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54/64 Unit 3 > Cancer > Flashcards

Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Series of cellular genetic abberations that cause abnormal cells to proliferate marked by unchecked growth and invasion of surrounding tissues

A

Cancer

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2
Q

Cancer has the ability to _________ to secondary sites

A

Metastasize

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3
Q

Cell division

A

Mitosis

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4
Q

New or continued cell growth not needed for normal development or replacement of dead or damaged cells

A

Neoplasia

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5
Q

Term used to describe cancer cells moving from primary tumor by breaking off from original site and establishing remote colonies

A

Metastasize

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6
Q

Cancer development with changing of a normal cell to a cancer cell

A

Carcinogenesis

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7
Q

Process through which healthy cells become transformed into cancer cells and cells divide in an uncontrolled manner

A

Oncogenesis

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8
Q

Substances that change the activity of a cell’s genes so the cell becomes a cancer cell

A

Carcinogens

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9
Q

_________ classifies the number and structure of tumor chromosomes as normal or abnormal

A

Ploidy

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10
Q

_________ must invade the body first before cancer develops and can be chemical, biological, or environmental

A

Carcinogens

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11
Q

Term used to describe cells as having an abnormal structure or number of chromosomes

A

Aneuploidy

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12
Q

Genetic portion of DNA that regulates normal cell growth and repair; A mutation may allow cells to proliferate beyond normal body needs

A

Proto-oncogens

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13
Q

Mutated genes of normal proto-oncogenes that can give rise to cancer

A

Oncogenes

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14
Q

Genetic portion of DNA that stops, inhibits, or suppresses cell division

A

Tumor suppressor genes

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15
Q

Programmed cell death that can lead to cancer if failed

A

Apoptosis

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16
Q

___ ______ genes make repairs to the DNA caused by carcinogens, but are not able to repair all the damage

A

DNA repair

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17
Q

Characteristics of benign tumor cells

A
  • Specific morphology (cells look like the tissue they come from)
  • nuclear to cytoplasmic ration (nucleus and rest of cell are consistently the same size)
  • Specific differentiated functions (acts like normal cells)
  • tight adherence
  • no migration
  • orderly growth
  • euploidy (complete set of 23 chromosomes)
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18
Q

Characteristics of malignant tumor cells

A
  • anaplasia
  • large nuclear cytoplasmic ration (nucleus larger than rest of cell)
  • specific function lost
  • loose adherence
  • migration occurs
  • contact inhibition does not occur (b/c of loss of cellular regulation)
  • rapid or continuous cell division
  • abnormal chromosomes (more or less than 23)
  • angiogenesis (creation of own blood supply)
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19
Q

Describe the process of Carcinogenesis (how cancer metastasizes)

A

1) malignant transformation, 2) initiation, 3) promotion, 4) progression I and II 5) metastasis

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20
Q

Process by which carcinogens are introduced resulting in increased growth

A

Promotion

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21
Q

Any tumor greater than ___ sonometers needs oxygen and blood supply

A

0.5

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22
Q

Adeno: tissue of origin

A

Epithelial glands

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23
Q

Adeno: benign tumor

A

Adenoma

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24
Q

Adeno: malignant tumor

A

Adenocarcinoma

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25
Q

Chondro: tissue of origin

A

Cartilage

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26
Q

Chondro: benign tumor

A

Chondroma

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27
Q

Chondro: malignant tumor

A

Chondrosarcoma

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28
Q

Fibro: tissue of origin

A

Fibrous connective

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29
Q

Fibro: benign tumor

A

Fibroma

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30
Q

Fibro: malignant tumor

A

Fibrosarcoma

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31
Q

Hemangio: tissue of origin

A

Blood vessel

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32
Q

Hemangio: benign tumor

A

Hemangioma

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33
Q

Hemangio: malignant tumor

A

Hemangiosarcoma

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34
Q

Hepato: tissue or origin

A

Liver

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35
Q

Hepato: benign tumor

A

Hepatoma

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36
Q

Hepato: malignant tumor

A

Hepatocarcinoma/Hepatoblastoma

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37
Q

Melano: tissue of origin

A

Pigment-producing skin (melanin)

