-date) newborn is any child whose rate of intrauterine growth was slowed and whose birth weight falls below the 10th percentile on intrauterine growth curves. A postterm or postmature newborn is any child born after 42 weeks of gestational age, regardless of birth weight. A low birth weight newborn is a child whose birth weight is less than 2500 g, regardless of gestational age.

Question 11

The nurse is caring for a very low birth weight (VLBW) newborn with a peripheral intravenous infusion. Which statement describes nursing considerations regarding infiltration?

a. Infiltration occurs infrequently because VLBW newborns are inactive.
b. Continuous infusion pumps stop automatically when infiltration occurs.
c. Hypertonic solutions can cause severe tissue damage if infiltration occurs.
d. Infusion site should be checked for infiltration at least once per 8-hour shift.

Answer 11

ANS: C
Hypertonic fluids can damage cells if the fluid leaks from the vein. Careful monitoring is required to prevent severe tissue damage. Infiltrations occur for many reasons, not only activity. The vein, catheter, and fluid used all contribute to the possibility of infiltration. The continuous infusion pump may alarm when the pressure increases, but this does not alert the nurse to all infiltrations. Infusion rates and sites should be checked hourly to prevent tissue damage from extravasations, fluid overload, and dehydration.

Question 12

The nurse is caring for a high-risk newborn with an umbilical catheter in a radiant warmer. The nurse notes blanching of the feet. Which is the most appropriate nursing action?

a. Elevate feet 15 degrees.
b. Place socks on newborn.
c. Wrap feet loosely in prewarmed blanket.
d. Report findings immediately to the practitioner.

Answer 12

ANS: D
Blanching of the feet, in a newborn with an umbilical catheter, is an indication of vasospasm. Vasoconstriction of the peripheral vessels, triggered by the vasospasm, can seriously impair circulation. It is an emergency situation and must be reported immediately.

Question 13

The mother of a preterm newborn asks the nurse when she can start breastfeeding. The nurse should explain that breastfeeding can be initiated when her newborn:

a. achieves a weight of at least 3 pounds.
b. indicates an interest in breastfeeding.
c. does not require supplemental oxygen.
d. has adequate sucking and swallowing reflexes.

Answer 13

ANS: D
Research supports that human milk is the best source of nutrition for term and preterm newborns. Preterm newborns should be breastfed as soon as they have adequate sucking and swallowing reflexes and no other complications such as respiratory complications or concurrent illnesses. Weight is not an issue. Interest in breastfeeding can be evaluated by having nonnutritive sucking at the breast during skin-to-skin kangaroo care so the mother and child may become accustomed to each other. Supplemental oxygen can be provided during breastfeeding by using a nasal cannula.

Question 14

Which is the most appropriate nursing action when intermittently gavage-feeding a preterm newborn?

a. Allow formula to flow by gravity.
b. Insert tube through nares rather than mouth.
c. Avoid letting newborn suck on tube.
d. Apply steady pressure to syringe to deliver formula to stomach in a timely manner.

Answer 14

ANS: A
The formula is allowed to flow by gravity. The length of time to complete the feeding will vary. Preferably, the tube is inserted through the mouth. Newborns are obligatory nose breathers, and the presence of the tube in the nose irritates the nasal mucosa. Passage of the tube through the mouth allows the nurse to observe and evaluate the sucking response. The feeding should not be done under pressure. This procedure is not used as a timesaver for the nurse.

Question 15

A healthy, stable, preterm newborn will soon be discharged. The nurse should recommend which position for sleep?

a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Side lying
d. Position of comfort

Answer 15

ANS: B
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that healthy newborns be placed to sleep in a supine position. Other positions are associated with sudden infant death syndrome. The prone position can be used for supervised play.

Question 16

Which intervention should the nurse implement to maintain the skin integrity of the preterm newborn?

a. Cleanse skin with a gentle alkaline-based soap and water.
b. Cleanse skin with a neutral pH solution only when necessary.
c. Thoroughly rinse skin with plain water after bathing in a mild hexachlorophene solution.
d. Avoid cleaning skin.

Answer 16

ANS: B
The preterm newborn should be given baths no more than two or three times per week with a neutral pH solution. The eyes, oral and diaper areas, and pressure points should be cleansed daily. Alkaline-based soaps might destroy the acid mantle of the skin. They should not be used. The increased permeability of the skin facilitates absorption of the chemical ingredients. The newborn’s skin must be cleaned to remove stool and urine, which are irritating to the skin.

Question 17

Which is an important nursing action related to the use of tape and/or adhesives on preterm newborns?

a. Avoid using tape and adhesives until skin is more mature.
b. Use solvents to remove tape and adhesives instead of pulling on skin.
c. Remove adhesives with warm water or mineral oil.
d. Use scissors carefully to remove tape instead of pulling tape off.

Answer 17

ANS: C
Warm water, mineral oil, or petrolatum can be used to facilitate the removal of adhesive. In the preterm newborn, often it is impossible to avoid using adhesives and tape. The smallest amount of adhesive necessary should be used. Solvents should be avoided because they tend to dry and burn the delicate skin. Scissors should not be used to remove dressings or tape from the extremities of very small and immature newborns because it is easy to snip off tiny extremities or nick loosely attached skin.

