CA1 EV Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
Asepsis is paramount during surgery. Which of the following are used to preserve this environment? Select all that apply:
A. Correct donning of sterile gowns/gloves
B. Inspection of sterile equipment packages prior to unwrapping and dispensing
C. Consider sterile field only at level of sterile draping
D. Keep unscrubbed personnel more than 1 foot away and not between sterile fields.
A
A. Correct donning of sterile gowns/gloves
B. Inspection of sterile equipment packages prior to unwrapping and dispensing
C. Consider sterile field only at level of sterile draping
D. Keep unscrubbed personnel more than 1 foot away and not between sterile fields.
2
Q
A client is having surgery for a cholecystectomy and common bile duct exploration. The nurse understands that after surgery the client will:
A. Need to take oral bile salts
B. Be unable to concentrate bile
C. Be incapable of producing bile
D. Not be able to digest fatty foods
A
B. Be unable to concentrate bile
3
Q
Who is responsible for accompanying the surgical client to the post anesthesia recovery area after surgery and for giving a report of the client’s intraoperative experience to the PACU nurse?
A. The surgeon and scrub nurse
B. The surgeon and circulating nurse
C. The anesthesiologist and scrub nurse
D. The anesthesiologist and circulating nurse
A
D. The anesthesiologist and circulating nurse
4
Q
A family member asks you, “Why can’t you give more medicine? He is still having a lot of pain.” What is your best response?
A. “The doctor ordered the medicine to be given every 4 hours.”
B. “If the medication is given too frequently he could suffer ill effects.”
C. “Please tell him that I will be right there to check of him.”
D. “Let’s wait about 30-40 minutes. If there is no relief I’ll call the doctor.”
A
C. “Please tell him that I will be right there to check of him.”
5
Q
A nurse is receiving a patient from surgery to the post- anesthesia care unit (PACU). she is most interested in which of the following assessment data? Select all that apply:
A. Bowel function
B. Pain
C. Urinary output
D. Pupillary response
A
B. Pain
C. Urinary output
D. Pupillary response
6
Q
During the immediate postoperative period, the nurse should give highest priority to:
A. Observing for signs of infection
B. Maintaining a patent airway
C. Recording the intake/output
D. Checking vital signs every hours
A
B. Maintaining a patent airway
7
Q
Which client(s) would be appropriate to assign to a newly graduated RN, who has recently completed orientation? (Choose all that apply.)
A. An anxious, chronic pain client who frequently uses the call button
B. A client second day post-op who needs pain medication prior to dressing changes
C. A client with HIV who reports headache and mabdominal and pleuritic chest pain
D. A client who is being discharged with a surgically implanted cathete
A
B. A client second day post-op who needs pain medication prior to dressing changes
8
Q
The client is most likely to require the greatest amount of analgesia for pain during which period?
A. Immediately after surgery
B. 4 hours after surgery
C. 12 to 36 hours after surgery
D. 48 to 60 hours after surgery
A
C. 12 to 36 hours after surgery
9
Q
Which client is at greatest risk for respiratory complications after surgery under general anesthesia?
A. 65-year-old woman taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension
B. 55-year-old man with chronic allergic rhinitis
C. 45-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus type 1
D. 35-year-old man who smokes two packs of cigarettes daily
A
D. 35-year-old man who smokes two packs of cigarettes daily
10
Q
What is the best way to schedule medication for a client with constant pain?
A. PRN at the client’s request
B. Prior to painful procedures
C. IV bolus after pain assessment
D. Around-the-clock
A
D. Around-the-clock
11
Q
The nurse empties 80 mL of sanguineous drainage from the Jackson-Pratt drain in the client’s hip after hip surgery. What other actions regarding the drain should the nurse take?
A. Flush the tubing with urokinase to ensure patency.
B. Compress and close the drain to ensure suction.
C. Advance the tubing 1⁄2 inch from the insertion site.
D. Clamp the drain for 2 hrs and release the clamp for 2 hrs.
A
B. Compress and close the drain to ensure suction.
12
Q
Which route of administration is preferable for administration of daily analgesics (if all body systems are functional)?
A. IV
B. IM or subcutaneous
C. Oral
D. Transdermal
E. PCA
A
C. Oral
13
Q
What is the order of return of motor and sensory functioning after local or regional anesthesia?
- Sense of touch
- Sense of pain
- Sense of warmth
- Sense of cold
- Ability to move
A
14
Q
What is the order of return to consciousness after general anesthesia?
- Muscular irritability
- Restlessness and delirium
- Recognition of pain
- Ability to reason and control behavior
A
15
Q
A PACU nurse has received a semiconscious patient form the operating room and reviews the chart for orders related to positioning of the patient. There are no specific orders on the chart related to specific orders for the patient’s position. In this situation, in what position will the nurse place the patient?
A. supine
B. prone
C. side-lying
D. trendelenburg
A
C. side-lying
16
Q
The nurse assesses a postoperative client who has a rapid, weak pulse; urine output less than 30 mL/hr; and decreased blood pressure. The client’s skin is cool and clammy. What complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Pneumonia
D. Wound dehiscence
A
B. Hypovolemic shock
17
Q
On the 3rd post-operative day after a subtotal gastrectomy, a client complains of severe abdominal pain. The nurse palpates the client’s abdomen and notes rigidity. The nurse should first:
A. Assist the client to ambulate
B. Obtain the client’s vital sign
C. Administer the prescribed analgesic
A
B. Obtain the client’s vital sign
18
Q
The nurse has just reassessed the condition of a postoperative client who was admitted 1 hour ago to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to monitor which parameter most carefully during the next hour?
A. Urine output of 20ml/hour
B. Temperature of 37.6 C
C. Blood pressure of 114/70
D. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing
A
A. Urine output of 20ml/hour
19
Q
A postoperative client asks the nurse why it is so important to deep-breathe and cough after surgery. When formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that retained pulmonary secretions in a postoperative client can lead to which
condition?