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38
Q

Melano: malignant tumor

A

Melanoma

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39
Q

Meningio: tissue of origin

A

Meninges

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40
Q

Meningio: benign tumor

A

Meningioma

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41
Q

Meningio: malignant tumor

A

Malignant meningioma/Meningioblastoma

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42
Q

Neuro: tissue of origin

A

Nerve tissue

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43
Q

Neuro: benign tumor

A

Neuroma/Neurofibroma

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44
Q

Neuro: malignant tumor

A

Neurosarcoma/Neuroblastoma

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45
Q

Osteo: tissue of origin

A

Bone

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46
Q

Osteo: benign tumor

A

Osteoma

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47
Q

Osteo: malignant tumor

A

Osteosarcoma

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48
Q

Renal: tissue of origin

A

Kidneys

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49
Q

Renal: malignant tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma

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50
Q

Rhabdo: tissue of origin

A

Skeletal muscle

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51
Q

Rhabdo: benign tumor

A

Rhabdomyoma

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52
Q

Rhabdo: malignant tumor

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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53
Q

Squamous: tissue of origin

A

Epithelial layer of skin, mucous membranes, and organ linings

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54
Q

Squamous: benign tumor

A

Papilloma

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55
Q

Squamous: malignant tumor

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, bladder, lungs, cervix

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56
Q

Cancer management consists of

A

Curing and controlling the disease

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57
Q

Cancer management surgery used to prevent cancer such as a mastectomy or oophorectomy in women

A

Prophylactic surgery

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58
Q

Cancer management surgery that determines diagnosis or extent of the disease

A

Diagnostic surgery

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59
Q

Cancer management surgery that consists of removing all visible tumor, performing frozen suction of tumor segments, and assessing for cancer cells

A

Curative surgery

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60
Q

Intense surgery involving the administration of heating chemotherapy into the abdominal cavity, allowing it to dwell, then suctioning out the chemo

A

Cancer control/cytoreduction

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61
Q

Cancer management consisting of pain/pressure management with the goal of restoring as much function as possible

A

Palliative

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62
Q

Surgery done prior to chemotherapy to increase the effectiveness of chemo

A

Debulking surgery

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63
Q

The goal of _________ is to kill cancer cells while having minimal damaging effect on surrounding tissue

A

Radiation

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64
Q

Cancer management that blocks the growth and spread of cancer by interfering with the cellular growth pathways involves in cellular regulation

A

Small molecule inhibitor targeted therapy

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65
Q

Cancer management used in some upper GI therapies and skin cancer

A

Photodynamic therapy

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66
Q

Cancer management used to block hormone production in hormone driven tumors

A

Hormonal manipulation

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67
Q

Cytotoxic systemic therapy involves

A

Chemotherapy, oral, IV, intracranial, intrathecal

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68
Q

Biological response modifier therapy (BRM) is also called _________, and uses substances from living organisms and the individual’s own immune system to fight cancer and treat the disease

A

Immunotherapy

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69
Q

Radiation nursing considerations

A

Minimize as much exposure time as possible, always wear lead aprons, keep distance!

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70
Q

What is the most critical site for radiation therapy?

A

DNA

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71
Q

Cancer vaccine

A

HPV

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72
Q

_________ chemotherapy is given after primary intervention such as surgery to prevent of lessen the chance of cells growing back and to decrease tumor growth

A

Adjuvant

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73
Q

General cancer risk factors

A

Smoking, age > 55 (although now being seen in younger populations), poor nutrition, sedentary lifestyle, exposure to chemical and airborne pollutants, previous radiation and chemotherapy, genetics

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74
Q

Detailed cancer staging assesses what three factors?