Question 18

The nurse is caring for a 3-week-old preterm newborn born at 29 weeks of gestation. While taking vital signs and changing the newborn’s diaper, the nurse observes the newborn’s color is pink but slightly mottled, arms and legs are limp and extended, hiccups are present, and heart rate is regular and rapid. The nurse should recognize these behaviors as manifestations of:

a. stress.
b. subtle seizures.
c. preterm behavior.
d. onset of respiratory distress.

Answer 18

ANS: A
Color pink but slightly mottled, arms and legs limp and extended, hiccups, respiratory pauses and gasping, and an irregular, rapid heart rate are signs of stress or fatigue in a newborn. Neonatal seizures usually have some type of repetitive movement from twitching to rhythmic jerking movements. The behavior of a preterm newborn may be inactive and listless. Respiratory distress is exhibited by retractions and nasal flaring.

Question 19

When is the best time for the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) nurse to initiate an individualized stimulation program for the preterm newborn?

a. As soon as possible after newborn is born
b. As soon as parent is available to provide stimulation
c. When newborn is over 38 weeks of gestation
d. When developmental organization and stability are sufficient

Answer 19

ANS: D
Newborn stimulation is essential for growth and development. The appropriate time for the introduction of an individualized program is when developmental organization and stability are achieved at approximately 34 and 36 weeks of gestation. The newborn needs to be developmentally ready for a stimulation program. The newborn must be assessed to determine the readiness and appropriateness of the stimulation program. The program should be designed and implemented by the nursing staff. The family can be involved, as the nurses help teach the parents to be responsive to the child’s cues, but the stimulation should not depend on the family’s availability. An individualized stimulation program should be started when the child is developmentally ready.

Question 20

A preterm newborn, after spending 8 weeks in the NICU, is being discharged. The parents of the newborn express apprehension and worry that the newborn may still be in danger. How should the nurse interpret these statements?

a. Normal
b. A reason to postpone discharge
c. Suggestive of maladaptation
d. Suggestive of inadequate bonding

Answer 20

ANS: A
Parents become apprehensive and excited as the time for discharge approaches. They have many concerns and insecurities regarding the care of their newborn. A major concern is that they may be unable to recognize signs of illness or distress in their newborn. Preparation for discharge should begin early and include helping the parent acquire the skills necessary for care. Apprehension and worry are normal adaptive responses. The NICU nurses should facilitate discharge by involving parents in care as soon as possible.

Question 21

The nurse is planning care for a family expecting their newborn to die. The nurse’s interventions should be based on which statement?

a. Tangible remembrances of the newborn (e.g., lock of hair, picture) prolong grief.
b. Photographs of newborns should not be taken after the death has occurred.
c. Funerals are not recommended because mother is still recovering from childbirth.
d. Parents should be encouraged to name their newborn if they have not done so already.

Answer 21

ANS: D
Naming the deceased newborn is an important step in the grieving process. It gives the parents a tangible person for whom to grieve, which is a key component of the grieving process. Tangible remembrances and photographs can make the newborn seem more real to the parents. Many NICUs will make bereavement memory packets, which may include a lock of hair, handprint, footprints, bedside name card, and other individualized objects. Families need to be informed of their options. The ritual of a funeral provides an opportunity for the parents to be supported by relatives and friends.

Question 22

The nurse has been caring for a newborn who just died. The parents are present but say they are “afraid” to hold the dead newborn. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

a. Tell them there is nothing to fear.
b. Insist that they hold newborn “one last time.”
c. Respect their wishes and release body to morgue.
d. Keep newborn’s body available for a few hours in case they change their minds.

Answer 22

ANS: D
When the parents are hesitant about holding and touching their newborn, the nurse should keep the newborn’s body for a few hours. Many parents change their minds after the initial shock of the newborn’s death. This will provide the parents time to see and hold their newborn if they desire. Stating that there is nothing to fear minimizes the parents’ feelings. The nurse should allow the family to parent their child as they wish in death, as in life. Many parents change their minds; if possible, the nurse should wrap the newborn in blankets and keep the newborn’s body on the unit for a few hours.

Question 23

The nurse is planning care for a low birth weight newborn. Which is an appropriate nursing intervention to promote adequate oxygenation?

a. Place in Trendelenburg position periodically.
b. Suction at least every 2 to 3 hours.
c. Maintain neutral thermal environment.
d. Hyperextend neck with nose pointing to ceiling.

Answer 23

ANS: C
A neutral thermal environment is one that permits the newborn to maintain a normal core temperature with minimal oxygen consumption and caloric expenditure. The Trendelenburg position should be avoided. This position can contribute to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and reduced lung capacity from gravity pushing organs against diaphragm. Suctioning should be done only as necessary. Routine suctioning may cause bronchospasm, bradycardia due to vagal nerve stimulation, hypoxia, and increased ICP. Neck hyperextension is avoided because it reduces diameter of trachea.

Question 24

A preterm newborn has been receiving orogastric feedings of breast milk. The nurse initiates nipple feedings, but the newborn tires easily and has weak sucking and swallowing reflexes. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

a. Encourage mother to breastfeed.
b. Try nipple-feeding preterm newborn formula.
c. Resume orogastric feedings of breast milk.
d. Resume orogastric feedings of formula.

