CAKC: CPL aeronautical knowledge – all aircraft categories Flashcards
(158 cards)
1
Q
What is the purpose and principle of operation of the idling jet in a simple carburettor?
A
To supply fuel when the engine is idling; it bypasses the Venturi to deliver fuel using intake manifold vacuum.
The idling jet ensures a proper fuel-air mixture at low engine speeds.
2
Q
What is the purpose and principle of operation of the main jet in a simple carburettor?
A
To supply fuel at medium to high engine speeds using Venturi-induced vacuum for mixing with incoming air.
The main jet is crucial for performance during standard driving conditions.
3
Q
What is the purpose and principle of operation of the acceleration jet in a simple carburettor?
A
To inject extra fuel during rapid throttle opening, preventing hesitation by enriching the mixture.
This feature enhances responsiveness during acceleration.
4
Q
What precautions should be taken to avoid detonation in a supercharged engine?
A
Use proper fuel grade, avoid excessive manifold pressure, control engine temperature, and manage mixture settings appropriately.
These measures help maintain engine integrity and performance.
5
Q
What is the purpose of supercharging?
A
To increase engine power by forcing more air into the cylinders especially at lower air pressure.
Supercharging allows for more fuel combustion, enhancing power output.
6
Q
What are the types of superchargers?
A
- Geared (mechanically driven)
- Turbo (exhaust driven)
Each type has its own advantages and operational principles.
7
Q
What is the function of a geared supercharger?
A
Mechanically compresses air using engine power to increase intake pressure.
This type of supercharger is directly connected to the engine’s crankshaft.
8
Q
What is the function of an impeller in a supercharger?
A
Rotating component that increases air velocity before compression.
The impeller is key to the supercharger’s ability to force air into the engine.
9
Q
What is the function of a diffuser in a supercharger?
A
Slows down and compresses air after impeller acceleration.
This process helps optimize the air’s pressure before it enters the engine.
10
Q
What is the purpose of a turbocharger compressor?
A
Draws in and compresses ambient air using exhaust-driven turbine.
The turbocharger enhances engine efficiency by recycling exhaust gases.
11
Q
What is the purpose of a turbocharger waste gate?
A
Controls exhaust flow to the turbine to regulate boost pressure.
Waste gates can be fixed, manual, or automatic, affecting performance and efficiency.
12
Q
What is the function of an auxiliary/booster pump?
A
To provide fuel pressure during engine start and backup during flight.
13
Q
What is the function of a fuel drain?
A
To allow removal of contaminants (e.g. water) from the fuel system.
14
Q
What is the function of a fuel pressure gauge?
A
To indicate fuel pressure in the delivery system to ensure proper engine operation.
15
Q
What is the function of a fuel flow gauge?
A
To measure and display the rate of fuel consumption.
16
Q
What is the function of check valves in a fuel system?
A
To prevent backflow and ensure one-way fuel movement.
17
Q
What is the function of a by-pass valve in the lubrication system?
A
To allow oil to bypass the cooler or filter if blocked or during cold starts.
18
Q
What is the function of an oil cooler?
A
To reduce the temperature of engine oil to maintain optimal viscosity.
19
Q
What is the wet sump system?
A
A system where oil is stored in the engine crankcase and circulated by a pump.
20
Q
What is the function of a dip stick?
A
To measure the oil level in the engine.
21
Q
What is the function of an alternator/generator?
A
To generate electrical power for the aircraft systems.
22
Q
What is the function of a voltage regulator/overvoltage relay?
A
To control voltage output and protect the system from overvoltage.
23
Q
What is the function of an ammeter/voltmeter?
A
To monitor current and voltage levels in the electrical system.
24
Q
What is the purpose of circuit breakers/fuses?
A
To protect electrical circuits from overload.
25
What does battery ampere hours indicate?
The storage capacity of a battery (how much current it can supply over time).