A. Pneumonia
B. Hypoxemia
C. Fluid imbalance
D. Pulmonary embolism
A
A. Pneumonia
20
Q
A client who has had abdominal surgery complains of feeling as though “something gave way” in the incisional site. The nurse removes the dressing and notes the presence of a loop of bowel protruding through the incision. Which nursing interventions should the nurse take? Select all that apply
A. Contact the surgeon
B. Instruct the client to remain quiet
C. Prepare the client for wound closure
D. Document the findings and actions taken
E. Place a sterile saline dressing and icepacks over the wound
F. Place the client in a prone position without a pillow under the head.
A
A. Contact the surgeon
B. Instruct the client to remain quiet
C. Prepare the client for wound closure
D. Document the findings and actions taken
21
Q
A nurse is reviewing the health care provider’s prescription sheet for a preoperative client, which states that the client must be NPO after midnight. Which medication should the nurse clarify to be given and not withheld?
A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
B. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
C. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
D. Conjugated estrogen (Premarin)
A
A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
22
Q
In educating clients about non- pharmaceutical alternatives, which topic could you delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN, who will function under your continued support and supervision?
A. Therapeutic touch
B. Use of heat and cold applications
A
B. Use of heat and cold applications
23
Q
The client’s postoperative orders state “diet as tolerated.” The client has been NPO. The nurse will advance the client’s diet to clear liquids based on which assessment? Select all that apply.
A. Does not complain of nausea or vomiting.
B. Pain level is maintained at a rating of 2-3 out of 10.
C. States passing flatus.
D. Ambulates with minimal assistance.
E. Expresses feeling “hungry.”
A
A. Does not complain of nausea or vomiting.
C. States passing flatus.
24
Q
The nurse plans to remove the client’s sutures. Which action demonstrates appropriate standards of care? Select all that apply.
A. Use clean technique.
B. Grasp the suture at the knot with a pair of forceps.
C. Place the curved tip of the suture scissors under the suture as close to the skin as possible.
D. Pull the suture material that is visible beneath the skin during removal.
E. Remove alternate sutures first.
A
B. Grasp the suture at the knot with a pair of forceps.
C. Place the curved tip of the suture scissors under the suture as close to the skin as possible.
E. Remove alternate sutures first.
25
The patient donated a kidney, and early ambulation is included in her plan of care. But the patient refuses to get up and walk. What rationale should the nurse explain to the patient for early ambulation?
A. "Early walking keeps your legs limber and strong."
B. "Early ambulation will help you be ready to go home."
C. "Early ambulation will help you get rid of your syncope and pain."
D. "Early walking is the best way to prevent postoperative complications."
D. "Early walking is the best way to prevent postoperative complications."
26
An adult client's wound has eviscerated. Why would the respiratory status need to be assessed?
A. Dehiscence elevates the diaphragm
B. Coughing increases intestine protrusion
C. Respiratory arrest commonly accompanies wound dehiscence
D. Splinting the wound will compromise respiratory status
B. Coughing increases intestine protrusion
27
In applying the principles of pain treatment, what is the first consideration?
A. Treatment is based on client goals.
B. A multidisciplinary approach is needed.
C. The client must be believed about perceptions of own pain.
D. Drug side effects must be prevented and managed.
C. The client must be believed about perceptions of own pain.
28
In caring for a young child with pain, which assessment tool is the most useful?
A. Simple description pain intensity scale
B. 0-10 numeric pain scale
C. Faces pain-rating scale
D. McGill-Melzack pain questionnaire
C. Faces pain-rating scale
29
In planning postoperative interventions to promote repositioning, ambulation, coughing, and deep breathing, which action should the nurse recognize will best enable the patient to achieve the desired outcomes?
A. Administering adequate analgesics to promote relief or control of pain
B. Asking the patient to demonstrate the postoperative exercises every 1 hour
C. Giving the patient positive feedback when the activities are performed correctly
D. Warning the patient about possible complications if the activities are not performed
A. Administering adequate analgesics to promote relief or control of pain
30
After an acute episode of upper GI bleeding, a client vomits undigested antacids and complains of severe epigastric pain. The nursing assessment reveals the absence of bowel sounds, PR of 134 and shallow respirations of 32/min. In addition, to calling the physician, the nurse should:
A. Keep the client NPO in preparation for surgery
B. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 3–4 L/min.
C. Place the client in a supine position w/ the legs elevated
D. Ask the client whether any red or black tools have been noted
A. Keep the client NPO in preparation for surgery
31
A client who had a transurethral prostatectomy complains of painful bladder spasms. To limit this spasms, the nurse should:
A. Administer the ordered opiate every 4 hours
B. Irrigate the IFC with 60 ml of Isotonic solution
C. Advance the catheter to relieve the pressure against the prostatic fossa
D. Encourage the client to avoid contracting his muscles as if he were voiding
D. Encourage the client to avoid contracting his muscles as if he were voiding
32
A client with rheumatoid arthritis states, “The only time I am without pain is when I lie perfectly still.” During the convalescent stage, the nurse should encourage:
A. Active joint flexion and extension
B. Flexion exercises 3 a day
C. ROM exercises once a day
D. Continued immobility until remission occurs
A. Active joint flexion and extension
33
Three days after a cast is applied to a client’s fractured tibia, the client reports that there is a burning pain over the ankle. The cast over the ankle feels warm to the touch and the pain is not relieved when the client changes position. The nurse’s priority action should be to:
A. Obtain an order for antibiotic
B. Explain that this is typical with a cast
C. Reports the client’s complain to the physician
D. Administer the prescribed medication for pain
C. Reports the client’s complain to the physician
34
A dock worker is admitted to the hospital with lower back pain anda tentative diagnosis of a herniated intervertebral disk. When assessing the client’s back pain, the nurse should ask:
A. “Is there a tenderness in the calf of your leg?”
B. “ Have you have a burning sensation on urination?”
C. “Do you have any increase in pain during bowel movements?”
D. “ Does the pain begin in your flank progressing around to the groin?
C. “Do you have any increase in pain during bowel movements?”
35
After a surgery for a fractured hip, a client complains of pain. The nurse should:
A. Notify the physician
B. Use distraction technique
C. Medicate the client as ordered
D. Perform a complete pain assessment
D. Perform a complete pain assessment
36
A client is receiving morphine for severe metastatic bone pain. To prevent complication from a side effect of morphine, the nurse should:
A. Monitor for diarrhea
B. Observe for an opiate addiction
C. Wake the client every 2 hours
D. Assess for altered breathing patterns
D. Assess for altered breathing patterns
37
A client who has had a long leg cast applied is to be discharged. When discussing pain management, the nurse should advice the client to take the prescribed PRN Tylenol with codeine:
A. Just a last resort
B. Before going to sleep
C. When the discomfort begins
D. As the pain becomes intense
C. When the discomfort begins
38
The Physician orders a low dosage of an opioid to relieve the pain of a client with deep partial-thickness burns. The nurse recognizes that the preferred mode of administration is:
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
39
There is a preoperative order for midazolam (versed). For maximum effectiveness, the client's pre-anesthetic medication should be administered:
A. 2 hours before anesthesia
B. 15 minutes before anesthesia
C. 45 minutes before anesthesia
D. 5 minutes before anesthesia
C. 45 minutes before anesthesia
40
A client with rheumatoid arthritis calls the outpatient clinic to report that the pain lasts for 2-3 hours after exercise. The nurse's most appropriate initial response would be:
A. "Stop exercising for 24 hours."
B. "Increase the number of repetitions of each exercise."
C. "Limit progressive resistive exercise to 3x a day.”
D. 'Decrease the total times of repetitions of your exercises."
D. 'Decrease the total times of repetitions of your exercises."
41
The nurse is assigned to a client who has had surgery. Nalbuphine (Nubain) has been ordered for pain. After administering this medication, which side effects/ adverse reactions may the nurse expect to occur? Select all that apply.
A. Oliguria
B. Depression
C. Palpitations
D. Tachycardia
E. Constipation
F. Hypertension
G. Urinary retention
C. Palpitations
E. Constipation
42
After a Gastroscopy, the nurse should assess the client for the return of the gag reflex by
A. Touching the pharynx with a tongue depressor
B. Giving a small amount of water using a syringe
C. Observing for when a client gags and spit out airway
D. Instructing the client to breathe deeply
A. Touching the pharynx with a tongue depressor
43
A client is suspected of having a peptic ulcer. When obtaining a history from this client, the nurse should expect the reported pain to:
A. Intensity when the client vomits.
B. Occur 1-3 hours after meals
C. Increase when the client eats fatty foods
D. Begin in the epigastrium and radiate across the abdomen
B. Occur 1-3 hours after meals
44
Twenty minutes after the client has received a preoperative injection of atropine and midazolam (Versed), the client tells the nurse that he must be allergic to the medication because his mouth is dry and his heart seems to be beating faster than normal. What is the nurse's best first action?
A. Document the findings as the only action.
B. Check the client's pulse and blood pressure.
C. Prepare to administer epinephrine and diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
D. Explain to the client that these symptoms are normal responses to the medication.
B. Check the client's pulse and blood pressure.
45
One month after abdominal surgery a client is readmitted to the hospital with recurrent abdominal pain and fever. The diagnosis is fistula formation with peritonitis. The nurse should place the client in the;
A. Supine position
B. Right sim's position
C. Semi-fowler's position
D. Most comfortable position
C. Semi-fowler's position
46
The client who has received ketamine hydrochloride during a surgical procedure has all of the following manifestations and behaviors. Which one alerts the nurse to a dissociative reaction?
A. Hypoventilation and decreased oxygen saturation
B. Presence of hives on the skin around the IV site
C. Crying because the pain at the surgical site has increased
D. Pulling out the IV because he sees bugs in the solution bag
D. Pulling out the IV because he sees bugs in the solution bag
47
Which of the following is the antidote of opioid agents?
A. Narcan
B. Morphine
C. Versed
D. Ativan
A. Narcan
48
When a client with ureteral colic voids, it may be characterized by:
A. Urgency and pain
B. Hematuria with sharp pain
C. An excessive exercise program
D. Frequent consumption of alcohol
B. Hematuria with sharp pain
49
During the preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for a colon resection, the patient tells the nurse about using St. John's wort to prevent depression. The nurse should alert the staff in the post anesthesia recovery area that the patient may
A. have more postoperative bleeding than expected
B. take longer to recover from the anesthesia
C. have hypertensive episodes
D. experience increased pain
B. take longer to recover from the anesthesia
50
Which information about medication use in a preoperative patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A. The patient takes garlic capsules daily but did not take any on the surgical day.
B. The patient took a sedative medication the previous night to assist in falling asleep.
C. The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol) as needed for occasional aches and pains.
D. The patient has a history of cocaine use but quit using the drug over 10 years ago.
A. The patient takes garlic capsules daily but did not take any on the surgical day.
51
As the nurse is preparing a patient for surgery, the patient refuses to remove a wedding ring. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
• Explain that the hospital will not be responsible for the ring.
• Tape the ring securely to the finger.
• Insist the patient remove the ring.
• Note the presence of the ring in the nurse's notes of the chart.
• Explain that the hospital will not be responsible for the ring.
52
The focus of nursing activities in the preoperative phase is to
• Set up the sterile field in the operating room.
• Prepare the patient mentally and physically for surgery.
• Admit the patient to the surgical suite.
• Set up the sterile field in the operating room.
53
Surgical asepsis is a requirement in the restricted zone of the operating suite. What personal protective equipment should the nurse wear at all times in the restricted zone of the operating room?
• Mask covering the nose and mouth
• Reusable shoe covers
• Gloves
• Goggles
• Mask covering the nose and mouth
54
You are a circulating nurse in the day surgery center. You know that each patient has the potential for complications intraoperatively. What are these complications? (Select all that apply.)
• Hypothermia
• Anaphylaxis
• Nausea
• Malignant hypothermia
• Pain
• Hypothermia
• Anaphylaxis
• Nausea
55
You are preparing to take your patient into the operating room. As the circulating nurse, one of your responsibilities is to review the patient's record. What are you reviewing the record for?
• Progress notes
• History and physical
• Admission papers signed by patient
• Intake and output record
• History and physical
56
The preoperative phase encompasses which period of time?