Answer 24

ANS: C
If a preterm newborn tires easily or has weak sucking when nipple feedings are initiated, the nurse should resume orogastric feedings with the milk of mother’s choice. When nipple feeding is unsuccessful, it is unlikely that the newborn will be able to breastfeed. Breast milk should be continued as long as the mother desires.

Question 25

The parents of a newborn who has just died decide they want to hold their deceased infant. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Explain gently that this is no longer possible. b. Encourage parents to accept the loss of their newborn. c. Offer to take a photograph of their newborn because they cannot hold newborn. d. Get the newborn, wrap in a blanket, and rewarm in a radiant warmer so parents can hold their deceased infant.

Answer 25

ANS: D The parents should be allowed to hold their newborn in the hospital setting. The newborn’s body should be retrieved and rewarmed in a radiant warmer. The nurse should provide a private place where the parents can hold their child for a final time. A photograph is an excellent idea, but it does not replace the parents’ need to hold the child.

Question 26

Which statement best describes the clinical manifestations of the preterm newborn? a. Head is proportionately small in relation to the body. b. Sucking reflex is absent, weak, or ineffectual. c. Thermostability is well established. d. Extremities remain in attitude of flexion.

Answer 26

ANS: B Reflex activity is only partially developed. Sucking is absent, weak, or ineffectual. The preterm newborn’s head is proportionately larger than the body. Thermoregulation is poorly developed, and the preterm newborn needs a neutral thermal environment to be provided. The preterm newborn may be listless and inactive compared with the overall attitude of flexion and activity of a full-term newborn.

Question 27

Physiologic jaundice in a newborn can be caused by: a. fetal-maternal blood incompatibility. b. destruction of red blood cells as a result of antibody reaction. c. liver’s inability to bind bilirubin adequately for excretion. d. immature kidneys’ inability to hydrolyze and excrete bilirubin.

Answer 27

ANS: C Physiologic jaundice is caused by the immature hepatic function of the newborn’s liver coupled with the increased load from red blood cell hemolysis. The excess bilirubin from the destroyed red blood cells cannot be excreted from the body. The fetal-maternal blood incompatibility and the associated red cell destruction by antibodies are the causes of hemolytic disease of the newborn. The kidneys are not involved in the excretion of bilirubin.

Question 28

When should the nurse expect breastfeeding-associated jaundice to first appear in a normal newborn? a. 0 to 12 hours b. 12 to 24 hours c. 2 to 4 days d. 4 to 5 days

Answer 28

ANS: C Breastfeeding-associated jaundice is caused by decreased milk intake related to decreased caloric and fluid intake by the newborn before the mother’s milk is well established. Fasting is associated with decreased hepatic clearance of bilirubin; 0 to 24 hours is too soon. Jaundice within the first 24 hours is associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn; 4 to 5 days is too late. Jaundice at this time may be due to breast milk jaundice.

Question 29

The newborn with severe jaundice is at risk for developing: a. encephalopathy. b. bullous impetigo. c. respiratory distress. d. blood incompatibility.

Answer 29

ANS: A Unconjugated bilirubin, which can cross the blood-brain barrier, is highly toxic to neurons. A newborn with severe jaundice is at risk for developing kernicterus or bilirubin encephalopathy. Encephalopathy is a highly infectious bacterial infection of the skin. It has no relation to severe jaundice and is the most likely complication of severe jaundice. A blood incompatibility may be the causative factor for the severe jaundice.

Question 30

What is an early clinical manifestation of bilirubin encephalopathy in the newborn? a. Cognitive impairment b. Absence of stooling c. Lethargy or irritability d. Increased or decreased temperature

Answer 30

ANS: C Clinical manifestations of bilirubin encephalopathy are those of nervous system depression or excitation. Prodromal symptoms consist of decreased activity, lethargy, irritability, hypotonia, and seizures. Newborns who survive may have evidence of cognitive impairment. Absence of stooling and increased/decreased temperature are not manifestations of bilirubin encephalopathy.

Question 31

A nurse is assessing for jaundice in a dark-skinned newborn. Where is the best place to assess for jaundice in this newborn? a. Buttocks b. Tip of nose and sclera c. Sclera, conjunctiva, and oral mucosa d. Palms of hands and soles of feet

Answer 31

ANS: C Assessing for jaundice is part of the routine physical assessment in newborns. In dark-skinned newborns, the sclera, conjunctiva, and oral mucosa are the best place to observe jaundice because of the lack of skin pigmentation in these areas. The skin pigmentation in the buttocks, tip of nose and sclera, and palms of hands and soles of feet can mask the appearance of jaundice.

Question 32

A blood sample for measurement of bilirubin is required from a newborn receiving phototherapy. In what environment should this blood sample be drawn? a. While phototherapy lights are turned off b. While newborn remains under phototherapy lights c. When newborn is covered with a blanket d. When newborn has been off phototherapy for 30 to 60 minutes

Answer 32

ANS: A When blood is drawn, phototherapy lights are turned off, and the blood is transported in a covered tube to avoid a false reading as a result of bilirubin destruction in the test tube. The lights will cause a degradation of the bilirubin in the sample, resulting in a falsely lowered result. The newborn does not need to be covered with a blanket. The phototherapy lights must be off. There is no reason to delay obtaining the blood sample. It can be drawn as soon as the lights are turned off.