26
What is the function of a bus bar/battery master switch?
To distribute electrical power and control the connection of the battery.
27
What is the function of the starter motor/starter relay?
To engage the engine for starting using electrical power.
28
What is the purpose of a dual ignition/distributor ignition switch?
To allow control of both magnetos for redundancy and reliability.
29
What is the function of an external power receptacle and ground/flight switch?
To allow external power connection and switch control based on mode of operation.
30
What is the function of an accumulator in a hydraulic system?
To store pressure and dampen pulsations in the system.
31
What is the function of actuators in a hydraulic system?
To convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical motion.
32
What is the function of check valve restrictors?
To control the flow direction and rate in hydraulic lines.
33
What is the function of overheat detectors (thermal switches)?
To detect excessive heat in an area and trigger warnings.
34
What is the function of a rate of temperature rise detector (thermocouple)?
To sense rapid increases in temperature, indicating fire.
35
What is the function of a flame detector?
To detect the presence of flames using optical sensors.
36
What are typical fire warning indicators?
Visual (lights) and audio alerts.
37
What are the types and uses of fire extinguishers in aircraft?
CO₂, Halon, dry powder — used depending on fire class (electrical, fuel, etc.).
38
What is the function of fins in engine cooling?
To increase surface area for better heat dissipation.
39
What is the function of baffles?
To direct airflow around the engine for efficient cooling.
40
What is the purpose of cowl flaps?
To control the exit of cooling air and manage engine temperature.
41
What is the function of uplocks and downlocks in a retractable undercarriage system?
Uplocks secure the gear in the retracted position; downlocks secure it in the extended position to prevent unintended movement.
42
What is the purpose of anti-retraction devices?
To prevent the landing gear from retracting while the aircraft is on the ground or during certain flight conditions.
43
What is the function of aural and visual warning devices in the undercarriage system?
To alert the pilot if the landing gear is not in the correct position for landing or takeoff.
44
What is the purpose of emergency systems in retractable landing gear?
To allow manual or alternate extension of the gear in case of primary system failure.
45
What is meant by ‘free fall’ in the context of landing gear?
A backup method that allows the landing gear to drop into place using gravity if hydraulic or electrical systems fail.
46
What are the typical methods of landing gear actuation?
Electric, hydraulic, and pneumatic systems are commonly used to raise and lower the landing gear.
47
What is the function of an auxiliary/booster fuel pump?
Provides fuel pressure for engine start and acts as a backup; pilots must avoid prolonged use if not required, as it may overpower the primary system.
48
What is the function of a fuel drain?
To remove water and contaminants; pilots should regularly check to avoid fuel contamination.
49
What does the fuel pressure gauge indicate?
Fuel pressure in the delivery system; abnormal readings may indicate blockages or pump failure.
50
What does the fuel flow gauge measure?
The rate of fuel consumption; excessive flow may indicate a leak or improper mixture setting.
51
What is the role of check valves in the fuel system?
Prevents reverse flow of fuel; failure could result in fuel starvation or backpressure issues.
52
What is the purpose of bypass valves in the lubrication system?
Allows oil to bypass the cooler or filter if blocked; misuse or poor maintenance can lead to engine damage.
53
What is the function of an oil cooler?
Keeps oil at an optimal temperature; failure or blockage can cause overheating.
54
How does a wet sump system work?
Stores oil in the engine crankcase; simple but sensitive to attitude and g-forces.
55
What is the purpose of a dip stick?
To manually check oil levels; incorrect reading can lead to over/under-filling.
56
What is the function of a stall warning device?
Alerts the pilot of an impending aerodynamic stall; pilots must not ignore these warnings, especially during approach or climb.
57
What is the function of an alternator/generator?
Provides electrical power; overloading the system can cause failure or disconnection.
58
What does a voltage regulator/overvoltage relay do?
Maintains voltage within limits; failure may lead to system damage or battery drain.