• The decision to have surgery until admission to postanesthesia care
• The decision to have surgery until entry to the operating suite
• Entry to the operating suite until admission to postanesthesia care
• Entry into the operating suite until discharge from the hospital
• The decision to have surgery until entry to the operating suite
57
As a nurse, you know that one of the risks for a surgical patient is vomiting. What can aspirated vomitus lead to?
• hypothermia
• choking
• hypoxia
• hyperthermia
• hypoxia
58
Which of the following members of the operative team use sterile technique during the surgical procedure? Select all that apply.
• Surgeon
• Scrub nurse
• Anesthetist
• Assistant surgeon
• Surgeon
• Scrub nurse
• Assistant surgeon
59
The scrub nurse has donned her sterile gown and is ready for gloves. What should be done next?
• Pick up first glove by cuff and stretch over non-dominant gown cuff.
• Use non-dominant hand to open the sterile glove package.
• Pull hand out of the gown and open the glove package.
• Fold cuffs of glove over gown cuff.
• Pull hand out of the gown and open the glove package.
60
Which of the following events subjects the surgical patient to possible injury in the intraoperative phase of the surgical experience? (Select all that apply.)
• Loss of pain sense
• Ability to communicate
• Consciousness
• Normal vital signs
• Reflexes
• Loss of pain sense
• Ability to communicate
• Reflexes
61
When reviewing the preoperative forms, the nurse notices that the informed consent form is not present or signed. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
• Have the patient sign the consent form.
• Have the family sign the form for the patient.
• Call the surgeon to obtain consent for surgery.
• Teach the px about the surgery and get verbal permission.
• Call the surgeon to obtain consent for surgery.
62
The preoperative nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. Identify the interventions the nurse will perform. Select all that apply.
• Assist the patient to complete a living will.
• Prepare the surgical suite for the operation.
• Remove the patients dentures and contact lenses.
• Inform the family to wait in the surgical waiting room.
• Remove the patients dentures and contact lenses.
• Inform the family to wait in the surgical waiting room.
63
The physical environment of a surgery suite or operating room is designed primarily to promote SATA
• communication among the surgical team
• electrical safety
• medical and surgical asepsis
• comfort and privacy of the patient
• medical and surgical asepsis
• comfort and privacy of the patient
64
A 21-year-old patient is positioned on the OR bed prior to knee surgery. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic. What is the next step in the care of this patient?
• giving blood
• intubating
• hanging IV fluids
• grounding
• intubating
65
You note a colleague making an inappropriate remark about the patient's weight. The patient is unconscious at the time. What should you do?
• Realize humor is needed in the workplace
• Ignore the comment because the patient is unconscious
• Report the comment to the supervisor
• Discourage the comments
Discourage the comments
66
The primary goal of the circulating nurse during preparation of the operating room, transferring and positioning the patient, and assisting the anesthesia team is
• avoiding any type of injury to the patient.
• preventing breaks in aseptic technique by the sterile members of the team.
• maintaining a clean environment for the patient.
• providing for patient comfort and sense of well-being.
• avoiding any type of injury to the patient.
67
Which topic is most important for the nurse to discuss preoperatively with a patient who is scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy?
• Care for the surgical incision
• Medications used during surgery
• Oral antibiotic therapy after discharge home
• Deep breathing and coughing techniques
• Deep breathing and coughing techniques
68
Which of the following is most appropriate after administration of preoperative medications?
• Placing the patient in bed with the rails up
• Transporting the patient immediately to the operating room
• Monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes
• Confirming that the patient has voided
• Placing the patient in bed with the rails up
69
As an OR nurse, you have an increased awareness regarding asepsis. You know that a basic guideline for maintaining surgical asepsis is what?
Sterile supplies can be used on another patient if the packages are intact
• The scrub nurse may pour a sterile solution from a nonsterile bottle
• Sterile surfaces or articles may touch other sterile surfaces
• The outer lip of a sterile solution is considered sterile
• Sterile surfaces or articles may touch other sterile surfaces
70
The nursing student is preparing an elderly patient for surgery. The patient is scheduled for a general anesthetic. Which side effect should the nurse monitor the patient for?
• Hypothermia
• Cerebral ischemia
• Pulmonary edema
• Increased ability to resist stress
• Hypothermia
71
The nurse requests the client to sign a surgical informed consent form for an emergency appendectomy. Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is needed?
• "I can practice relaxing by listening to my favorite music."
• "I will not be able to eat or drink anything prior to my surgery."
• "I will need to get up and walk as soon as possible."
• "I will be glad when this is over so I can go home today."
• "I will be glad when this is over so I can go home today."
72
As an intraoperative nurse, you know that maintaining an aseptic environment in the operating room is essential. When moving around surgical areas, what distance must be kept from the sterile field?
• 2 feet
• 18 inches
• 1 foot
• 6 inches
• 1 foot
73
The focus of nursing care in the intraoperative phase is to
• Ensure patient safety during the surgery.
• Prepare the patient for surgery.
• Maintain the sterile field.
• Obtain a signed informed consent.
• Ensure patient safety during the surgery.
74
All of the members of the surgical team must perform a "surgical scrub" except which of the following?
• Surgeon
• Assistant to surgeon
• Scrub nurse
• Anesthetist/anesthesiologist
• Anesthetist/anesthesiologist
75
Which intraoperative nursing responsibilities should be performed by the scrub nurse (Select all that apply)?
• Documenting intraoperative care
• Performing the count of sponges, needles, and instruments used during the surgical procedure
• Passing instruments and supplies to the surgeon by anticipating his or her needs
• Keeping track of irrigation solutions for monitoring of blood loss
• Coordinating the flow and activities of members of the surgical team in the surgical suite
• Performing the count of sponges, needles, and instruments used during the surgical procedure
• Passing instruments and supplies to the surgeon by anticipating his or her needs
• Keeping track of irrigation solutions for monitoring of blood loss
76
You are the circulating nurse in an operating room that has several surgeries scheduled. You would know to monitor which patient during the intraoperative period because he or she is at increased risk for hypothermia?
• A 72-year-old woman
• A 17-year-old boy
• A 12-year-old girl
• A 45-year-old woman
• A 72-year-old woman
77
A nurse is caring for a patient following surgery under a spinal anesthetic. What interventions can the nurse implement to prevent a spinal headache?