A

Tumor, Nodes, and Mets (TNM)

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75
Q

Cancer staging: Tx

A

Main tumor cannot be measured

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76
Q

Cancer staging: T0

A

Main tumor not found

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77
Q

Cancer staging that refers to size and/or extent of main tumor; the higher the # the larger the tumor

A

T1,2,3,4

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78
Q

Cancer staging: Nx

A

Regional lymph nodes not measured

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79
Q

Cancer staging: N0

A

No cancer in nearby lymph nodes

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80
Q

Cancer staging ___ refers to the number and location of MOBILE lymph nodes that contain cancer

A

N1

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81
Q

Cancer staging ___ refers to the number of FIXED nodes involved

A

N2

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82
Q

Cancer staging: Mx

A

Mets can’t be measured

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83
Q

Cancer staging ___ indicates cancer had not spread to other parts of the body

A

M0

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84
Q

Cancer staging ___ indicates cancer has spread outside the original tumor to other organs

A

M1

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85
Q

Precursor to cancer by which abnormal cells are present, but there is no cancer

A

Stage 0 (Carcinoma in Situ)

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86
Q

Stages in which cancer is present

A

I, II, III (the larger the tumor or more it has spread to nearby tissues increase the stage)

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87
Q

Stage in which cancer has spread to distant organs of the body

A

IV

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88
Q

Cancer that is _________ differentiated describes the tumor acting and looking normal, but is not. This staging usually has better outcomes

A

Highly

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89
Q

Cancer that is _________ differentiated describes the tumor as irregular with no resemblance to normal cells, exhibits rapid growth, and metastasizes easily

A

Poorly

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90
Q

Types of lung cancer

A

Small cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, large-cell carcinoma

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91
Q

What is the #1 risk factor for lung cancer?

A

Smoking (including vaping)

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92
Q

Respiratory symptoms of lung cancer

A

Cough, hemoptysis, wheezing, dyspnea, chest pain (dull or pleuritic), hoarseness, dysphasia, pleural effusion

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93
Q

Cardiovascular symptoms of lung cancer

A

Compression of the superior vena cava

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94
Q

GI symptoms of lung cancer

A

Anorexia

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95
Q

Metabolic processes related to lung cancer

A

Weight loss and fever

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96
Q

Paraneoplastic endocrine symptoms/syndromes of cancer

A

Hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, Cushing syndrome, SIADH, hyponatremia

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97
Q

Paraneoplastic cardiovascular symptoms of cancer

A

Thrombophlebitis, endocarditis

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98
Q

Paraneoplastic hematologic effects of cancer

A

Anemia, DIC, Eosinophilia

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99
Q

Paraneoplastic connective tissue syndromes of cancer

A

Osteoarthropathy with clubbing and periosteal inflammation

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100
Q

Paraneoplastic neuromuscular effects of cancer

A

Peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar degeneration, myasthenia-like muscle weakness

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101
Q

Second-line cancer treatment that works with T cells, B cells, and Natural Killer Cells to kill what has not been killed

A

Immunotherapy

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102
Q

Most colorectal cancers are _________ and are most often found within the __________ area

A

Adenocarcinomas; rectosigmoid

103
Q

What is the most common site of metastasis with colorectal cancer?

A

Liver

104
Q

Colorectal cancer risk factors

A

Age >50, genetics, family hx, Crohn’s, UC, H. Pylori, HPV, high fat and processed foods, smoking

105
Q

S/S of colorectal cancer

A

Rectal bleeding and changes in bowel habits

106
Q

Surgical treatment of colorectal cancer

A

Colon resection or abdominal perineal resection (resulting in permanent ileostomy)

107
Q

What are the 4 types of leukemia?

A

1) acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), 2) chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), 3) acute myeloid leukemia (AML), 4) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

108
Q

Myeloid leukemias arise from

A

Myeloid tissue

109
Q

Lymphoblastic leukemias arise from

A

Lymph system

110
Q

_________ results from excessive growth of immature lymphocytes which leads to stoppage of normal bone marrow production

A

ALL

111
Q

Leukemia risk factors

A

Radiation, chemicals, drugs, immunity factors, previous chemo and radiation, genetics

112
Q

Respiratory S/S of leukemia

A

SOB, dyspnea on exertion

113
Q

Hematologic symptoms of leukemia

A

Clotting disorders, nose bleeds, bleeding gums, excessive bruising, petechiae, high WBC and blasts

114
Q

Reproductive symptoms of leukemia

A

Increased menstrual flow

115
Q

GU symptoms of leukemia

A

Hematuria

116
Q

GI symptoms of leukemia

A

Rectal bleeding, loss of appetite

117
Q

CNS symptoms of leukemia

A

Headaches, behavioral changes, fatigue

118
Q

Cardiovascular symptoms of leukemia

A

Palpitations, hypotension

119
Q

Lab tests for leukemia

A

CBC/CMP, bone marrow aspiration, clotting factors, chromosome analysis

120
Q

Chromosome analysis for leukemia

A

Philadelphia chromosome found only in CML or ALL

121
Q

Types of Lymphomas

A

Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s

122
Q

What population is Hodgkin’s most common in?