59
What does the ammeter/voltmeter display?
Ammeter shows current; voltmeter shows system voltage. Abnormal readings warn of electrical issues.
60
What is the function of circuit breakers/fuses?
Protects circuits from overload; resetting without finding the fault can lead to fire risk.
61
What does battery ampere hour rating represent?
Battery capacity; critical for emergency operations if the alternator fails.
62
What is the purpose of a bus bar and battery master switch?
Distributes power and isolates battery; misuse can cut power to vital systems.
63
What is the function of the starter motor and starter relay?
Starts the engine using electrical power; continuous engagement can damage components.
64
What is the role of the dual ignition/distributor ignition switch?
Controls both magnetos; pilots must ensure both systems are checked for redundancy.
65
What is the external power receptacle and ground/flight switch used for?
Connects external power; pilots must confirm proper configuration to prevent system damage.
66
What is the function of an accumulator in a hydraulic system?
Stores hydraulic pressure, dampens pressure surges, and maintains system pressure during pump lag.
67
What is the role of actuators in a hydraulic system?
Convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical movement to operate systems like gear or brakes.
68
What does the brake master cylinder do?
Converts pilot physical force into hydraulic pressure for brake application.
69
What is the function of check valve restrictors in hydraulic systems?
Ensure one-way flow and control the rate of fluid movement, helping to prevent sudden or jerky operations.
70
What do roll, attitude, heading, and pitch controls do in an autopilot system?
Allow the autopilot to control aircraft movement about all axes, maintaining desired flight parameters.
71
What is the function of a trim indicator in autopilot systems?
Shows trim position adjustments made by autopilot
72
What is the purpose of autopilot cut-out mechanisms?
Allow manual override or disengagement in case of malfunction or manual control requirement.
73
What is the function of overheat detectors (thermal switches)?
Detect excessive temperature and trigger a warning.
74
What is the function of rate-of-temperature-rise detectors (thermocouples)?
Detect rapid increases in temperature, indicating possible fire.
75
What is the purpose of flame detectors?
Use optical sensors to detect visible or infrared light from flames.
76
What types of fire protection warning devices are used in aircraft?
Visual (lights) and audio alarms to alert pilots to fire conditions.
77
What are the common types of fire extinguishers used in aircraft and their uses?
CO₂: Electrical and flammable liquid fires, Halon: General aircraft fires, leaves no residue, and Dry powder: For Class A, B, and C fires, less common in cockpits due to residue
78
What is the purpose of engine cooling fins?
Increase surface area to dissipate heat from the engine.
79
What is the function of baffles in engine cooling?
Direct airflow to ensure even cooling across engine surfaces.
80
What is the role of cowl flaps in engine cooling?
Regulate cooling airflow through the engine cowling to control temperature.
81
What is Indicated Airspeed (IAS)?
The airspeed read directly from the airspeed indicator, uncorrected for any system errors.
82
What is Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?
IAS corrected for instrument and position errors.
83
What is True Airspeed (TAS)?
CAS corrected for altitude and temperature, representing the actual speed through the air.
84
What is Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)?
CAS corrected for compressibility effects at higher speeds or altitudes.
85
What is the basic principle of the Airspeed Indicator (ASI)?
Measures the difference between static and pitot pressure to determine airspeed.
86
How does the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) work?
Measures the rate of change of static pressure to indicate climb or descent rate.
87
What does the altimeter do and how does it work?
Uses static pressure to determine altitude
88
What is the function of an artificial horizon (attitude indicator)?
Shows pitch and bank attitude using a gyroscope aligned with the horizon.
89
What is the direction indicator (DI) and how does it work?
A gyro instrument that maintains a stable directional reference
90
What is the purpose of a rate of turn indicator?
Indicates the rate of turn using a gyro and shows if the turn is coordinated.
91
What does a turn coordinator show?
Provides turn rate and roll rate information using a canted gyro.