• Have the patient sit in a chair
• Ambulate the patient
• Keep the patient lying flat
• Limit fluids
• Keep the patient lying flat
78
To prevent airway obstruction in the postoperative patient who is unconscious or semiconscious, the nurse
• positions the patient in a side-lying position.
• encourages deep breathing.
• administers oxygen per mask.
• elevates the head of the bed.
• positions the patient in a side-lying position.
79
What event in the surgical suite represents a violation of aseptic technique?
• A glove contacts the leg of the table that supports the sterile field.
• The sterile field was established at 6:20am, and the current time is 9:30am.
• The cuff of the scrub nurse's sterile gown contacts the sterile field.
• A glove contacts the leg of the table that supports the sterile field.
80
Who is responsible for accompanying the surgical client to the postanesthesia recovery area after surgery and for giving a report of the client's intraoperative experience to the PACU nurse?
• The anesthesiologist and circulating nurse
• The surgeon and circulating nurse
• The anesthesiologist and scrub nurse
• The surgeon and scrub nurse
• The anesthesiologist and circulating nurse
81
You are the circulating nurse in an outpatient surgery center. Your patient is scheduled to receive moderate sedation. You know that a patient receiving this form of anesthesia should what?
• Be able to maintain his or her own airway
• Remember most of the procedure
• Receive an anti-emetic
• Never be left unattended by the nurse
• Never be left unattended by the nurse
82
You are assigned as the circulating nurse. Which task are you solely responsible for?
• Keeping track of drains and sponges
• Monitoring the patient and documents
• Setting up the sterile tables.
• Estimating the patient's blood loss
• Monitoring the patient and documents
83
The patient's surgery is nearly finished. The surgeon has decided to use tissue adhesives to close the surgical wound. As the nurse, you know that this puts the patient at increased risk for what?
• anaphylaxis
• malignant hyperthermia
• infection
• hypothermia
• anaphylaxis
84
You are the circulating nurse in an outpatient surgery center. Your patient is scheduled to receive moderate sedation. You know that a patient receiving this form of anesthesia should what?
• Be able to maintain his or her own airway
• Remember most of the procedure
• Never be left unattended by the nurse
• Receive an anti-emetic
• Never be left unattended by the nurse
85
The surgical team in the operating room performs a surgical time-out just before starting hip replacement surgery for a 62-year-old woman. Which action would be part of the surgical time-out?
• Check the chart for for a signed consent form for the procedure.
• Determine if the px has questions about the procedure.
• Assess the px’s vital signs and oxygen saturation level.
• Have the px verify the procedure and location of surgery.
• Have the px verify the procedure and location of surgery.
86
What is the best rationale for intubation during a surgical procedure?
• The patient's heart rate can be monitored with the tube
• The tube provides an airway for ventilation
• The patient may receive an anti-emetic through the tube
• The tube protects the esophagus
• The tube provides an airway for ventilation
87
A break in sterile technique during surgery would occur when the scrub nurse touches
• the lower arms to the instruments on the instrument tray
• gloves hands to the gown at chest level
• the drape at the incision site with gloved hands
• the mask with gloved hands
• the mask with gloved hands
88
What would be the most effective way for a nurse to validate “informed consent”?
• Ask the family whether the patient the procedure.
• Check the chart for a completed and signed consent form.
• Ask the patient what he or she understands regarding the procedure.
• Determine from the physician what was discussed with the patient.
Ask the patient what he or she understands regarding the procedure.
89
A part of the intraoperative nurse’s role is being a patient advocate. What is an advocacy activity of the intraoperative nurse?
• Dehumanizing the patient
• Respecting the cultural values
• Checking the patient’s armband against his or her medical record
• Maintaining the patient’s privacy while he or she is awake.
• Checking the patient’s armband against his or her medical record
90
A patient name Modesta Talahiban, 69 y/o is scheduled for mastectomy, left and has a history of latex allergy. The precautions should the nurse take to ensure the patient's safety during the perioperative period is to
• Use latex gloves during patient care.
• Ensure that the surgical team wears latex gloves.
• Use latex-free supplies and equipment.
• Administer corticosteroids preoperatively.
• Use latex-free supplies and equipment.
91
Patient Hernan, 38 y/o is scheduled for surgery later in the day. Nurse Coracha performs a preoperative assessment and finds that the patient has not followed the fasting guidelines. Nurse Coracha most appropriate action is to
• Cancel the surgery immediately.
• Proceed with surgery as scheduled.
• Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist.
• Administer antacid medications to neutralize stomach acid.
• Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist.
92
A postoperative client receives a dinner tray with gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream. Based on the foods on the client's tray, what would the nurse anticipate the client's current diet order to be
• BLAND diet
• SOFT diet
• DIET AS TOLERATED
• FULL LIQUID diet
• FULL LIQUID diet
93
A 72-year-old woman who is scheduled for a hip replacement is taking several medications on a regular basis. Which drug category might create a surgical risk for this patient?
• anticoagulant
• antacids
• laxatives
• sedatives
• anticoagulant
94
A scrub nurse is assisting a surgeon with a kidney transplant. What are the patient responsibilities of the scrub nurse? Select all that apply.
• Maintaining sterile technique
• Draping and handling instruments and supplies
• Identifying and assessing the patient on admission
• Integrating case management
• Preparing the skin at the surgical site
• Providing exposure of the operative area
• Maintaining sterile technique
• Draping and handling instruments and supplies
95
Which of the following diagnostic test on a client's pre-surgery laboratory results would indicate a need to contact the surgeon?
• total cholesterol of 325 mg/dI
• platelet count with 250,000/cu.mm
• BUN 17 mg/dI
• Hgb 9.5 mg/dI
• Hgb 9.5 mg/dI
96
A patient is in the recovery unit following surgery. The nurse assesses the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation using the ABCs approach. The action should the nurse prioritize during this assessment is to
• Monitoring the patient's pain level.
• Checking the surgical incision site.
• Administering postoperative medications.
• Ensuring the patient has a patent airway.
• Ensuring the patient has a patent airway.
97
Which of the following factors ensure the validity of informed written consent, except
• The patient is of legal age with a proper mental disposition.