Question 33

The nurse is preparing a parent of a newborn for home phototherapy. Which statement made by the parent would indicate a need for further teaching? a. “I should change the baby’s position many times during the day.” b. “I can dress the baby in lightweight clothing while under phototherapy.” c. “I should be sure that the baby’s eyelids are closed before applying patches.” d. “I can take the patches off the baby during feedings and other caregiving activities.”

Answer 33

ANS: B The baby should be placed nude under the lights. The newborn should be repositioned frequently to expose all body surfaces to the lights. The newborn’s eyelids must be closed before the patches are applied because the corneas may become excoriated if in contact with the dressing. The eye patches should be removed during feedings and other caregiving activities so the newborn can have visual and sensory stimulation.

Question 34

The nurse is caring for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia who is receiving phototherapy. Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for this newborn? a. Apply lotion as prescribed to moisturize skin. b. Maintain nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status to prevent nausea and vomiting. c. Monitor temperature to prevent hypothermia or hyperthermia. d. Keep eye patches on for at least 8 to 12 of every 24 hours.

Answer 34

ANS: C Newborns who are receiving phototherapy are at risk for thermoregulation issues. The nurse must monitor the newborn’s temperature closely to rapidly detect either hypothermia or hyperthermia. Lotions are not used. They may predispose the newborn to increased tanning or “frying” effect. Newborns receiving phototherapy require additional fluid to compensate for increased fluid losses caused by the lights. The eye patches must be in place whenever the child is under the phototherapy lights.

Question 35

Hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother’s second newborn. Which factor is important in understanding how this could develop? a. The mother’s first child was Rh positive. b. The mother is Rh positive. c. Both parents have type O blood. d. RhIG (RhoGAM) was given to the mother during her first pregnancy.

Answer 35

ANS: A Hemolytic disease of the newborn results from an abnormally rapid rate of red blood cell (RBC) destruction. The major causes of this are Rh and maternal-fetal ABO incompatibility. If an Rh-negative mother has previously been exposed to Rh-positive blood through pregnancy or blood transfusion, antibodies to this blood group antigen may develop so that she is isoimmunized. With further exposure to Rh, the maternal antibodies will agglutinate with the red cells of the fetus who has the antigen and destroy the cells. Hemolytic disease is also caused by ABO incompatibilities. Blood type is the important consideration. If both parents are type O blood, ABO incompatibility would not be a possibility. The mother should have received Rho(D) immune globulin to prevent antibody development after the first pregnancy.

Question 36

When should the nurse expect jaundice to be present in a newborn with hemolytic disease? a. At birth b. During first 24 hours after birth c. 24 to 48 hours after birth d. 48 to 72 hours after birth

Answer 36

ANS: B In hemolytic disease of the newborn, jaundice is usually evident within the first 24 hours of life. Newborns with hemolytic disease are usually not jaundiced at birth, although some degree of hepatosplenomegaly, pallor, and hypovolemic shock may occur when the most severe form, hydrops fetalis, is present; 24 to 72 hours is too late for hemolytic disease of the newborn. Jaundice at these ages is most likely due to physiologic or early-onset breastfeeding jaundice.

Question 37

To whom is RhIG (RhoGAM) administered to prevent Rh isoimmunization? a. Rh-negative women who deliver an Rh-positive newborn b. Rh-positive women who deliver an Rh-negative newborn c. Rh-negative newborns whose mothers are Rh positive d. Rh-positive fathers before conception of second newborn when first newborn was Rh positive

Answer 37

ANS: A RhIG human gamma globulin concentrate of anti-D is administered to all unsensitized Rh-negative women after delivery or abortion of an Rh-positive newborn or fetus. Administering RhIG to an individual who is Rh positive will result in agglutination of red cells and hemolysis. It will not alter the person’s genetic makeup. The anti-D antibody contained in RhIG will have no effect on Rh-negative newborns because the D antibody is not present.

Question 38

The nurse is caring for a newborn receiving an exchange transfusion for hemolytic disease. Assessment of the newborn reveals slight respiratory distress and tachycardia. Which should the nurse’s first action be? a. Notify practitioner. b. Stop the transfusion. c. Administer calcium gluconate. d. Monitor vital signs electronically.

Answer 38

ANS: B When signs of cardiac or respiratory problems occur, the procedure is stopped, and the newborn’s cardiorespiratory status is allowed to stabilize. The practitioner is usually performing the exchange transfusion with the nurse’s assistance. The procedure must be stopped so the newborn can stabilize. Respiratory distress and tachycardia are signs of cardiorespiratory problems, not hypocalcemia. Calcium gluconate is not indicated. The vital signs should be monitored electronically throughout the entire procedure.

Question 39

Which is the primary treatment for hypoglycemia in newborns with feeding intolerance? a. Oral glucose feedings b. Intravenous (IV) infusion of glucose c. Short-term insulin therapy d. Feedings (formula or breast milk) at least every 2 hours

Answer 39

ANS: B IV infusions of glucose are indicated when the glucose level is very low and when feedings are not tolerated. Early feedings in the normoglycemic newborn are preventive. When the newborn is unable to tolerate feedings or the blood glucose level has become extremely low, then IV infusions are indicated. Insulin administration will further depress the blood glucose level. Feedings can be preventive. The child may not be able to tolerate this frequency.