92
What can cause errors in the ASI?
Blockages or leaks in the pitot/static system, and manoeuvres like sharp pull-outs from dives.
93
What affects VSI accuracy?
Static source blockage and inherent lag in pressure change response.
94
What is the advantage of an IVSI (Instantaneous VSI)?
It compensates for lag and provides more immediate readings.
95
What factors can affect altimeter accuracy?
Static source blockage, Lag in response, Incorrect subscale settings, and Atmospheric pressure and temperature changes
96
What are the two key properties of gyroscopes used in flight instruments?
Rigidity in space and precession.
97
What is rigidity in a gyroscope?
The ability of a spinning gyroscope to remain in a fixed orientation in space.
98
What is precession in a gyroscope?
The tilting or turning of the gyro axis in response to an applied force.
99
What are the advantages of air-driven gyroscopes?
Lightweight and independent of electrical systems.
100
What are the disadvantages of air-driven gyroscopes?
Susceptible to performance issues at low RPMs or during vacuum failure.
101
What are the advantages of electrically driven gyroscopes?
Reliable at all altitudes and not dependent on vacuum systems.
102
What are the disadvantages of electrically driven gyroscopes?
Heavier and dependent on electrical power.
103
What is apparent wander or drift in a directional indicator?
The slow change in heading indication due to Earth's rotation.
104
Where is apparent wander greatest and smallest?
Greatest at the poles, zero at the equator.
105
What is transport wander in a directional indicator?
Drift caused by the aircraft's movement over the curved surface of the Earth.
106
What is the advantage of a directional indicator fitted with a flux valve?
Automatically aligns with magnetic north, reducing drift errors.
107
What is the principle of construction of a magnetic compass?
A magnetized needle or card aligns with the Earth's magnetic field inside a fluid-filled housing.
108
How do compass needles point to magnetic north?
They align themselves with Earth's horizontal magnetic field lines.
109
Why is fluid used in a magnetic compass?
To dampen oscillations and reduce friction for smoother needle movement.
110
Why should there be no air bubbles in the compass chamber?
Air bubbles can cause inaccurate readings and hinder needle movement.
111
What is pendulosity in a magnetic compass?
A design feature that keeps the compass card level in turns and pitch changes.
112
How does pendulosity cause compass errors?
It can lead to turning and acceleration/deceleration errors due to the tilted motion of the card.
113
What is the phonetic alphabet used for in aviation?
To ensure clarity and avoid confusion when spelling out words over the radio.
114
How are numerals transmitted over aeronautical radio?
Each digit is pronounced separately and clearly, using standard ICAO pronunciation.
115
What is the correct use of aircraft call-signs?
State the full call-sign initially, then abbreviate as permitted by ATC.
116
What are the standard radio procedures for operating outside controlled airspace (OCTA)?
Use appropriate frequencies, give position reports, and maintain listening watch.
117
How is time transmitted in radio communication?
In four digits UTC (e.g., "one two three zero Zulu" for 12:30 UTC).
118
What does it mean to listen to the radio properly?
Monitor the frequency, avoid interrupting, and ensure the frequency is clear before transmitting.
119
How do you establish and maintain communication on the radio?
Use standard calls, wait for acknowledgement, and follow up with concise, clear messages.
120
What are the hazards of clipped transmissions?
They may cause loss of critical information and lead to misunderstandings.
121
What is the consequence of clipped transmissions?
Miscommunication that can compromise flight safety.
122
What is the correct procedure for a pre-flight radio check?
Turn on the radio, select the correct frequency, transmit a test message, and confirm reception.
123
How is the transmit and receive selector switch used?
To choose which radio and frequency to use for sending and receiving communications.
124
What is the function of the squelch control?
Eliminates background noise when no transmission is being received.
125
How do you select radio navigation equipment?
Use the audio panel or frequency selector to tune into navigation aids.
126
What is the correct use of a microphone?