A

Teens and young adults and 50-60 yo.

123
Q

Possible causes of Hodgkin’s

A

Viruses — Epstein Barr, HIV, and chemical exposures

124
Q

Lymphoma that usually starts in a single node or single chain of nodes

A

Hodgkin’s

125
Q

Hallmark of Hodgkin’s

A

Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

126
Q

Hodgkin’s treatment for early and extensive stages

A

Early — aggressive external radiation; Extensive — chemo and radiation

127
Q

All lymphoid cancers that do not contain Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Non-Hodgkin’s

128
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s has a higher incidence in

A

Transplant patients, those on immunosuppressive therapy, and HIV

129
Q

_________ in the stomach is thought to be a precursor to mucosa-associated lymphoma (MALT)

A

H. Pylori

130
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s treatment

A

Combo chemo, MABs, localized radiation, I 131 radiolabeled antibodies, targeted therapy, CarT cell therapy to increase immune system

131
Q

_________ are solid tumors in the lymphoid tissues such as lymph nodes, lymph organs such as spleen, and liver

A

Lymphomas

132
Q

S/S of lymphomas

A

Drenching night sweats, unintentional weight loss, fatigue — poor prognosis with these symptoms

133
Q

Lymphoma treatment patient education

A

Increased risk for permanent fertility and sterility in males

134
Q

Types of skin cancer

A

Actinic keratosis, basal cell, squamous cell, melanoma

135
Q

Most common precancerous lesions related to sun damage that can progress to squamous cell carcinoma

A

Actinic keratosis

136
Q

Skin cancer prevention

A

Wear sunscreen, avoid sun

137
Q

Most common skin cancer affecting the basal layer of the epidermis

A

Basal cell carcinoma

138
Q

Most common cause of basal cell carcinoma

A

UV exposure

139
Q

Melanomas arise from

A

Melanin

140
Q

ABCDE assessment of melanoma

A

Asymmetry, Borders irregular, Color (multicolored w/blackened or dark spots), Diameter >6mm (pencil eraser), Evolution (changes in size, color, border)

141
Q

Melanoma risk factors

A

Genetics, chemical carcinogens, sun exposure — melanomas are HIGHLY metastatic

142
Q

Two broad categories of breast cancer

A

Non-invasive and invasive

143
Q

Breast cancer that remains within the duct

A

Non-invasive

144
Q

Most common breast cancer that grows into surrounding breast tissue or beyond

A

Invasive

145
Q

Breast cancer is diagnosed according to

A

ER/PR/Her2Neu status — whether positive or negative and Triple Negative which lacks expression of ER/PR and Her2Neu

146
Q

Breast cancer is more prevalent in

A

African American and Jewish women

147
Q

Breast cancer comes from a _____ transformed cell

A

SINGLE

148
Q

Breast cancer that has not invaded surrounding tissue, but can be a precursor and is found in the DUCTS of the breasts

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

149
Q

Most common type of breast cancer that causes dimpling of the skin of the breasts (orange peel appearance)

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

150
Q

Cancer of the nipple(s)

A

Paget’s Disease

151
Q

Breast cancer treatment

A

Chemo, radiation, surgery

152
Q

Cells inside some of the breast LOBULES have started to become abnormal

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

153
Q

Most cancers of the cervix arise from

A

Squamous cells

154
Q

Metastatic diseases of the cervix are usually confined to the

A

Pelvis

155
Q

Most cases of cervical cancer are caused by

A

HPV

156
Q

_________ cancers are the leading cause of GYN deaths

A

Ovarian

157
Q

Ovarian cancer risk factors

A

Older age, obesity, estrogen use, certain fertility diagnoses

158
Q

S/S of cervical cancer

A

Abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge

159
Q

S/S of ovarian cancer

A

Abnormal vaginal bleeding/discharge, feeling full too quickly or difficulty eating, pelvic pain/pressure, frequent urination or urgency, constipation, bloating, abdominal or back pain

