CAKA: CPL aeronautical knowledge – aeroplane Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

What is the difference between fixed pitch and variable pitch propellers?

A

Fixed pitch propellers have a fixed blade angle, while variable pitch propellers allow blade angle adjustment for optimal efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does engine operation at high manifold pressure (MP) and low RPM affect performance?

A

It increases torque and engine stress but can improve fuel efficiency and reduce noise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does engine operation at low MP and high RPM affect performance?

A

It increases wear and fuel consumption and may cause inefficient combustion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between normally aspirated and turbocharged/supercharged engines?

A

Turbocharged/supercharged engines compress intake air for better performance at high altitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does centrifugal twisting moment (CTM) do when oil pressure is lost in a variable pitch propeller?

A

CTM tends to reduce blade pitch (move it toward fine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the role of counterweights in a variable pitch propeller?

A

They increase blade pitch (toward coarse) when oil pressure is lost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does oil pressure affect blade pitch when counterweights are used?

A

Oil pressure decreases blade pitch (moves it toward fine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does oil pressure affect blade pitch if no counterweights are used?

A

Oil pressure increases blade pitch (moves it toward coarse).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is blade angle?

A

The angle between the chord line of the propeller blade and the plane of rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is helix angle or pitch?

A

The angle between the relative airflow and the blade’s rotational path.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is propeller thrust?

A

The forward force produced by the propeller as it accelerates air backwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is propeller torque?

A

The resistance to rotation caused by aerodynamic drag on the blades.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is thrust horsepower (THP)?

A

The power delivered by the propeller to produce thrust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is brake horsepower (BHP)?

A

The engine’s output before losses from the propeller or other components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is asymmetric blade effect (P-factor)?

A

A yawing moment due to the descending blade producing more thrust than the ascending blade at high angles of attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does a propeller convert engine power into thrust?

A

By accelerating air rearward, creating a forward reaction force (thrust).

17
Q

What is meant by fine and coarse pitch stops?

A

Mechanical limits that prevent the blades from rotating beyond a certain fine or coarse angle.

18
Q

What is the principle of operation of a constant speed unit (CSU)?

A

Automatically adjusts blade pitch to maintain a constant RPM by balancing engine power and propeller load.

19
Q

What happens if a CSU malfunctions?

A

The engine may overspeed or underspeed due to loss of RPM regulation.

20
Q

How do you manage a CSU malfunction using engine controls?

A

Use throttle and RPM levers to manually control power and propeller speed as best as possible.

21
Q

What cockpit indication could signify engine icing in a variable pitch propeller aircraft?

A

A drop in RPM or manifold pressure without throttle movement.

22
Q

How do you know when engine ice has been cleared after applying carb heat?

A

RPM or manifold pressure returns to normal levels.

23
Q

What is the effect of using carburettor heat in an aircraft with a CSU?

A

Initially causes a drop in MP or RPM, followed by a rise as ice melts

24
Q

How is power output controlled in a variable pitch propeller aircraft?

A

Throttle controls manifold pressure (power), and propeller lever controls RPM.

25
How are engine instruments used to monitor power in a variable pitch propeller aircraft?
Manifold pressure gauge and tachometer (RPM) are used together to set and monitor engine power.
26
What precautions are necessary during ground checks with a variable pitch propeller?
| Prop control position | Full forward before start | Warm-up before cycling | oil temp >100°F/38°C | | Propeller cycling | 2–3 times max, at 1800–2000 RPM | Area safety | Clear of people and objects | | Engine instruments | Monitor RPM, oil pressure/temp | Reaction to issues | Abort and report if abnormal behavior observed
27
What precautions should be taken when changing power with a variable pitch propeller?
Coordinate throttle and RPM lever movements to avoid overstressing the engine or propeller system.
28
What is the purpose of oleos or shock struts in the undercarriage?
To absorb landing loads and provide cushioning during taxiing and landing.
29
What is the function of shimmy dampers?
Prevent nose wheel vibration during taxi and takeoff/landing roll.
30
What is the purpose of nose wheel steering or castering?
Allows the pilot to steer the aircraft on the ground using rudder pedals or differential braking.
31
What is the purpose of uplocks in a retractable undercarriage system?
To hold the landing gear securely in the up (retracted) position during flight.
32
What is the function of downlocks in a retractable undercarriage system?
To secure the landing gear in the down position and prevent collapse during landing and taxi.
33
What is the role of anti-retraction devices?
To prevent the gear from retracting while the aircraft is on the ground or during unsafe conditions.
34
What are aural and visual warning devices used for in undercarriage systems?
To alert the pilot if the landing gear is not properly configured for landing.
35
What is the purpose of emergency systems in a retractable undercarriage?
To provide a backup method for extending the gear if the primary system fails.
36
What is the function of the free fall system in undercarriage operation?
Allows the gear to drop and lock into position using gravity and/or springs when hydraulic or electric power fails.
37
What types of systems can operate retractable landing gear?
Electric, hydraulic, or pneumatic systems, depending on aircraft design.