Question 40

Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention for the newborn who is jittery and twitching and has a high-pitched cry? a. Monitor blood pressure closely. b. Obtain urine sample to detect glycosuria. c. Obtain serum glucose and serum calcium levels. d. Administer oral glucose or, if newborn refuses to suck, IV dextrose.

Answer 40

ANS: C These are signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia and hypoglycemia. A blood test is useful to determine the treatment. Laboratory analysis for calcium and blood glucose should be the priority intervention. Monitoring vital signs is important, but recognition of the possible hypocalcemia and hypoglycemia is imperative. A finding of glycosuria would not facilitate the diagnosis of hypoglycemia. A determination must be made between the hypocalcemia and hypoglycemia before treatment can be initiated.

Question 41

The nurse is planning care for a newborn receiving IV calcium gluconate for treatment of hypocalcemia. Which intervention is the most appropriate during the acute phase? a. Allow newborn to sleep with pacifier to decrease stimuli. b. Keep newborn awake to monitor central nervous system changes. c. Encourage parents to hold and feed newborn to facilitate attachment during illness. d. Awaken newborn periodically to assess level of consciousness.

Answer 41

ANS: A For newborns with hypocalcemia, the nurse should manipulate the environment to reduce stimuli that might precipitate a seizure or tremors. A quiet, nonstimulating environment should be maintained for the newborn until calcium levels are normalized. Care should be provided without sudden jarring. Parents can be involved in observations and care when the child is awake.

Question 42

Which is the central factor responsible for respiratory distress syndrome? a. Deficient surfactant production b. Overproduction of surfactant c. Overdeveloped alveoli d. Absence of alveoli

Answer 42

ANS: A The successful adaptation to extrauterine breathing requires numerous factors, which most term newborns successfully accomplish. Preterm newborns with respiratory distress are not able to adjust. The most likely central cause is the abnormal development of the surfactant system. The deficient production of surfactant results in unequal inflation of alveoli on inspiration and the collapse of the alveoli on end expiration. The number and state of development of the alveoli are not a central factors in respiratory distress syndrome. The instability of the alveoli related to the lack of surfactant is the causative issue.

Question 43

A preterm newborn of 36 weeks of gestation is admitted to the NICU. Approximately 2 hours after birth, the newborn begins having difficulty breathing, with grunting, tachypnea, and nasal flaring. Which is important for the nurse to recognize? a. This is a normal finding. b. This is not significant unless cyanosis is present. c. Improvement should occur within 24 hours. d. Further evaluation is needed.

Answer 43

ANS: D Difficulty breathing, with grunting, tachypnea, and nasal flaring are clinical manifestations of respiratory distress syndrome and require further evaluation. This is not a normal finding and requires further evaluation. Cyanosis may be present, but these are significant findings indicative of respiratory distress without cyanosis. The child’s condition will most likely worsen for approximately 48 hours without intervention. Improvement may begin at 72 hours.

Question 44

The nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who requires mechanical ventilation for the treatment of respiratory distress syndrome. What is the preterm newborn at increased risk of due to the mechanical ventilation? a. Alveolar rupture b. Meconium aspiration c. Transient tachypnea d. Retractions and nasal flaring

Answer 44

ANS: A Positive pressure introduced by mechanical apparatus has created an increase in the incidence of ruptured alveoli and subsequent pneumothorax and bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Meconium aspiration is not associated with mechanical ventilation. Tachypnea may be an indication of a pneumothorax, but it would not be transient. Retractions and nasal flaring are indications of the use of accessory muscles when the newborn cannot obtain sufficient oxygen. The use of mechanical ventilation bypasses the newborn’s need to use these muscles.

Question 45

The nurse is caring for a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome. The newborn has an endotracheal tube. Which statement describes nursing considerations related to suctioning? a. Suctioning should not be carried out routinely. b. Newborn should be in Trendelenburg position for suctioning. c. Routine suctioning, usually every 15 minutes, is necessary. d. Frequent suctioning is necessary to maintain patency of bronchi.

Answer 45

ANS: A Suctioning is not an innocuous procedure and can cause bronchospasm, bradycardia, hypoxia, and increased ICP. It should never be carried out routinely. The Trendelenburg position should be avoided. This position can contribute to increased ICP and reduced lung capacity from gravity pushing organs against diaphragm. Routine suctioning is avoided because of the potential complications of bronchospasm, bradycardia, hypoxia, and increased ICP.

Question 46

A preterm newborn requires oxygen and mechanical ventilation. Which complications should the nurse assess for? a. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia, pneumothorax b. Anemia, necrotizing enterocolitis c. Cerebral palsy, persistent patent ductus d. Congestive heart failure, cerebral edema

Answer 46

ANS: A Oxygen therapy, although lifesaving, is not without hazards. The positive pressure created by mechanical ventilation creates an increase in the number of ruptured alveoli and subsequent pneumothorax and bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Anemia, necrotizing enterocolitis, cerebral palsy, persistent patent ductus, congestive heart failure, and cerebral edema are complications not primarily due to oxygen therapy and mechanical ventilation.