160
Q

S/S of uterine cancer

A

Abnormal vaginal bleeding/discharge, pelvic pain/pressure

161
Q

S/S of vaginal cancer

A

Abnormal vaginal bleeding/discharge, frequency urination or urgency

162
Q

S/S of vulvar cancer

A

Itchin, burning, pin, or tenderness of vulva, changes in vulva color or skin, such as rash, sores, or warts

163
Q

First treatment for cervical or ovarian cancers

A

Hysterectomy

164
Q

T or F: cervical and ovarian cancers have a high recurrence rate

A

True

165
Q

Internal radiation therapy used to treat cancers of the cervix, prostate, etc.

A

Brachytherapy

166
Q

Brachytherapy nursing considerations/patient education

A

No visitors, patient placed in special room, foley insertion, need at least 3 doses of medication

167
Q

Brachytherapy nursing intervention

A

Pain management

168
Q

Symptoms of enlarged prostate

A

Hematuria, dysuria, nocturia, decreased urine stream, urgency

169
Q

T or F: an enlarged prostrate is an abnormal process in aging men

A

False; prostate enlargement is a normal process in aging men

170
Q

Characteristics of prostate cancer

A

Most are adenocarcinomas, slowest growing of all cancers, metastasis is very predictable, good prognosis if found and treated early

171
Q

Prostate cancer metastasizes to

A

Bone

172
Q

Prostate cancer risk factors

A

Advanced age, family hx, African American men

173
Q

Prostate cancer treatment

A

Radiation and brachytherapy

174
Q

Medications for prostate cancer

A

Androgen deprivation therapy, chemotherapy

175
Q

Lung cancer can metastasize to the

A

Bone, brain, adrenal gland

176
Q

Breast cancer can metastasize to the

A

Brain, bone, lungs, liver

177
Q

Skin melanoma can metastasize to the

A

Brain

178
Q

Ovarian cancer can metastasize to the

A

Pleura, liver

179
Q

Chemo drugs are classified as pregnancy category ___ or ___ and its usage choice is based on benefits vs. risks

A

D; X

180
Q

Chemo and radiation can cause significant permanent fetal harm or death with greatest risk during the _____ trimester

A

First

181
Q

Chemo can be given during what trimesters to improve maternal outcome without significant fetal risk?

A

2nd and 3rd

182
Q

Reproductive risks associated with killing of germinal epithelial cells

A

Irreversible sterility in males, ovarian damage w/ subsequent amenorrhea in females, possible teratogenic effects on pregnant women with possible fetal death

183
Q

Pregnancy category D chemo drugs

A

Benefit outweighs the risk

184
Q

Pregnancy category X chemo drugs

A

Contraindicated

185
Q

Breast cancer incidence

A

1 in 8 women

186
Q

Prostate cancer incidence

A

1 in 8 men

187
Q

Assessment of malignant cell proliferation

A

Impaired immunity and clotting, altered GI function, altered peripheral nerve function, motor and sensory deficits, cancer pain, altered respiratory and cardiac function

188
Q

Decreased labs associated with chemotherapy

A

Neutrophils (neutropenia), WBCs (leukopenia), platelets (thrombocytopenia)

189
Q

Absolute neutrophil count less than ___ is critical in cancer patients

A

1.5

190
Q

S/S of thrombocytopenia

A

Increased fatigue, SOB, tachycardia, impaired clotting, increased bleeding

191
Q

Side effects of chemotherapy

A

Alterations in food taste, metallic taste, decreased appetite

192
Q

Education for patients with decreased appetite related to chemotherapy

A

Consume small, frequently meals; drink liquid substances such as ensure; keep food diary

193
Q

Cancer patients with inadequate nutrient intake may require TPN, but this carries and increased risk for