Hold close to the lips, press to speak, release to listen, and speak clearly.
127
What is the use of the intercom and public address system?
Allows communication between crew and passengers or crew-to-crew internally.
128
What is a voice-activated system (VOX)?
A system that activates the microphone automatically when speech is detected.
129
What is the procedure for routine fault finding and correction in a radio system?
Check power, circuit breakers, volume, squelch, antenna connection, and switch radios if needed.
130
What are the standard phraseologies for circuit positions and calls?
Use terms like "downwind," "base," "final," and include position, altitude, and intentions in each call.
131
What are the responsibilities of an aeronautical radio operator regarding communication secrecy?
Do not share or repeat any information not intended for public release.
132
What are unauthorised transmissions in aviation radio?
Any non-operational or personal messages, or interference with official communication.
133
What are the functions of a radio system's power source, master switch, fuses, and breakers?
Provide and control power, and protect the system from overload.
134
What is the function of a microphone in an aircraft radio system?
To convert the pilot’s voice into an electrical signal for transmission.
135
What does the transmitter do in a radio system?
Sends the audio signal over the selected frequency.
136
What is the role of the receiver in a radio system?
Converts incoming radio signals into audio output for the pilot.
137
What is the function of the antenna in a radio system?
Transmits and receives radio waves between the aircraft and other stations.
138
What do the headphones and speaker do in a radio system?
Allow the pilot to hear incoming communications clearly.
139
What is the difference between a distress and an emergency message?
A distress message (Mayday) is for immediate danger
140
What are the standard phrases for distress and emergency?
"Mayday, Mayday, Mayday" for distress and "Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan" for urgency.
141
What are the radio failure procedures according to ERSA?
Follow prescribed route, maintain last clearance, squawk 7600, and attempt all forms of communication.
142
What are the controls used to transmit and receive with an aeronautical radiotelephone?
Microphone button (PTT), frequency selector, audio panel switches, volume, and squelch.
143
What are the main radio frequency band ranges used in aviation?
MF (Medium Frequency), HF (High Frequency), VHF (Very High Frequency), UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
144
What are the properties of radio waves?
Travel in straight lines, affected by terrain and atmosphere, reflect, refract, diffract, and can be absorbed.
145
What determines the effective range of radio transmissions?
Frequency used, antenna type, power output, terrain, and atmospheric conditions.
146
What is a ground wave?
A radio wave that follows the Earth's surface and is used primarily in MF and HF communications.
147
What is a sky wave?
A radio wave that reflects off the ionosphere, allowing long-range HF communication.
148
What factors affect radio wave propagation and reception?
Terrain, ionospheric conditions, sunspot activity, electrical interference, thunderstorms, and signal attenuation.
149
How does terrain affect radio reception?
Mountains, buildings, and obstacles can block or reflect signals, reducing range and clarity.
150
How does the ionosphere affect radio waves?
Reflects HF waves for long-distance communication, but can vary with time of day and solar activity.
151
What is sunspot activity and how does it affect radio waves?
Solar phenomena that increase ionospheric density, enhancing or disrupting HF communication.
152
How do electrical equipment and thunderstorms interfere with radio signals?
They produce electromagnetic noise, causing static or signal loss.
153
What is power attenuation in radio communication?
Loss of signal strength over distance due to spreading and absorption.
154
What are the characteristics of radio antennas?
Designed for specific frequencies, directional or omnidirectional, and affect signal strength and clarity.
155
How are antennas used in aviation?
For transmitting and receiving communication and navigation signals.
156
What are the limitations of VHF signals?
Line-of-sight only, limited by terrain and altitude, little atmospheric interference.
157
What are the limitations of HF signals?
Subject to ionospheric variation, atmospheric noise, and time-of-day dependence, but capable of long-range.
158
What factors affect the quality and range of radio signals?
Frequency, terrain, atmospheric conditions, power, and antenna design.