Question 47

What causes meconium aspiration syndrome? a. Hypoglycemia b. Carbon dioxide retention c. Bowel obstruction with meconium d. Aspiration of meconium in utero or at birth

Answer 47

ANS: D Meconium aspiration syndrome is caused by the aspiration of amniotic fluid containing meconium into the fetal or newborn trachea in utero or at first breath. Hypoglycemia and carbon dioxide retention are not related to meconium aspiration. Bowel obstruction with meconium may be an indication of cystic fibrosis or Hirschsprung disease, not meconium aspiration.

Question 48

Which is the most common cause of anemia in preterm newborns? a. Frequent blood sampling b. Respiratory distress syndrome c. Meconium aspiration syndrome d. Persistent pulmonary hypertension

Answer 48

ANS: A The most common cause of anemia in preterm newborns is frequent blood-sample withdrawal and inadequate erythropoiesis in acutely ill newborns. Microsamples should be used for blood tests, and the amount of blood drawn should be monitored. Respiratory distress syndrome, meconium aspiration syndrome, and persistent pulmonary hypertension are not causes of anemia. They may require frequent blood sampling, which will contribute to the problem of decreased erythropoiesis and anemia.

Question 49

A newborn is diagnosed with retinopathy of prematurity. What should the nurse know about this diagnosis? a. Blindness cannot be prevented. b. No treatment is currently available. c. Cryotherapy and laser therapy are effective treatments. d. Long-term administration of oxygen will be necessary.

Answer 49

ANS: C Cryotherapy and laser photocoagulation therapy can be used to minimize the vascular proliferation process that causes the retinal damage. Blindness can be prevented with early recognition and treatment. Cryotherapy and laser therapy can be used to stop the process. Surgical intervention can be used to repair a detached retina if necessary. Long-term administration of oxygen is one of the causes. Oxygen should be used judiciously.

Question 50

Several types of seizures can occur in the newborn. Which is characteristic of clonic seizures? a. Apnea b. Tremors c. Rhythmic jerking movements d. Extensions of all four limbs

Answer 50

ANS: C Clonic seizures are characterized by slow rhythmic jerking movements that occur approximately 1 to 3 per second. Apnea is a common manifestation of subtle seizures. Tremors are not characteristic of seizure activity. They may be indicative of hypoglycemia or hypocalcemia. A clonic seizure would have extension and contraction of the extremities, not just extension.

Question 51

Newborns are highly susceptible to infection as a result of: a. excessive levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) and immunoglobulin M (IgM). b. diminished nonspecific and specific immunity. c. increased humoral immunity. d. overwhelming anti-inflammatory response.

Answer 51

ANS: B Newborns have diminished inflammatory (nonspecific) and humoral (specific) immunity. They are unable to mount a local inflammatory reaction at the portal of entry to signal infection, and the resulting symptoms are vague and nonspecific, delaying diagnosis and treatment. Newborns have diminished or absent IgA and IgM. Humoral and anti-inflammatory immune responses are diminished in newborns.

Question 52

Which is most descriptive of the clinical manifestations observed in neonatal sepsis? a. Seizures and sunken fontanels b. Sudden hyperthermia and profuse sweating c. Decreased urinary output and frequent stools d. Nonspecific physical signs with hypothermia

Answer 52

ANS: D The clinical manifestations of neonatal sepsis are usually characterized by the newborn generally “not doing well.” Poor temperature control, usually with hypothermia, lethargy, poor feeding, pallor, cyanosis or mottling, and jaundice, may be evident. Seizures and sunken fontanels are not manifestations of the sepsis. Severe neurologic sequelae may occur in low birth weight children with sepsis. Hyperthermia is rare in neonatal sepsis. Urinary output is not affected by sepsis.

Question 53

The nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother is diabetic. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to see? a. Hypoglycemic, large for gestational age b. Hyperglycemic, large for gestational age c. Hypoglycemic, small for gestational age d. Hyperglycemic, small for gestational age

Answer 53

ANS: A The clinical manifestations of a newborn born to a mother with diabetes include being large for gestational age, being plump and full-faced, having abundant vernix caseosa, being listless and lethargic, and having hypoglycemia. These manifestations appear a short time after birth. The newborn is hypoglycemic from increased fetal production of insulin and large for gestational age.

Question 54

The nurse is caring for a newborn who was born 24 hours ago to a mother who received no prenatal care. The newborn is a poor feeder but sucks avidly on his hands. Clinical manifestations also include loose stools, tachycardia, fever, projectile vomiting, sneezing, and generalized sweating. Which should the nurse suspect? a. Seizure disorder b. Narcotic withdrawal c. Placental insufficiency d. Meconium aspiration syndrome

Answer 54

ANS: B Newborns exposed to drugs in utero usually show no untoward effects until 12 to 24 hours for heroin or much longer for methadone. The newborn usually has nonspecific signs that may coexist with other conditions such as hypocalcemia and hypoglycemia. In addition, these newborns may have loose stools, tachycardia, fever, projectile vomiting, sneezing, and generalized sweating, which is uncommon in newborns. Loose stools, tachycardia, fever, projectile vomiting, sneezing, and generalized sweating are manifestations not descriptive of seizure activity. Placental insufficiency usually results in a child who is small for gestational age. Meconium aspiration syndrome usually has manifestations of respiratory distress.