A

Infection

194
Q

Inflammation of the mucosa, the mucous membranes that line the mouth, causing mouth sores and fungal infections with white, scaly patches on skin and tongue

A

Mucusitis

195
Q

Food recommendations for patients with mucusitis

A

Soft foods such as yogurt (probiotics help decrease fungal flora)

196
Q

Interventions for metallic taste related to chemotherapy

A

Have the patient suck on lemon drops prior to eating; avoid metal pots/pans and utensils

197
Q

Intervention for chemotherapy induced nausea/vomiting

A

Antiemetics

198
Q

Cancer is suspected in the _________ if the patient presents with dysphasia

A

Esophagus

199
Q

Manifestations of chemo induced peripheral neuropathy

A

Change in gait and balance, loss of sensation or paresthesias in extremities

200
Q

1 risk for patients with bone cancers

A

Fractures

201
Q

Bone Mets can cause

A

Hypercalcemia

202
Q

Cancer pain

A

Can be acute, chronic, or idiopathic; may result from the cancer itself or treatment

203
Q

Characteristics of acute cancer pain

A

Described as pins and needles, burning

204
Q

Cancer pain treatment

A

Start with low-level ASA, acetaminophen, naproxen; progress to opioids (oxycodone, OxyContin, dilaudid, morphine); adjuvant therapies (amytriptyline, anticonvulsants); PCA (increase basal rate if pt hits button to frequently); epidural placement

205
Q

PCA education

A

Only the patient can hit the button!

206
Q

Nursing actions for airway difficulties

A

Oxygen, suction as needed, turn-cough-deep breathe, chest percussion

207
Q

The leakage of blood, lymph, or other fluid, caused by vesicant, from a blood vessel or tub into the tissue around it resulting in severe damage

A

Extravasation

208
Q

Extravasation interventions

A

STOP infusion, disconnect tubing from hub, call health care provider

209
Q

Low red blood cells

A

Anemia

210
Q

Anemia interventions

A

Epoietin Alfa, iron and folic acid supplements, rest

211
Q

Interventions for neutropenia (ANC <1.5, admitted if less than 0.5)

A

Neutropenic precautions: Full PPE, visitors for only 30 min at a time, visitors not allowed if ill, dedicated equipment for pt, disinfection (priority), NO plants or flowers in room

212
Q

Pharmacological prevention of neutropenia

A

Filgastrim (5-10 mcg/kg/day, subq for up to 5 days, 24-72 hrs POST chemo); Pegfilgastrim (24 hrs POST chemo 6mg/0.6mL)

213
Q

Medication that forces bone marrow to make more WBCs when the patient is already neutropenic

A

Filgastrim

214
Q

Medication given to reduce the CHANCE of neutropenia

A

Pegfilgastrim

215
Q

Home instructions for discharging a patient who has undergone chemo

A

Monitor temp daily (call if >100.4), avoid crowds, do NOT work in garden or with soil, NO RAW foods, do NOT handle cat litter, frequently disinfect toothbrush in dishwasher (weekly; esp. if pt has mucusitis)

216
Q

Thrombocytopenia patient education

A

Monitor for bleeding (melena, hematuria, hematemesis), avoid IVs if possible, use soft-bristled toothbrushes and electric razors, avoid NSAIDs, use assistive devices to avoid falls

217
Q

Alopecia interventions

A

Ice cap prior to and during chemotherapy, avoid direct sunlight if shaved head, look for wigs prior to starting chemo, shaving head can prevent pain related to destruction of hair follicles

218
Q

Extreme body wasting and malnutrition in advanced cancer patients

A

Cachexia

219
Q

Cachexia interventions

A

NUTRITION, T or PEG tubes, small frequent meals, monitor weight daily, food diary, appetite stimulating agents: megestrol and MJ (although cannot advise patient to take MJ)

220
Q

Mucusitis interventions

A

Avoid mouthwash w/ alcohol in it, baking soda and salt water rinses, cold foods and yogurt, brush teeth and use mouthwash before AND after eating

221
Q

Types of chemotherapy induced N/V (CIPM)

A
  • anticipatory
  • acute (within 24 hr)
  • delayed (after 24 hr)
  • breakthrough (intermittent, no regular pattern)
222
Q

