CANCER Flashcards
What is the mechanism of action of 5-flourouracil
Competitively inhibits thymidylate synthase, preventing the conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP)
Name the drugs that act on the following cell cycle phases:
G1
S
G2
M
G1 phase → growth phase:
Hormonal drugs
Antineoplastic enzymes
S phase → DNA synthesis phase:
Antimetabolites (Folate, Purines, Pyrimidines)
Hydroxyurea
Topoisomerase I inhibitors
G2 phase → growth and preparation for mitosis phase
Epipodophyllotoxin derivatives
Taxanes
Anti-tumour antibiotics (Bleomycin)
M phase → mitotic phase
Vinca alkaloids
Taxanes
What are the symptoms of Carcinoid syndrome
Carcinoid syndrome typically present with a flushed face, abdominal pain, diarrhoea and dyspnoea
Name the term of cancer that develops in:
Epithelial tissue
Connective tissue
Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
(Benign and malignant)
Epithelial tissue
Benign form: Papilloma and Adenoma
Malignant form: Carcinoma and Adenocarcinoma
Connective tissue
Benign form: Fibroma
Malignant form: Sarcoma
Smooth muscle
Benign form: Leiomyoma
Malignant form: Leiomyosarcoma
Skeletal muscle
Benign form: Rhabdomyoma
Malignant form: Rhabdomyosarcoma
What cells does Rituximab target
B lymphocytes via CD20 binding
Presentation of diffuse erythema, scaling, and freckle like areas of increased pigmentation is indicative of what and what is the underlying cause
Xeroderma Pigmentosum (XP) - autosomal recessive inherited condition
The skin disorders are caused by defects in the nucleotide excision repair (NER) pathway –> reduced ability to repair ultraviolet-induced DNA damage
What are the key tumour markings for the following:
Hepatocellular Cancer
Testicular Cancer
Breast Cancer
Pancreatic Cancer
Ovarian Cancer
Colorectal Cancer
Prostate Cancer
AFP → Hepatocellular Cancer
AFP, HCG → Testicular Cancer
CA 15-3 → Breast Cancer
CA 19-9 → Pancreatic Cancer
CA 125 → Ovarian Cancer
CEA → Colorectal Cancer
PSA → Prostate Cancer
What is the mechanism of action of Methotrexate
Inhibitor of tetrahydrofolate synthesis, which is required for the S phase of the cell cycle
What can be indicated for chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting
5-HT3 receptor antagonists
This image represents the pathogenesis pathway of colorectal carcinoma development. Name the gene mutations at these points (A→ C)
A - Loss of APC
B - KRAS activation
C - Loss of p53
Describe the criteria in TNM staging in breast cancer
T (tumour)
- Tx → tumour cannot be assessed
- T0 → tumour not present
- Tis → invasion into the epithelium (tumour/carcinoma in situ)
- T1 → tumour measures less and including 2cm
- T2 → tumour measures more than 2cm but less than and including 5cm
- T3 → tumour measures more than 5cm
- T4 → a tumour of any size that has extended to the chest wall
N (node)
- Nx → lymph nodes cannot be assessed
- N0 → no invaded to adjacent lymph nodes
- N1 → invaded to ipsilateral, movable axillary lymph nodes
- N2 → invaded to ipsilateral, fixed axillary lymph nodes OR internal mammary lymph nodes
- N3 → invaded to infraclavicular/supraclavicular lymph nodes OR ipsilateral axillary lymph nodes AND internal mammary lymph nodes
M (metastasis)
- M0 → no distant metastases
- M1 → distant metastases present
Describe these cancer terms:
- Adenocarcinoma
- Anaplasia
- Dysplasia
- Metaplasia
- Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma → Malignant tissue arising from glandular cells, often these tumours retain their glandular architecture
Anaplasia → A tissue where the cells completely lack differentiation, as well as polarity. It is the classic appearance of high-grade malignancies
Dysplasia → A tissue where cells have abnormal cellular architecture, typically with nuclear hyperchromasia and loss of cell polarity, often described as premalignant
Metaplasia → A histological change where one differentiated cell type is replaced by another differentiated cell type that is not normally present in that region
Squamous cell carcinoma → Malignant tissue arising from squamous epithelial cells, these tumours appear as sheets of polygonal cells often dispersed with keratin pearls
What are the criteria of the Glasgow 7-point checklist and what is it used for
Major features (2 points):
- Change in size
- Irregular shape
- Irregular colour
Minor features (1 point):
- Crusting/bleeding
- Inflammation
- Itch/altered sensation
- Diameter ≥ 7cm
Total >=3 → 2 week referral
Used for suspected melanomas
What translocation forms the Philadelphia chromosome and what is it associated with
9;22 translocation and it is associated with chronic myeloid leukaemia
What is Imatinib used to treat and what is it’s mechanism of action
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (9;22 translocation)