Question 55

Which should the nurse anticipate in the newborn whose mother used cocaine during pregnancy? a. Seizures b. Hyperglycemia c. Cardiac and respiratory problems d. Neurobehavioral depression or excitability

Answer 55

ANS: D The nurse should anticipate neurobehavioral depression or excitability and implement care directed at the newborn’s manifestations. Few or no neurologic sequelae appear in newborns born to mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy. The newborn is usually a poor feeder, so hypoglycemia would be a more likely occurrence. Cardiac and respiratory problems are usually not evident in these newborns.

Question 56

Which is characteristic of newborns whose mothers smoked during pregnancy? a. Large for gestational age b. Preterm, but size appropriate for gestational age c. Growth retardation in weight only d. Growth retardation in weight, length, and head circumference

Answer 56

ANS: D Newborns born to mothers who smoke had growth failure in weight, length, and chest circumference when compared with newborns of mothers who did not smoke. A dose-effect relation exists. Newborns have significant growth failure, which is related to the number of cigarettes smoked.

Question 57

Which is an important nursing consideration in preventing the complications of congenital hypothyroidism (CH)? a. Assess for family history of CH. b. Assess mother for signs of hypothyroidism. c. Be certain appropriate screening is done prenatally. d. Be certain appropriate screening is done on newborn.

Answer 57

ANS: D Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent the complications of CH. Neonatal screening is mandatory in all 50 United States and territories and is usually obtained in the first 24 to 48 hours of birth. A number of different etiologies exist for CH; family history will identify a small percentage only. The screening can be done postnatally on blood obtained via heel stick.

Question 58

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disease that results in the body’s inability to correctly metabolize: a. glucose. b. phenylalanine. c. phenylketones. d. thyroxine.

Answer 58

ANS: B PKU is an inborn error of metabolism caused by a deficiency or absence of the enzyme needed to metabolize the essential amino acid phenylalanine. Phenylalanine hydroxylase is missing in PKU. Individuals with this disorder can metabolize glucose. Phenylketones are metabolites of phenylalanine, excreted in the urine. Thyroxine is one of the principal hormones secreted by the thyroid gland.

Question 59

What is the Guthrie blood test use to diagnose in the newborn? a. Down syndrome b. Isoimmunization c. PKU d. Congenital hypothyroidism (CH)

Answer 59

ANS: C The Guthrie blood test is an assay commonly used to diagnosis PKU. The test should be performed after the newborn has received postnatal feedings. Down syndrome is diagnosed through chromosomal analysis. Isoimmunization is detected by analysis of blood for unexpected antibodies. CH is diagnosed by analysis of a filter paper blood spot for thyroxine (T4).

Question 60

The screening test for PKU is most reliable if the blood sample is: a. from cord blood. b. taken 14 days after birth. c. taken before oral feedings are initiated. d. fresh blood from the heel.

Answer 60

ANS: D Fresh heel-stick blood is the preferred source for the test. Fresh heel-stick blood, not cord blood, must be used. The test must be performed soon after birth so that a low-phenylalanine diet can be instituted if required. The newborn should ingest breast milk or formula before the test is performed.

Question 61

Which is an important nursing consideration in the care of the newborn with PKU? a. Suggest ways to make formula more palatable. b. Teach proper administration of phenylalanine hydroxylase. c. Encourage the breastfeeding mother to adhere to a low-phenylalanine diet. d. Give reassurance that dietary restrictions are a temporary inconvenience.

Answer 61

ANS: A To achieve optimal metabolic control, a restricted phenylalanine diet will probably be required for virtually all individuals with classic PKU throughout life. The nurse and nutritionist should work with families to make the formula more palatable for the newborn. Phenylalanine hydroxylase is not effective because it cannot act within the cell where phenylalanine is metabolized. Partial breastfeeding may be possible, but only with extremely careful monitoring of the newborn’s blood levels. According to the latest research, lifelong dietary restriction may be necessary.

Question 62

The nurse needs to obtain blood for ongoing assessment of a high-risk newborn’s progress. Which tests should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood glucose b. Complete blood count (CBC) c. Calcium d. Serum electrolytes e. Neonatal prothrombin time (PTT)

Answer 62

ANS: A, C, D The most common blood tests done on high-risk newborns are blood glucose, bilirubin, calcium, hematocrit, serum electrolytes, and blood gases. Hematocrits rather than CBCs are performed. This will monitor the red cell volume. Neonatal prothrombin time (PTT) is not a test.

Question 63

Which are clinical manifestations of the postterm newborn? (Select all that apply.) a. Excessive lanugo b. Increased subcutaneous fat c. Absence of scalp hair d. Parchment-like skin e. Minimal vernix caseosa f. Long fingernails

Answer 63

ANS: D, E, F In postterm newborns, the skin is often cracked, parchment-like, and desquamating; there is little to no vernix caseosa; and fingernails are long. Lanugo is usually absent in postterm newborns. Subcutaneous fat is usually depleted, giving the child a thin, elongated appearance. Scalp hair is usually abundant.