Medications for CIPM

A

Serotonin antagonists, Ondansetron, neurokinin, neuroreceptor antagonists, corticosteroids

223
Q

Patients at high risk for sepsis

A

Neutropenic patients

224
Q

Sepsis presentation in cancer patients

A

Low-grade fever

225
Q

Two stage disorder triggered by sepsis characterized by extensive abnormal clotting that depletes clotting factors and platelets, followed by extensive hemorrhaging from multiple sites at once

A

DIC

226
Q

Clots related to DIC can result in symptoms such as

A

Pain, ischemia, stroke-like symptoms, dyspnea, tachycardia, decreased kidney function, bowel necrosis

227
Q

DIC interventions in early and late stages

A

Early — prevent infections (antibiotics), anticoagulants such as heparin; Late — clotting factors such as platelets and albumin

228
Q

Disorder of impaired water retention seen especially in small cell lung cancer patients

A

SIADH

229
Q

In SIADH, water is reabsorbed in excess by the kidneys and put back into circulation causing electrolyte imbalances such as

A

Hyponatremia

230
Q

Hyponatremia symptoms

A

Muscle weakness and cramps, fatigue

231
Q

SIADH interventions

A

Draw sodium levels frequently, fluid restriction, increase sodium SLOWLY (can overcorrect quickly), IV drug therapy, immediate cancer treatment, monitor for S/S of fluid overload

232
Q

Symptoms of increasing water retention related to SIADH

A

Sodium level decreases, edema and weight gain, CNS and personality changes, confusion, extreme muscle weakness

233
Q

Sodium less than 110 S/S

A

Seizure, coma, death

234
Q

Ontological emergency that occurs when tumor directly enters the spinal column or when a vertebra collapses from tumor degradation

A

Spinal cord compression

235
Q

Most common site for spinal cord compression

A

Thoracic spine

236
Q

Spinal cord compression treatment

A

MRI first; often palliative (start w/ high dose corticosteroids followed by tapered doses), surgery

237
Q

Hypercalcemia is an oncological emergency caused by bone Mets and is worsened with

A

Dehydration

238
Q

S/S of Hypercalcemia

A

Skeletal muscle pain, fatigue, N/V, constipation (review previous unit)

239
Q

Hypercalcemia treatment

A

Aggressive IV hydration with NS, dialysis (review previous unit)

240
Q

Oncological emergency by which the vena cava of the heart is being compressed by a tumor

A

Superior vena cava syndrome

241
Q

S/S of superior vena cava syndrome

A

Facial edema, periorbital edema, engorged blood vessels and erythema of upper body, dyspnea, stridor

242
Q

Diagnosis of superior vena cava syndrome

A

MRI and CT

243
Q

Oncological emergency characterized by a dump of tumor cells into the blood stream

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

244
Q

S/S of tumor lysis syndrome

A

Hyperkalemia, tall T waves, flat P waves, bradycardia, hyperuricemia, AKI, lethargy, N/V, CHANGE IN UOP**, anorexia, flank pain, muscle weakness and cramps, seizures

245
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome treatment

A

Hydration, preventing uric acid build-up, dilute potassium levels

246
Q

Lymph dissection can lead to

A

Lymphedema

247
Q

Prostate cancer always carries a risk for

A

Sexual dysfunction

248
Q

If a patient has undergone bone marrow biopsy and is thrombocytopenic, the priority is to

A

Control bleeding at site

249
Q

Symptom that alerts the nurse of tumor lysis syndrome

A

Change in urinary output

250
Q

Common preschooler reaction to cancer diagnosis

A

They often think they caused the illness and are now being punished for it

251
Q

Symptoms associated with spinal cord compression that the patient should alert the physician of

A

Sudden onset of back pain, decreased sensation in legs, edema

252
Q

What should the nurse monitor for in patients receiving immunotherapy

A

Dyspnea, possible pneumonitis

253
Q

What should the nurse monitor for in patients receiving radiation

A

Burns, lower GI issues

254
Q

Hypercalcemia is a result of

A

Sepsis

54/64 Unit 3 (8 decks)

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