• If the patient is child, secure consent from the parents or legal guardian.
• The consent is secured before administration of preoperative medications.
• If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient.
• If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient.
98
The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day, and the patient is placed on a clear liquid diet. Four (4) hours later, the patient complains of sharp, cramping gas pains. What action by the nurse is the most appropriate?
• Reinsert the NG tube.
• Give the PRN IV opioid.
• Assist the patient to ambulate.
• Place the patient on NPO status.
A priority nursing intervention to assist a preop
• Assist the patient to ambulate.
99
A priority nursing intervention to assist a preoperative patient in coping with fear of post-op pain would be to
• Inform the patient that pain medication will be available.
• Teach the px to use guided imagery to help manage pain.
• Describe the type of pain expected with the patient's particular surgery.
• Explain the pain management plan, including the use of a pain rating scale.
• Explain the pain management plan, including the use of a pain rating scale.
100
When assessing a patient's surgical dressing on the first postoperative day, the nurse notes new, bright-red drainage about 5 cm in diameter. In response to this finding, what should the nurse do first?
• Recheck in 1 hour for increased drainage.
• Notify the surgeon of a potential hemorrhage.
• Assess the patient's blood pressure and heart rate.
• Remove the dressing and assess the surgical incision.
• Assess the patient's blood pressure and heart rate.
101
Proper attire for the semi restricted area of the Operating Room Department is
• street clothing
• surgical attire and head cover
• surgical attire, head cover, and mask
• street clothing with the addition of shoe covers
• surgical attire and head cover
102
Which of the following is most dangerous complication during induction of spinal anesthesia?
• tachycardia
• hypotension
• hypothermia
• bradycardia
• hypotension
103
The nurse is discussing the challenges when caring for a pediatric surgical client. Which is the biggest challenge that must be included?
• Reducing the risk of pneumonia
• Preventing skin tears
• Preventing hypothermia
• Reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism
• Preventing hypothermia
104
At Lorma Medical Center, a patient with a perforated gastric ulcer is scheduled for emergency surgery. The patient cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which of the following actions in the care of this client will
• Obtain a court order for the surgery.
• Send the client to surgery without the consent form being signed.
• Have the hospital chaplain sign the informed consent immediately.
• Obtain a telephone consent from the family member witnessed by two persons.
• Obtain a telephone consent from the family member witnessed by two persons.
105
What is the purpose of a surgical time-out in perioperative nursing?
• To monitor the patient's vital signs during surgery
• To administer anesthesia to the patient
• To assist the surgeon during the procedure
• To verify patient identity, surgical site, and procedure before surgery begins
• To verify patient identity, surgical site, and procedure before surgery begins
106
During the preoperative interview, a patient scheduled for an elective hysterectomy tells the nurse, I am afraid that I will die in surgery like my mother did! Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
• Tell me more about what happened to your mother.
• You will receive medications to reduce your anxiety.
• You should talk to the doctor again about the surgery.
• Surgical techniques have improved a lot in recent years.
• Tell me more about what happened to your mother.
107
An overweight patient is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy at an opd surgery setting. The nurse knows that
• surgery will involve multiple small incisions
• This setting is not appropriate for this procedure.
• This setting is not appropriate for this procedure.
• The patient will need special preparations because of obesity.
• surgery will involve multiple small incisions
108
A preoperative patient expresses anxiety to the nurse about the upcoming surgery. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most likely to stimulate further discussion between the client and the nurse?
• "If it's any help, everyone is nervous before surgery."
• "I will be happy to explain the entire surgical procedure to you."
• "Can you share with me what you've been told about your surgery?"
• "Let me tell you about the care you'll receive after surgery and the amount of pain you can anticipate."
• "Can you share with me what you've been told about your surgery?"
109
When performing a surgical dressing change of a client's abdominal dressing, a nurse notes an increase in the amount of drainage and separation of the incision line. The underlying tissue is visible to the nurse. The nurse should plan to do which of the following in the initial care of this wound?
• Leave the incision open to the air to dry the area.
• Apply a povidone-iodine-soaked sterile dressing.
• Irrigate the wound and apply a dry sterile dressing.
• Apply a sterile dressing soaked with normal saline.
• Apply a sterile dressing soaked with normal saline.
110
On the day of surgery, the nurse is admitting a patient with a history of cigarette smoking. Which action ismost important at this time?
• Auscultate for adventitious breath sounds.
• Ask whether the patient has smoked recently.
• Remind the patient about harmful effects of smoking.
• Calculate the cigarette smoking history in pack-years.
• Auscultate for adventitious breath sounds.
111
In the recovery room, the postoperative client suddenly becomes cyanotic. The nurse most appropriate nursing action will be
• Call for assistance.
• Start administration of oxygen through nasal cannula.
• Insert and oral airway and suction the nasopharynx.
• Reposition the head and determine patency of the airway.
• Reposition the head and determine patency of the airway.
112
The patient had undergone a thyroidectomy under the service of Dr. Rigor done at Lorma Medical Center. Nurse Tina Muran assigned to patient, which of the following are the earliest signs of poor tissue perfusion and poor respiratory function should alert
her to observe?
• cyanosis and lethargy
• faintness and pallor
• fast, thready pulse, and bradycardia
• apprehension and restlessness
• apprehension and restlessness
113
Bronchial obstruction by retained secretions has contributed to a postoperative patient's recent pulse oximetry reading of 87%. Which health problem is the patient probably experiencing?
• lung collapse
• bronchospasm
• hypoventilation
• pulmonary embolism
• lung collapse
114
The patient tells the nurse in the preoperative setting that she has noticed that she has a reaction when wearing rubber gloves. What is the MOST appropriate intervention?
• Notify the surgeon so that the case can be cancelled.
• Ask additional questions to asses for a possible latex allergy.
• Notify the OR staff immediately so that latex-free supplies can be used.
• No intervention is needed because the patient’s rubber sensitivity has no bearing on surgery.
• Ask additional questions to asses for a possible latex allergy.