Question 64

The nurse is preparing to care for a newborn receiving phototherapy. Which interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid stimulation. b. Decrease fluid intake. c. Expose all the newborn’s skin. d. Monitor skin temperature closely. e. Reposition the newborn every 2 hours. f. Cover the newborn’s eyes with eye shields or patches.

Answer 64

ANS: D, E, F Several nursing interventions are instituted to protect the newborn during phototherapy. Temperature is closely monitored to prevent hyperthermia or hypothermia. The newborn is repositioned every 2 hours to maximize exposure to the phototherapy and to prevent skin breakdown. The infant’s eyes are shielded by an opaque mask to prevent exposure to the light. The newborn is clothed in a diaper because a side effect of phototherapy includes loose, greenish stools. Other side effects include increased metabolic rate; dehydration; electrolyte disturbances, such as hypocalcemia; and priapism. Infants receiving phototherapy may require additional fluid volume to compensate for insensible and intestinal fluid loss. The infant should receive adequate stimulation, which includes feeding and touching.

Question 65

A nurse is planning care for a preterm newborn. Which interventions should the nurse implement for skin care? (Select all that apply.) a. Use cleaning agents with neutral pH. b. Rub skin during drying. c. Use adhesive remover solvent when removing tape. d. Avoid removing adhesives for at least 24 hours. e. Consider pectin barriers beneath adhesives.

Answer 65

ANS: A, D, E The skin care for a preterm newborn should include use of pH-neutral cleanser or soaps no more than two or three times a week. Adhesives should not be removed for at least 24 hours after application. Pectin barriers should be used beneath adhesives to protect skin. Avoid rubbing skin during bathing or drying. Do not use adhesive remover, solvents, or bonding agents. Adhesive removal can be facilitated using water, mineral oil, or petrolatum.

Question 66

A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn for the possibility of necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to find if NEC is confirmed? (Select all that apply.) a. Minimal gastric residual b. Abdominal distention c. Apnea d. Urinary output at 2 ml/kg/hr e. Unstable temperature

Answer 66

ANS: B, C, E The nurse should observe for indications of early development of NEC by checking the appearance of the abdomen for distention (measuring abdominal girth, measuring residual gastric contents before feedings, and listening for bowel sounds) and performing all routine assessments for high-risk neonates. The preterm newborn may have apnea and unstable temperature if NEC is developing. The urinary output will be decreased and will be below the expected 2 ml/kg/hr.

Question 67

A nurse is admitting a preterm newborn to the NICU. Which interventions should the nurse implement to prevent retinopathy? (Select all that apply.) a. Place on pulse oximetry. b. Decrease exposure to bright, direct lighting. c. Place on a cardiac monitor. d. Cover eyes with an eye shield at night. e. Use supplemental oxygen only when needed.

Answer 67

ANS: A, B, E To prevent retinopathy, the nurse should provide preventive care by closely monitoring blood oxygen levels, responding promptly to saturation alarms, and preventing fluctuations in blood oxygen levels. Pulse oximetry is recommended to monitor the infant’s oxygenation status during resuscitation and to prevent excessive use of oxygen in both term and preterm infants. Decrease exposure to bright, direct lighting; although exposure to bright light has not been proven to contribute to retinopathy of prematurity, such exposure is undesirable from a neurobehavioral developmental perspective. Use supplemental oxygen judiciously and monitor oxygen blood levels carefully; prevent wide fluctuations in oxygen blood levels (hyperoxia and hypoxia). Placing the newborn on a cardiac monitor will not prevent retinopathy. Covering the eyes with eye shields is not a preventive measure for retinopathy.

Question 68

A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn. Which assessment findings are consistent with prematurity? (Select all that apply.) a. Abundant lanugo over the body b. Ear cartilage soft and pliable c. Flexed body posture d. Deep creases on the sole of the foot e. Skin is bright pink, smooth, and shiny.

Answer 68

ANS: A, B, E The preterm newborn has fine lanugo hair that is abundant over the body. The ear cartilage is soft and pliable, and the soles and palms have minimal creases, resulting in a smooth appearance. The preterm newborn’s skin is bright pink (often translucent, depending on the degree of immaturity), smooth, and shiny, with small blood vessels clearly visible underneath the thin epidermis. In contrast to full-term infants’ overall attitude of flexion and continuous activity, preterm infants may be inactive and listless. The extremities maintain an attitude of extension and remain in any position in which they are placed.

Question 69

A nurse is reviewing acid-base laboratory data on a newborn admitted to the NICU for meconium aspiration. Which laboratory values should the nurse report to the physician? (Select all that apply.) a. pH: 7.35 b. PCO2: 49 c. HCO3-: 30 d. PaO2: 96

Answer 69

``` ANS: B, C Normal values of pH for a newborn are: Birth: 7.11–7.36 1 day: 7.29–7.45 Child: 7.35–7.45. Normal values of PCO2 are: Newborn: 27–40 mm Hg Infant: 27–41 mm Hg Girls: 32–45 mm Hg Boys: 35–48 mm Hg. Normal values for HCO3- are: Infant: 21–28 mEq/ml Thereafter: 22–26 mEq/ml. The PaO2 is within normal limits for a newborn. Therefore, the nurse should report the PCO2 of 49 and the HCO3- of 30. ```