115
1. Somatic pain arises from the skin.
2. Somatic pain is towards the surface of the skin or body.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
C. Both statements are true.
116
1. Chronic pain is always associated with a specific cause.
2. Chronic pain is responsive to conventional treatment.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
D. Both statements are false.
117
1. Neuralgia is an acute pain.
2. Psychogenic pain is a chronic pain.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
118
1. Phantom pain is a chronic pain.
2. Pain threshold is the amount of pain a person can endure.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
119
1. Pain tolerance is the point at which a stimulus is experienced as pain.
2. Pain tolerance is increased (or decreased) by repeated pain episodes.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
D. Both statements are false.
120
1. Tricyclic antidepressants prevent serotonin and inhibit pain.
2. Morphine acts within the CNS.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
121
1. Morphine is given for severe pain.
2. Acetaminophen is a non-narcotic analgesic.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
C. Both statements are true.
122
1. Ibuprofen interferes with prostaglandin synthesis.
2. Biofeedback is a complementary therapy for pain.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
C. Both statements are true.
123
1. Guided imagery is a form of hypnotism.
2. Dilated pupil is a physiologic response to acute pain.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
D. Both statements are false.
124
1. Muscle tension is a physiologic response.
2. Phantom limb pain is a common chronic pain syndrome.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
C. Both statements are true.
125
1. Fibromyalgia is an acute disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain.
2. Motrin is an NSAID for mild pain.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
126
1. Celecoxib is an opioid analgesic.
2. Morphine is a non-opioid analgesic for severe pain.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
D. Both statements are false.
127
1. Tramadol is an opioid analgesic.
2. ASA (Aspirin) is a non-opioid analgesic.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
C. Both statements are true.
128
1. Acute pain is also known as persistent pain.
2. Neuropathic pain is related to damaged nervous system.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
129
What is the primary use of acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
A. Treating inflammation
B. Relieving mild to moderate pain and reducing fever
C. Reducing blood pressure
D. Treating infections
B. Relieving mild to moderate pain and reducing fever
130
Which of the following is a potential side effect of long-term use of acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
A. Liver damage
B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
C. Kidney failure
D. Heart failure
A. Liver damage
131
What is the main mechanism of action of acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)?
A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX), reducing pain and inflammation
B. Blocking opioid receptors
C. Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
D. Increasing blood flow to affected areas
A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX), reducing pain and inflammation
132
Which of the following conditions is aspirin commonly used to prevent?
A. Stroke
B. Asthma
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Chronic back pain
A. Stroke
133
Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) is commonly used to treat:
A. Mild to moderate pain, fever, and inflammation
B. Severe acute pain
C. Nerve pain
D. Infections
A. Mild to moderate pain, fever, and inflammation
134
Which of the following is a potential side effect of ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)?
A. Gastric ulcers
B. Decreased liver function
C. Decreased kidney function
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
135
Indomethacin (Indocin) is commonly used to treat:
A. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
B. Acute migraine attacks
C. Chronic pain from nerve damage
D. Anxiety and stress
A. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
136
What is a key side effect to monitor when using indomethacin (Indocin)?
A. Gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding
B. Weight gain
C. Excessive sedation
D. Hair loss
A. Gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding
137
Ketorolac (Toradol) is typically used for:
A. Short-term treatment of moderate to severe pain
B. Long-term chronic pain management
C. Treating infections
D. Lowering blood pressure
A. Short-term treatment of moderate to severe pain
138
Which of the following is a major risk of using ketorolac (Toradol)?
A. Kidney damage
B. Increased heart rate
C. Respiratory depression
D. Insomnia
A. Kidney damage
139
Piroxicam (Feldene) is used for treating:
A. Pain and inflammation in osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
B. Acute migraine attacks
C. Fever and infection
D. Severe pain from cancer
A. Pain and inflammation in osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
140
Which of the following side effects is commonly associated with piroxicam (Feldene)?
A. Gastric ulcers
B. Drowsiness
C. Weight loss
D. Skin rash
A. Gastric ulcers
141
Meloxicam (Mobic) is most commonly prescribed for:
A. Pain and inflammation in osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
B. Muscle pain from strains and sprains
C. Mild headache
D. Post-operative pain
A. Pain and inflammation in osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
142
Meloxicam (Mobic) is considered a:
A. COX-2 selective NSAID
B. Non-selective NSAID
C. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with opioid properties
D. None of the above
A. COX-2 selective NSAID
143
Celecoxib (Celebrex) is different from other NSAIDs because it:
A. Selectively inhibits COX-2, reducing pain and inflammation with fewer gastrointestinal side effects
B. Blocks both COX-1 and COX-2
C. Is used to treat severe nerve pain
D. Is a corticosteroid
A. Selectively inhibits COX-2, reducing pain and inflammation with fewer gastrointestinal side effects
144
Which of the following is a possible side effect of celecoxib (Celebrex)?
A. Heart attack or stroke
B. Dizziness
C. Diarrhea
D. Hair loss
A. Heart attack or stroke
145
Codeine is commonly used to treat:
A. Severe pain
B. Mild to moderate pain and cough
C. Infections
D. Inflammation
B. Mild to moderate pain and cough
146
Which of the following is a common side effect of codeine?
A. Drowsiness and constipation
B. Diarrhea and increased appetite
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Increased blood pressure
A. Drowsiness and constipation
147
Tramadol is a unique opioid analgesic because it also:
A. Acts on serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain
B. Increases blood flow to the affected area
C. Is used for severe pain management
D. Has no side effects
A. Acts on serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain
148
Which of the following is a key precaution when using tramadol?
A. It should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures
B. It can be used for any level of pain without side effects
C. It can be combined with any other opioid without increasing risk
D. It is completely safe for long-term use
A. It should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures
149
Pentazocine is classified as a:
A. Pure opioid agonist
B. Mixed opioid agonist-antagonist
C. Non-opioid analgesic
D. Local anesthetic
B. Mixed opioid agonist-antagonist
150
Which of the following is a potential side effect of pentazocine?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Sedation and dizziness
D. Constipation
C. Sedation and dizziness
151
Hydrocodone is often prescribed for:
A. Severe pain and chronic back pain
B. Moderate pain and cough suppression
C. Mild headaches
D. Fever reduction
B. Moderate pain and cough suppression
152
What is a common combination of hydrocodone used in pain management?
A. Hydrocodone and acetaminophen
B. Hydrocodone and ibuprofen
C. Hydrocodone and aspirin
D. Hydrocodone and ketorolac
A. Hydrocodone and acetaminophen
153
Fentanyl citrate is commonly used to treat:
A. Chronic headaches
B. Severe pain, particularly in patients with cancer or those undergoing surgery
C. Mild to moderate pain
D. Fever and inflammation
B. Severe pain, particularly in patients with cancer or those undergoing surgery
154
Which of the following is a key precaution when using fentanyl citrate?
A. It can cause respiratory depression and should be monitored closely
B. It is safe for long-term use without any monitoring
C. It can be given orally for severe pain
D. It has no risk of addiction
A. It can cause respiratory depression and should be monitored closely
155
Hydromorphone is often used to treat:
A. Severe pain that cannot be managed with non-opioid analgesics
B. Chronic back pain
C. Mild to moderate pain
D. Migraines
A. Severe pain that cannot be managed with non-opioid analgesics
156
Which of the following is a common side effect of hydromorphone?
A. Nausea, constipation, and respiratory depression
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Diarrhea
D. Skin rash
A. Nausea, constipation, and respiratory depression
157
Oxycodone is commonly used for:
A. Chronic pain and cancer-related pain
B. Mild pain management
C. Headaches and migraines
D. Fever reduction
A. Chronic pain and cancer-related pain
158
What is a common combination of oxycodone for pain management?
A. Oxycodone and acetaminophen
B. Oxycodone and aspirin
C. Oxycodone and ibuprofen
D. Oxycodone and ketorolac
A. Oxycodone and acetaminophen
159
Morphine sulfate is primarily used to treat:
A. Moderate pain
B. Severe pain, especially post-surgical or cancer pain
C. Fever and inflammation
D. Nerve pain
B. Severe pain, especially post-surgical or cancer pain
160
What is a major concern when administering morphine sulfate?
A. Risk of overdose and respiratory depression
B. Risk of dehydration
C. Risk of high blood pressure
D. Risk of allergic reactions
A. Risk of overdose and respiratory depression
161
Oxymorphone is a potent opioid analgesic used for:
A. Mild to moderate pain
B. Severe pain, particularly in opioid-tolerant patients
C. Inflammation
D. Cough suppression
B. Severe pain, particularly in opioid-tolerant patients
162
Which of the following is a key side effect of oxymorphone?
A. Severe nausea, dizziness, and constipation
B. Respiratory stimulation
C. Increased energy
D. Insomnia
A. Severe nausea, dizziness, and constipation
163
Methadone is primarily used for:
A. Long-term pain management and opioid addiction treatment
B. Acute pain from injury or surgery
C. Mild pain and fever
D. Migraine relief
A. Long-term pain management and opioid addiction treatment
164
Which of the following is a key precaution when using methadone?
A. It has a long half-life and requires careful monitoring to avoid overdose
B. It can be combined with other opioids without risk of side effects
C. It has no effect on the respiratory system
D. It is safe to use during pregnancy
A. It has a long half-life and requires careful monitoring to avoid overdose
165
Tricyclic antidepressants are used as coanalgesics primarily for:
A. Treating depression only
B. Chronic pain, particularly neuropathic pain
C. Acute pain from surgery
D. Fever reduction
B. Chronic pain, particularly neuropathic pain
166
Which of the following is a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants when used for pain management?
A. Sedation, dry mouth, and constipation
B. Weight loss and insomnia
C. Increased energy and focus
D. High blood pressure
A. Sedation, dry mouth, and constipation
167
Anticonvulsants, such as gabapentin, are used as coanalgesics for:
A. Inflammatory pain
B. Neuropathic pain and certain types of chronic pain
C. Acute postoperative pain
D. Pain related to muscle spasms
B. Neuropathic pain and certain types of chronic pain
168
What is a common side effect of anticonvulsants when used for pain management?
A. Drowsiness and dizziness
B. Increased appetite
C. Diarrhea
D. Hyperactivity
A. Drowsiness and dizziness
169
Topical local anesthetics are commonly used for pain management in:
A. Acute surgical pain only
B. Superficial pain, including burns, insect bites, or minor injuries
C. Chronic joint pain
D. Severe, deep tissue pain
B. Superficial pain, including burns, insect bites, or minor injuries
170
Which of the following is a common topical local anesthetic used for pain relief?
A. Lidocaine
B. Codeine
C. Acetaminophen
D. Fentanyl
A. Lidocaine
171
Which of the following are considered nonopioid analgesics commonly used for pain and inflammation management? (Select all that apply)
A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B. Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin)
C. Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
D. Indomethacin Sodium Trihydrate (Indocin)
E. Ketorolac (Toradol)
F. Piroxicam (Feldene)
G. Meloxicam (Mobic)
H. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
I. Fentanyl Citrate
J. Oxycodone
A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B. Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin)
C. Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
D. Indomethacin Sodium Trihydrate (Indocin)
E. Ketorolac (Toradol)
F. Piroxicam (Feldene)
G. Meloxicam (Mobic)
H. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
172
Which of the following are considered opioid analgesics for moderate pain? (Select all that apply)
A. Codeine
B. Tramadol
C. Pentazocine
D. Hydrocodone
E. Fentanyl Citrate
F. Oxycodone
G. Methadone
H. Morphine Sulfate
A. Codeine
B. Tramadol
C. Pentazocine
D. Hydrocodone
173
Which of the following are considered opioid analgesics for severe pain? (Select all that apply)
A. Fentanyl Citrate
B. Hydromorphone
C. Oxycodone
D. Morphine Sulfate
E. Oxymorphone
F. Methadone
A. Fentanyl Citrate
B. Hydromorphone
C. Oxycodone
D. Morphine Sulfate
E. Oxymorphone
F. Methadone
174
Which of the following are considered coanalgesics commonly used to enhance pain management? (Select all that apply)
A. Tricyclic Antidepressants
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Topical Local Anesthetics
D. Fentanyl Citrate
E. Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
F. Hydrocodone
G. Oxycodone
H. Morphine Sulfate
A. Tricyclic Antidepressants
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Topical Local Anesthetics
